2019 Ncc Advancement Exam

Front 1

The prior service reservation is reserved using which program?

Back 1

PRIDEMOD II

Front 2

When working with an applicant in the IRR or SelRes, what form must be signed by their respective service component reserve personnel office?

Back 2

DD 368

Front 3

In accordance with OPNAVINST 1100.4C, ________ are applicants whose last tour of active duty or active duty for training (AD/ACDUTRA) was in the U.S. Navy or U.S. Navy Reserve, have been discharged or released more than ______ , and who completed a minimum of _________ consecutive weeks of AD/ACDUTRA

Back 3

NAVETS, 24 HR, 12

Front 4

In accordance with OPNAVINST 1100.4C, ________ are applicants whose last tour of active duty or active duty for training (AD/ACDUTRA) was in the U.S. Navy or U.S. Navy Reserve, have been discharged or released more than ______ , and who completed a minimum of _________ consecutive weeks of AD/ACDUTRA

Back 4

PRISE-R formerly RESCORE-R

Front 5

T/F: E3 personnel previously designated as a striker may enlist in a designated status with the respective N132/ECM approval via NAVCRUITCOM (N32).

Back 5

True

Front 6

A bought not attained billet is canceled after how many days?

Back 6

60

Front 7

OSVETS must be enlisted through what program?

Back 7

DER

Front 8

What Re-enlistment code is Ineligible for reenlistment and no waiver is authorized?

Back 8

RE-4

Front 9

NAVETs generally must have at least 180 consecutive days of prior naval service, but no more than six years of prior naval service to enlist under what program?

Back 9

PRISE III

Front 10

NAVETS must be able to complete 20 years of service by what age?

Back 10

60

Front 11

If an Active Duty member wants to process for an AC Medical, JAG or Chaplain program or accociated student program, how will they apply?

Back 11

Through the nearest NAVCRUIT District

Front 12

Officer applicants must submit what transcripts to the NAVCRUIT District?

Back 12

Offical copies from every post secondary school they have ever attended

Front 13

ASTB test is comprised of what 6 score components?

Back 13

AQR, PFAR, PAF, FOFAR, FOAF & OAR

Front 14

The OAT exam is used for students applying to what type of school?

Back 14

Optometry

Front 15

Nuclear Power Instructors consist of how many separate designator(s)?

Back 15

2

Front 16

What designator is used for an Aviation Officer Candidate?

Back 16

1390

Front 17

A Reserve Officer receives thier billet through what program?

Back 17

JOAPPLY

Front 18

An IRR candidate must complete what portion(s) of the PFA prior to shipping to OCS/ODS?

Back 18

Only the BCA portion

Front 19

Age requirements for Officer Program applicants are based on what time factor?

Back 19

They must Commission by the Age listed in the Program Authorization

Front 20

Recruiting Operations Records are destroyed after how many years from accession, non-select, attainment or withdrawl?

Back 20

2

Front 21

An officer applicant is officially selected pending what action?

Back 21

Final Selection letter is signed and uploaded into PRIDEMOD II

Front 22

Officer Program requirements can be found in which document(s)?

Back 22

PAs, Service Agreement, Program Checklist

Front 23

A psychiatrist will apply for which medical designator?

Back 23

2100 or 2105 Medical Corps

Front 24

Once a complete and accurate kit is received by the NAVCRUITCOM processor, it will be sent via “next action” to?

Back 24

NAVCRUITCOM Program Manager

Front 25

T/F: The OAR is required for all General Officer Applicants?

Back 25

False

Front 26

T/F: Chaplain programs Active, Reserve and CCPO all use the same Program Authorization?

Back 26

False

Front 27

FAP in regards to Officer Programs is open to what designators?

Back 27

2100-Medical Corps & 2200-Dental Corps

Front 28

An Officer from another branch of service with a current MSO, must request to process through ______________ in order to become an officer in the Navy?

Back 28

Interservice Transfer

Front 29

T/F: A single parent with custody of their dependent child(ren) is eligible to apply for an Active Duty Commissioning Program?

Back 29

True

Front 30

A reserve officer wishing to go onto active duty submits an application through what program?

Back 30

Recall

Front 31

Purpose of Coaching

Back 31

Enable sales people to optimize their skills, Maximize performance, A process for accessing sales people

Front 32

When preparing for a school visit you would use what part of valor?

Back 32

POINTS

Front 33

Steps of coaching

Back 33

Engage and Connect, Clarify and Validate, Assess and Connect, Action and Follow up

Front 34

What is the C in the ROADMAP?

Back 34

Connect

Front 35

What is the "Why" of Valor?

Back 35

PSVP

Front 36

The PSVP is a how many step process?

Back 36

7

Front 37

PES in order?

Back 37

Discovery, Alignment, Positioning, Distinction. Collaboration

Front 38

What is the "How" of Valor?

Back 38

Prospect Engagement Skills

Front 39

What is the "What" of Valor?

Back 39

Roadmap

Front 40

What is the "When" of Valor?

Back 40

POINTS

Front 41

This section of the PATE calculates each prospecting mode into an average number of appointments, interviews, and physicals required to write one new contract in each of the 3 primary modes of prospecting?

Back 41

Prospecting Summary

Front 42

Prospecting Generated will be documented in what section of the PATE?

Back 42

Section 1

Front 43

What is the name of section I of the PATE?

Back 43

Prospecting Generated

Front 44

How many sub sections are there in section III of the PATE?

Back 44

2

Front 45

The Primary purpose of a phone call is to what?

Back 45

Set an appointment

Front 46

What section of the PATE is a 3 month historical data of prospecting activity generated?

Back 46

Prospecting Generated

Front 47

An applicant that was prospected using social media is documented using which source code?

Back 47

SN

Front 48

On the Applicant logwhat classification are applicants that have given a favorable response to the recruiter’s proposal, but need time to think about it or consult with a significant other prior to making a decision?

Back 48

Warm

Front 49

What is in Section IV of the PATE?

Back 49

Other Activity

Front 50

In regards to the DPR, how should the format be structured?

Back 50

Tailored for each individuals LPO/LCPOs experience level

Front 51

A new recruiter will stay on Station PATE for how many weeks?

Back 51

6-8

Front 52

NAVCRUIT Districts do not maintain an applicant log and review what as necessary?

Back 52

PATE

Front 53

T/F: NAVCRUITDISTs do not maintain applicant logs and shall only review the PATE sheets as needed.

Back 53

True

Front 54

A Divisional Applicant Log will contain what applicants?

Back 54

All qualified

Front 55

The prospects annotated on the Officer applicant logs require weekly follow up from the?

Back 55

Both OACR & OPO

Front 56

What provides enlisted production personnel with the tools necessary to effectively plan and evaluate recruiting activities to achieve goal?

Back 56

RPMS

Front 57

What is the NAVCRUITDIST’s fiscal year execution document to aid the team in tracking its efforts, provides the primary vehicle to coordinate recruiting evolutions, and ensures effective utilization of assets and resources?

Back 57

ORAMPS

Front 58

Officer applicants are retained for how long?

Back 58

Current plus previous 12 months

Front 59

An Enlisted Recruiter Referral is documented as what source code on an OR's applicant log?

Back 59

RE

Front 60

The fiscal year ORAMPS must be approved and signed by the CO by what date?

Back 60

1 September

Front 61

How many sections are there on the PATE?

Back 61

4

Front 62

T/F: The purposes of the DLCPO visit are to provide training, conduct audits, and present awards.

Back 62

False

Front 63

NRDs will track officer recruiter activity via the command approved what?

Back 63

ORAMPS

Front 64

Any interview conducted within the past how many months, will be counted as a carry over?

Back 64

12 months

Front 65

The NF applicant log is turned into whom at the end of each month?

Back 65

CR

Front 66

PATE is retained for how many months?

Back 66

Current plus previous 24 months

Front 67

An applicant source code of EM on an Officer applicant log is from what source?

Back 67

Email

Front 68

What provides officer production personnel with the tools necessary to effectively evaluate recruiting activities and achieve goal?

Back 68

ORPMS

Front 69

T/F: The applicant log will be manually generated by the Recruiter and computer generated by the DLCPO?

Back 69

False

Front 70

Goaling letter reviews are done how often and initialed by the chain of command how often?

Back 70

Reviewed monthly, initialed quarterly

Front 71

What is one of the most critical operations in a Navy recruiting station?

Back 71

DPR

Front 72

The ORAMPS shall facilitate several key functions by its content. The functional areas are?

Back 72

Verification, Manning & General Information

Front 73

What are the components of RPMS

Back 73

PATE, Planner, APPLOG

Front 74

The CO reviews and signs ORAMPS how often?

Back 74

Quarterly

Front 75

T/F: Recruiters are not allowed to control working ticklers?

Back 75

True

Front 76

T/F: Active Duty Collegiates are allowed to participate in the swim option of the PFA?

Back 76

False

Front 77

Who must sign all adverse CMRs?

Back 77

NRD CO

Front 78

T/F: A DEP recert must be filled out and signed for phone contacts?

Back 78

False

Front 79

What is required to transfer a collegiate?

Back 79

A letter requesting authorization for the transfer shall be uploaded into PRIDE MOD II by the requesting NAVCRUITDIST and notification forwarded to NAVCRUITCOM and NAVCRUITCOM will request an endorsement from the gaining NAVCRUITDIST, The detaching NAVCRUITDIST will ensure the member's collegiate records are forwarded to the new NAVCRUITDISTWhen the transfer has been approved by the appropriate program director, NAVCRUITCOM will issue a transfer approval letter, upload into PRIDE MOD II and notify both NAVCRUITDISTs,

The gaining NAVCRUITDIST will upload an endorsement to PRIDE MOD II within five working days of receipt and forward a notification to NAVCRUITCOM

Front 80

Which are all paths to a commission available through student programs?

Back 80

HSCP, NUPOC, HPSP, CCPO

Front 81

Collegiate Management Reports are due in what months?

Back 81

January & June

Front 82

When is a CMR not required to be submitted?

Back 82

If the collegiate Enlist the same month the CMR is due

Front 83

Active Duty Collegiates have the option to wear a military uniform as long as they abide by grooming standards?

Back 83

False

Front 84

All ODEP turnovers and audits will be documented where?

Back 84

PRIDEMOD II

Front 85

What commissioning programs are IRR Collegiates in?

Back 85

CCPO, HPSP, JAG Student, NCP

Front 86

What items would render a CMR adverse?

Back 86

Waiver from PFA due to injury

Front 87

Collegiates require a Face to Face Recert how often?

Back 87

Bi-Monthly

Front 88

T/F: If a collegiate wants to work outside the Navy they must request permission from the NAVCRUITDIST CO?

Back 88

True

Front 89

Who manages HPSP, NAADS, FAP, and NCP collegiates?

Back 89

BUMED

Front 90

Each Active Duty collegiate will receive what document from the OCRUITMAN?

Back 90

Appendix A

Front 91

Updated transcripts should be uploaded within how many days of completed term?

Back 91

on June 30th, on January 31st, & within 45 days of completed term

Front 92

Service and medical records will be mailed to OCS/ODS no later than what time frame?

Back 92

NLT 2 weeks

Front 93

When is a collegiate required to submit a leave chit?

Back 93

When leaving CONUS

Front 94

What pre-shipping requirement must be met within 30-45 days of shipping?

Back 94

PFA must be completed

Front 95

What form is used for Collegiate advancement through referrals?

Back 95

Advancement Letter

Front 96

ODEP Management is monitored by whom?

Back 96

OPO & OACR

Front 97

For an HSCP Collegiate to advance to E-7, their referral must access into which program(s)?

Back 97

Any medical commissioning program

Front 98

Active Duty Collegiates must enlist within how many working days from receipt of final selection letter?

Back 98

15 working days

Front 99

A Physical exam must be kept current, which is within how many months?

Back 99

24 months

Front 100

The 72 hr will be conducted face to face within how many working days of enlistment date?

Back 100

3 working days

Front 101

T/F: PACT stands for Professional Apprenticeship Career Track and consists of 4 programs, Airman, Seaman, Fireman and Engineering?

Back 101

False

Front 102

DD FORM 372 is what document?

Back 102

Verification of birth

Front 103

AN AEF/ATF applicant must meet what age requirement?

Back 103

Must not have reached their 30th Birthday at time of enlistment

Front 104

What is used for applicants enlisting or affiliating in select sensitive Navy and Navy Reserve ratings?

Back 104

PSSQ

Front 105

Forms are valid for what time period from the date of the applicant's signature?

Back 105

90 days

Front 106

Who is ultimately responsible for the quality assurance (QA) and maintenance of all activecomponent (AC) and reserve component (RD) residual records?

Back 106

EPDS

Front 107

PRISE-R applicants without a Class “A” School guarantee must complete lateral conversion prerequisites within _____ months from the date of enlistment or affiliation unless modified by waiver from NAVRESFORCOM

Back 107

18 months

Front 108

T/F: While in DEP, but prior to shipping, Aircrew candidates MUST pass the Navy’s physical readiness test (PRT) with a score of satisfactory for their age and gender?

Back 108

True

Front 109

Education code for someone who has graduated from an alternative highschool with no college would be what?

Back 109

125

Front 110

Submarine Programs are open to which of the following rates?

Back 110

CSS, MT, YNS & ITS

Front 111

The minimum NAPT score is?

Back 111

55

Front 112

What 2 composite scores on the ASVAB must be equal to or greater than 252 to qualify for the Nuclear Field without requiring the NAPT?

Back 112

NUC & EL

Front 113

A non-prior service applicant applying through the DPEP program, has 7 years experience with 4 years of supervisory experience as a Police Officer, and MA is an approved program due to it being a CREO 2 rating. What paygrade do they qualify to enter service as?

Back 113

E-6

Front 114

The College First Program provides a total monetary allowance of _________ per month while in DEP?

Back 114

$475

Front 115

What program is a Reserve affiliation program that allows NAVETs and OSVETs to affiliate with the Selected Reserve (SELRES) into Career Reenlistment Objectives (CREO) 1 and 2 ratings as listed in the Career Opportunity Matrix?

Back 115

PRISE-R

Front 116

There are how many NSW/NSO programs?

Back 116

5

Front 117

How many types of Nuclear Field Determinations are there?

Back 117

3

Front 118

What two HM ratings are eligible for DPEP?

Back 118

Mortician and Dental Tech

Front 119

You have a question regarding how to properly fill out a USMEPCOM 680, what volume of the E Cruitman would you find those instructions?

Back 119

Vol III

Front 120

A naturalized us citizen requires what type of determination?

Back 120

Type 2

Front 121

What is the Voter Registration Form?

Back 121

DD 2645

Front 122

MEPS will maintian residual files on all applicants for how long?

Back 122

2 years

Front 123

The Buddy Program can consist of groups of up to how many people?

Back 123

4

Front 124

An "attained not drilled" report is drafted after how many days since member's accession?

Back 124

60 Days

Front 125

Enlistment Bonus amounts can be found in which document?

Back 125

NAVADMIN

Front 126

In the assessing phase of VALOR, you are looking for the what?

Back 126

Pressures & Plans

Front 127

Skills for building credibility are Personal Knowledge, Prospect Knowledge and what?

Back 127

Program Knowledge

Front 128

What are the 4 types of Objections?

Back 128

Apathy, Doubt, Confusion, Obstacle

Front 129

The Navy partners with several affinity groups to assist with what aspect of the recruiting mission?

Back 129

Diversity

Front 130

Coaching is a 4 step process using Engage, Assess, Win and what other step?

Back 130

Reveal

Front 131

The unique value to the prospect is defined as the prospect's __________ realization the Navy will enable them to achieve their plans and relieve their pressures.

Back 131

Emotional

Front 132

What does VALOR Stand for?

Back 132

Value Oriented Recruiting

Front 133

Prior to completing the sales process, you must use which of the following to be successful?

Back 133

The Navy's Opportunities and Advantages, Proven Sales and Best Practices, Genuine relationships and Collaborative approaches

Front 134

When handling objections, you use the 4 Rs. What are the 4 Rs?

Back 134

Recognize, Relate, Realize, Respond

Front 135

The "O" in the Acronym FORM stands for?

Back 135

Occupation

Front 136

Program/Product Knowledge Tools consist of 11 tools, one is a report that is posted on the N314 iNavy Portal page that gives a snapshot of what specialties are still open for medical recruiting. What is that report?

Back 136

Dashboard

Front 137

A question that requires a specific or limited response is what type of Discovery Question?

Back 137

Close-ended

Front 138

The _________ ____________ is comprised of four sections, Notes, Plans & Pressure, Opportunities and Advantages & UniqueValue

Back 138

Interview Overlay

Front 139

What type of objection relates to the applicant saying "I'm not interested in hearing more"?

Back 139

Apathy

Front 140

Speaking with the knowledge and confidence that elicits trust from others builds what?

Back 140

Credibility

Front 141

Which of the following is a Navy Resource used for credibility?

Back 141

Officer Recruiting Manual, NRC Start Guide, US Military Basic Pay Chart

Front 142

Each Sales step has 3 key words associated with it, what are they?

Back 142

What, When, How

Front 143

In the Acronym BBETRR the "T" stands for?

Back 143

Training

Front 144

VALOR is a how many step process?

Back 144

4

Front 145

What are the types of discovery questions?

Back 145

Open-ended, Closed-ended, Thought Provoking, Value Focused

Front 146

What is a formal outline that a supervisor or peer can use to facilitate a conversation?

Back 146

Coaching

Front 147

When building a credibility kit for a physician, which of the following represents the educational roadmap for a physician?

Back 147

BS/BA, MCAT, Medical School, Residency, Fellowship, Licensing, Board Certification, Practice Medicine

Front 148

_______ relationships/partnerships are best described as networking with a purpose.

Back 148

Strategic

Front 149

Confusion relates to what state of mind?

Back 149

I don't understand

Front 150

A credibility kit should include which of the following?

Back 150

Career Progression/Timeline, Day in the life, and Job DescriptionPreferred Selection Criteria and Program Communications

Front 151

A prospect found using Twitter is put under source code?

Back 151

SN

Front 152

A Global Records change will be conducted by what date each year to purge old school lists and add the new one?

Back 152

1 September

Front 153

An LCPO/LPO should not let a working tickler build to more than how many records in a single day?

Back 153

50

Front 154

Source code for Prior Service is what?

Back 154

RZ

Front 155

What market segment is optional for NAVCRUITDISTs?

Back 155

Female

Front 156

T/F: Web RTOOLS is designed to provide access to prospect data information in an assigned territory.

Back 156

True

Front 157

T/F: Market I.D. is the means by which a prospect is contacted. The purpose of contacting an individual is to arrange and conduct an interview with the prospect.

Back 157

False

Front 158

A QNE remains in the working tickler for how many months?

Back 158

6 months

Front 159

LEADS are required to remain in a working tickler for how long?

Back 159

4 months, until final disposition

Front 160

How many market segments are there in RTOOLs?

Back 160

8

Front 161

A 5305/1 must be submitted in what time frame?

Back 161

1 working day

Front 162

DEP PQS is mandatory for what Future Sailors?

Back 162

All non tier 1 future sailors

Front 163

Warrior Challenge Future Sailors must complete a PST when?

Back 163

Prior to Classification into the program, every 45 days while in the program, within 14 days of shipping

Front 164

Who's responsibility is to take on the role of mentor and provide guidance on all Future Sailor issues?

Back 164

Recruiter

Front 165

DEP Personnel are eligible to re-test after how many days in DEP?

Back 165

Never

Front 166

DEP Tracking Sheets are maintained on hand for what time period?

Back 166

24 months

Front 167

All of the following are examples of Advanced Paygrade to E-3 except?

Back 167

Completion of 24 semester hours

Front 168

11S applicants joining in what months, can be extended in DEP up to 15 months?

Back 168

May, June, & July

Front 169

Who ensure's each NAVCRUITDIST has a strong, viable DEP Pool?

Back 169

Region Commander

Front 170

DEP Recerts are required when?

Back 170

Monthly

Front 171

What program allows Future Sailors in DEP to take college courses and receive a $250 per month stipend while in college?

Back 171

College First Program

Front 172

What form is used to document Enlisted DEP referrals?

Back 172

5305/1

Front 173

During what event will a recruiter discuss the importance of DEP Meeting attendance?

Back 173

72 HR Indoc

Front 174

The initial mentoring should occur when?

Back 174

At least 7 days from the 72 hr indoc

Front 175

What leadership role is the most critical to DEP Management?

Back 175

LPO/LCPO

Front 176

_____ is responsible for conducting attrition analysis _______.

Back 176

EPO/Monthly

Front 177

MU applicants selected for which Band will be advanced to E6 upon graduation of RTC?

Back 177

US Navy Band

Front 178

What document is used to conduct and prepare DEP Meetings?

Back 178

DEP Tool Kit

Front 179

How many DEP meetings per month is a DLCPO required to attend?

Back 179

2

Front 180

DEP Audits should be conducted how often by the DLCPO to identify attrition trends?

Back 180

Quarterly

Front 181

Who is responsible for monitoring the DEP Pool with special emphasis on next 90 days of shipping?

Back 181

CR

Front 182

What is the first essential step in achieving DEP Goals?

Back 182

Frequent Communication

Front 183

The LPO/DLCPO will screen DEP personnel for any new unauthorized tattoos at what two recertification periods?

Back 183

7 Day & 30 Day

Front 184

T/F: The responsibility of determining whether or not waiver requests warrant favorable consideration rests with all levels of command, but initially with the Commanding Officer.

Back 184

False

Front 185

Waiver determination will utilize what information?

Back 185

Whole Person Concept

Front 186

A 90 on the ASVAB is what Test Score Category?

Back 186

II

Front 187

What form is used in the case of a desserted parent?

Back 187

1133/97

Front 188

What is the minimum BMI for an applicant without a waiver?

Back 188

17.5

Front 189

What is the mimimum time reqirement to enlist after confinement of 20 days?

Back 189

3 months

Front 190

T/F: A hospital birth certificate signed by a hospital administrator or physician is a valid form of birth verification?.

Back 190

True

Front 191

What is the waiver authority for Marijuana use 150 times?

Back 191

NRD CO

Front 192

A mid year Graduate must have what percentage their graduation credits completed to DEP?

Back 192

70%

Front 193

Which of the following documents can be used as proof of Age?

Back 193

DD214

Front 194

When an applicant waits 25 months to take the ASVAB, is this considered a retest?

Back 194

No

Front 195

T/F: For an applicant to meet BEERS qualification they must not be under civil restraint, a substance abuser, nor have a pattern of minor convictions or any misconduct or major misconduct convictions.

Back 195

True

Front 196

A Non Prior Service applicant with 5 dependents must enlist through what program to be eligible?

Back 196

DPEP

Front 197

An applicant enlisting with a USCIS-I-551 card, will use what name on the enlistment kit?

Back 197

USCIS I-551 Card

Front 198

If an 11S fails to graduate as expected what options are available for them?

Back 198

They must be discharged and ineligibe to enlist until they have completed their secondary education

Front 199

There are 5 STEAM Reports, which one is not a STEAM Report?

Back 199

Goal Matrix & District SummaryLeads ZipCode ReportMarket Share & Station Summary

None of the above

Front 200

A Female in the AIRR program in DEP is identified on the DEP Status Board in what color?

Back 200

Green

Front 201

TRAMP is the acronym used for what?

Back 201

The best prospecting method for each target market

Front 202

What type of RAF is calculated with, 50 percent of the calculation based on the number 17-21 year olds in the market area (includes seniors) and 50 percent of the calculation based on the three-year average of ASAD for that market area?

Back 202

Traditional RAF

Front 203

T/F: ACCESS to a school has 3 categories, Full Access, Limited Access and No Access. Access refers to gaining access to the school.

Back 203

False

Front 204

STEAM stands for?

Back 204

Standardized Territory Evaluation and Analysis for Marketing Technique

Front 205

Which of the following is incorrect?

Back 205

Primary Market: 17-21

Workforce Market: 17-34

Secondary Market: 22-34

None of the above

Front 206

All of the following are parts of SMART except?

Back 206

WEBSteam

Front 207

Schools are categorized in what categories?

Back 207

Access, Status, and Priority

Front 208

A NRS with a RAF of 3.2 should have how many recruiters?

Back 208

3

Front 209

What is calculated for each station by multiplying the NAVCRUITSTA market share by the total number of production recruiters assigned to the NAVCRUITDIST?

Back 209

Recruiter Assignment Factor

Front 210

A 2 year College is identified with what on the Territory MAP?

Back 210

Green Star

Front 211

The Reserve Secondary Market is what?

Back 211

OSVET 21-39

NPS 18-39

Front 212

SMART stands for?

Back 212

Station Market Analysis and Review Technique

Front 213

What can assist in determining NCO distribution across NAVCRUITSTA boundaries consistent with diversity markets?

Back 213

STEAM

Front 214

What system is used to order RADs?

Back 214

IPOL

Front 215

The CO has granted a waiver for your recruiter in regards to CNRCINST 5370.1. What form must this be documented on?

Back 215

DD2982

Front 216

Who can both conduct and grant a one-time waiver for a production inspection?

Back 216

ROPS

Front 217

The Commanding Officer can delegate approval for Domicile to Duty to what lowest level?

Back 217

DLCPO

Front 218

In what instruction would your find a copy of the Advanced Officer Recruiter Qualification?

Back 218

CNRCINST 1136.2

Front 219

IPOL basic orders can be placed how often?

Back 219

Every 30 days

Front 220

When using a NAVCRUIT FORM 1535/1 the NAVCRUITDIST has what maximum purchase authority for advertising expenses?

Back 220

$2500

Front 221

What is the limit for emergency maintenance on a government vehicle credit card that does not require advanced approval?

Back 221

$100

Front 222

What instruction's purpose is to implement policies and procedures for conducting, reporting, and managing investigations concerning alleged enlistment and officer candidate processing irregularities within Navy Recruiting Command (NAVCRUITCOM)?

Back 222

CNRCINST 1137.3

Front 223

When submitting an IRD for supplies what is the maximum dollar amount that can be made in one purchase contract?

Back 223

$3000

Front 224

How many working days do you have to submit the completed Motor Vehicle Accident Reporting Kit?

Back 224

3 working days

Front 225

At what time frame will a government vehicle credit card be suspended if required maintenance is not completed?

Back 225

60 days

Front 226

As the Assigned Action officer for Diversity events at the NORS, what instuction will you find the Diversity Event Plan of Action and Milestones Format checklist?

Back 226

CNRCINST 1100.1

Front 227

A RAD order is limited to how many items?

Back 227

27 days

Front 228

You are setting up a DEP Event, and you meet with a vendor to obtain a quote, during the meeting you agree to place the order and put down a payment, before routing your IRD for approval. What is this called?

Back 228

Unauthorized Commitment

Front 229

Your recruiter was in an accident involving their government vehicle, what form(s) are included in the Motor Vehicle Accident Reporting Kit?

Back 229

SF91 & SF94

Front 230

If procedures for enlisting and processing are not strictly followed due to the apparent misconduct or negligence of recruiting personnel, if substantiated the Recruiter can be charged with UCMJ Article

Back 230

84

Front 231

The annual training plan is found in which instruction?

Back 231

CNRCINST 1500.4

Front 232

Special Event RAD orders must be submitted how far in advance of the event?

Back 232

90 days prior to the event

Front 233

Security codes must be changed how often?

Back 233

Annually & when recruiting personnel transfer

Front 234

You are conducting your annual self assesment, what instruction will you find the self assessment checklist?

Back 234

CNRCINST 5040.2

Front 235

You are preparing your NC2 for their CDB, you want to show them the CRF Progression Ladder, what manual will you look in?

Back 235

CNRCINST 5400.2

Front 236

What must be validated by the Vehicle Coordinator prior to granting permission to operate a Government Vehicle?

Back 236

Driving for Life Course, Drivers License, Command Vehicle Indoctrination

All of the above

Front 237

A NRS, NORS or NRRS may have how many IPOL account holders?

Back 237

1

Front 238

T/F: Parking violations incurred during official business is reimbursable by the government.

Back 238

False

Front 239

Who must approve all Special Event Orders?

Back 239

CO or XO

Front 240

In order for a district to be eligible for the Bronze "R" they must meet which of the following requirements?

Back 240

Enlisted Big 5 and Officer Big 6, plus 8 of the 12 other categories

Front 241

Which of the following is not a required publication for each station?

Back 241

Military Requirements for CPO, Navy Driver's Handbook, NROTC Bulletin for current year

None of the above

Front 242

The applicant log is computer generated for all of the following except?

Back 242

DLCPO

Front 243

To meet the Advancement Failure Rate for the Bronze "R", a District must be below what percentage for personnel failing their advancement exams?

Back 243

9%

Front 244

You have a Sailor checking into your station and has inquired about GLH, what reference would you provide?

Back 244

CNRCINST 11101.1

Front 245

E-7 Candidates will be allowed study time 10 weeks prior to the exam commencing in what Month?

Back 245

October

Front 246

Recruiter Assistance Leave Program authorizes Sailors _______ days of non-charged leave during what time period?

Back 246

5 days between A or C school and their first Permanent Duty Assignment

Front 247

The Admiral's Warrior Award is presented how often?

Back 247

Quarterly

Front 248

Application Procedures for CRF AC and RC is found in what instruction?

Back 248

BUPERSINST 1133.29

Front 249

A recruiter who's medical health prevents them from being able to perform their required duties on recruiting may be processed for which type of transfer?

Back 249

No fault

Front 250

An example of a VALOR training aid is the Meeting In the Box and Mini Clinics which are found in what location

Back 250

NRC MPTE Portal N7 page

Front 251

T/F: An LPO will earn a Gold Wreath Award when they achieve all requirements within any consecutive 3 month overlapping period?

Back 251

False

Front 252

Officers in the CANREC program will compete for promotion against what group?

Back 252

Their respective Ready Reserve designator

Front 253

An E-6 may be designated as a DLCPO with approval by what authority?

Back 253

NAVCRUITCOM REGION

Front 254

A Customer Experience Manager Qualification at a NTAG is equivalent to what qualification at the NRD?

Back 254

DLCPO

Front 255

What program is used to enhance civilian educator awareness of the professional training methods and educational opportunities available to young men and women in the Navy?

Back 255

Educator Orientation Visit

Front 256

T/F: Officers are not subject to Fault Transfers?

Back 256

True

Front 257

SDAP will be verified and sent to PSD at what minimum interval?

Back 257

Annually

Front 258

E-4 to E-6 candidates will be permitted _____ hours of study time per week _____ weeks before the Exam.

Back 258

4/6

Front 259

How often will Commanding Officers Review SDAP eligibility?

Back 259

Quarterly

Front 260

Who is the Board President of the RDB?

Back 260

XO

Front 261

REB for a failure to pass Basic PQS will be held after what period of time?

Back 261

90 days onboard

Front 262

What instruction outlines SDAP along with the accompanying NAVADMIN?

Back 262

OPNAV 1160.6

Front 263

An enlisted Recruiter can receive an NOB EVAL up to what month onboard?

Back 263

6th

Front 264

A CANREC cannot commence Active Duty Orders until a minimum of how many days from EAOS?

Back 264

31 days

Front 265

What is the instruction governing CANREC?

Back 265

BUPERSINST 1001.4

Front 266

T/F: When receiving both a National and or Regional or District Production Award, the member may receive awards from both awarding authorities for the same time period?

Back 266

False

Front 267

An RTI must have a minimum of how much DLCPO experience?

Back 267

36 months

Front 268

The Recruiter Development Board is held when?

Back 268

3rd month onboard

Front 269

The National advertising primary objective is:

Back 269

Build awareness in the target audience and Generate leads for field recruiters through “call to action” advertising.

Front 270

Study time for the March, September and January Advancement exams begins in what months?

Back 270

January, July, October

Front 271

All Manpower change requests must be made to which department at CNRC?

Back 271

N1

Front 272

T/F: IRR Sailors are eligible for CANREC?

Back 272

True

Front 273

CANRECS will be issued Active Duty orders for an initial __ year period and can be continued for up to __year(s)?

Back 273

2/3

Front 274

T/F: Applications for CANREC for sailors in paygrades E-6 to E-9 are not desired?

Back 274

True

Front 275

The RQB can have 3 final recommendations, Qualified, Failed and what?

Back 275

Unsatisfactory

Front 276

Awards instructions are found in which document(s)?

Back 276

SECNAV 1650.1

CNRC 1650.3

CNRC 12000.1

All of the above

Front 277

T/F: A NOB evaluation is authorized for all enlisted Sailors with 6 months or less, time on board for recruiting duty?

Back 277

False

Front 278

A Large Gold Star above the Gold Wreath signifies what Gold Wreath Award?

Back 278

20th

Front 279

A NF coordinator must be above what percentage of the stacking report to be eligible for a Gold Wreath?

Back 279

75%

Front 280

What is the maximum distance a CANREC Recruiter can be assigned from their residence?

Back 280

50 miles

Front 281

Which mobilized personnel are not required to complete the Leadership Development Program requirement for advancement due to limited duration of active duty?

Back 281

IRR

Front 282

An Enlisted Recruiter will earn a Gold Wreath award when they meet which of the following criteria?

Back 282

NET 3 TTCU or 4 NCO or Reserve contracts in a 3 month period or less

Front 283

PQS Completion must be entered into what system?

Back 283

PSR

Front 284

To be eligible for the Recruiting Gold "R" award the District must first receive what award?

Back 284

Bronze R & Silver R

Front 285

What is a web-based database application created on behalf of the Navy as a means to plan, track, and report on advertising initiatives, track responses and process leads that are obtained from the Navy’s national and local marketing communications?

Back 285

NALTS

Front 286

Who is not required to be on the Command Training Team?

Back 286

CO

Front 287

T/F: The two types of moves are Close proximity, within 50 miles and Out of Proximity, outisde 100 miles

Back 287

False

Front 288

What continues to be an important factor in quickly and effectively assisting new families adjust to the independent nature of recruiting duty?

Back 288

Welcome Aboard Package

Front 289

The Master Chief Bakarian Award is presented by what command?

Back 289

NORU

Front 290

To be eligible for the Bronze "R" a District must attain all of the following except?

Back 290

In month Loss Rate no greater than 2%

Front 291

What is the SOPMAN Instruction?

Back 291

5400.2

Front 292

What Collateral Material is used to raise the public's knowledge of the Navy?

Back 292

Awareness

Front 293

All Formal Training is documented in what system except?

Back 293

FLTMPS

Front 294

There are how many types of Collateral Materials?

Back 294

5

Front 295

Except for fleet reservist recalled to active duty E6, E7, and E8 members who have submitted formal written requests for transfer to the FLTRES are ineligible for further advancement consideration unless the request is mandated by what?

Back 295

HYT

Front 296

The NSO/NSW Coordinator must maintain what Passing and Remaining in Program rate at RTC to be eligible for a Gold Wreath?

Back 296

85%

Front 297

What obtains the maximum media exposure on a public service basis in both electronic and print media?

Back 297

Public Service Announcements

Front 298

Who has the authority to releive a CR/ACR?

Back 298

NRD CO

Front 299

Who is designated as the Command Training Officer?

Back 299

XO

Front 300

All cases of alleged recruiting irregularities involving Navy recruiting personnel shall be expeditiously reported to?

Back 300

NAVCRUITCOM 00IG

Front 301

The 37th Gold Wreath Award consists of which of the following?

Back 301

30th plus 2 gold stars

Front 302

The ___________ is held for those recruiters who fail to pass the RQB by their ninth month on board, or who successfully pass the RQB but whose production has been continually below average during their first nine months in recruiting.

Back 302

REB

Front 303

T/F: In order for a CRF member to request a Rate Reversion they must submit a NAVPERS 1306/7 and have completed at least 24 months of their 36 month obligation.

Back 303

False

Front 304

Personnel in classified rates can request cost TAD for how many days to study for the advancement exam?

Back 304

Up to 6 days

Front 305

To qualify ACR, what minimum paygrade and DLCPO experience is requried to be recommended for a board?

Back 305

CPO with 24 months

Front 306

Only through a good handoff between ________ & _________ will the learning continuum be effective

Back 306

Formal & field training

Front 307

What NEC must an RTI successfully attain to qualify?

Back 307

9502

Front 308

Reserve personnel in what status are NOT eligible for participation in the navy wide advancement examination?

Back 308

Records Review Status

Front 309

What Department of CNRC manages Collateral Materials Programs?

Back 309

N9

Front 310

Which of the following is a Nominative position vice slated position?

Back 310

National CR

Front 311

What is a three-part discipline, consisting of public information, community relations and internal relations?

Back 311

Public Affairs

Front 312

What President established the Navy?

Back 312

John Adams

Front 313

11,275 women were enlisted inservice as Yeomen (F) immediately after the US entered into World War I. They were stationed in all locations except?

Back 313

United Kingdom

Front 314

Who was the first officer in charge of aviation?

Back 314

Washington Irving Chambers

Front 315

The US Fourth Fleet is headquartered where?

Back 315

Mayport, FL

Front 316

What Admiral had the word "Sailor" prominently placed after his name on his granite tombstone in the US Naval Academy Cemetery?

Back 316

Arleigh Burke

Front 317

In 1865 the term chief petty officer was used to identify whom?

Back 317

The Ship's Master-At-Arms

Front 318

During what battle was the phrase "Damn the Torpedos" said?

Back 318

Battle of Mobile Bay

Front 319

MOH awardee for service in Afghanistan with ship named after?

Back 319

Michael Murphy

Front 320

What is perhaps the most widely known military ritual throughout the world?

Back 320

The Salute

Front 321

What type of space is represented of 01-56-2-A?

Back 321

Stowage Space

Front 322

The Third Fleet operates in what area?

Back 322

Eastern Pacific Office

Front 323

"Remember the Maine" was the battle cry for the beginning of what war?

Back 323

Spanish American War

Front 324

What was the first Flag Ship of the US Navy?

Back 324

USS Alfred

Front 325

How many vessels were purchased to found the Navy?

Back 325

2

Front 326

A flag on a staff is called what?

Back 326

The National Color

Front 327

The UIC is to be worn at what distance from the Stitching on the top of the sleeve?

Back 327

1/3" below the seem

Front 328

T/F: The first submarine battle was between the CSS Hunely and the USS Housatonic, where the CSS Hunely defeated the USS Housatonic.

Back 328

False

Front 329

Who is known as the father of the "Steam Powered Navy?"

Back 329

Matthew C. Perry

Front 330

T/F: Larger ships like Aircraft Carriers will have multiple entry and/or exit points. All are considered the quarterdeck

Back 330

False

Front 331

T/F: Courtesies are formal means of paying respect to personnel of senior rank or position.

Back 331

True

Front 332

What was the British warship that John Paul Jones was fighting when he spoke the famous words "I have not yet begun to fight!"

Back 332

Serapis

Front 333

Between the Revolutionary war and the War of 1812, what two additional wars were fought by the US Navy the Barbary States War and?

Back 333

Quasi War

Front 334

Sloops of War carried how many guns?

Back 334

10-20

Front 335

What day was the US Navy established?

Back 335

October 13, 1775

Front 336

What is the name of the first warfare submarine?

Back 336

Turtle

Front 337

T/F: Space 3-12-2-L on an Aircraft Carrier would be a living space found three decks above the main deck, nearer to the bow on the starboard side.

Back 337

False

Front 338

What was the first vessel sunk when the Japanese attacked Pearl Harbor?

Back 338

Submarine

Front 339

The First carrier designed from the hull up was the?

Back 339

USS Ranger

Front 340

The first two battleships were the USS Maine and the?

Back 340

USS Texas

Front 341

Who was the first Commander in Chief of the Navy?

Back 341

Esek Hopkins

Front 342

What is the size of the Neckerchief?

Back 342

36" square

Front 343

What Naval vessel was the direct outcome of H.G. Rickover's request?

Back 343

USS Nautilus

Front 344

Which of the following Officers were an integral part of the Barbary States War?

Back 344

Stephen Decatur

Front 345

The 3 followership qualities are Loyalty, initiative, and what?

Back 345

Dependability

Front 346

What was the first warship to use steam power?

Back 346

USS Demogolos

Front 347

Who was the first MCPON?

Back 347

Delbert Black

Front 348

What usually have no formal regulations or laws governing them, but are universally recognized and practiced actions?

Back 348

Customs

Front 349

The Birthday of the Chief Petty Officer is?

Back 349

April 1, 1893

Front 350

The 3 types of ships during the founding of the Navy were Ships of the Line, Sloops of War and What other vessel?

Back 350

Frigate

Front 351

The First Iron hull ship was a paddle sloop vessel. What was it's name?

Back 351

USS Michigan

Front 352

According to Naval Records, the first mention of Chief Petty Officer was in what year?

Back 352

1776

Front 353

The elements of a good leader are all except?

Back 353

Integrity

Front 354

The USS Constitution was one of how many frigates authorized for commission in 1794?

Back 354

6

Front 355

An AV-8B Aircraft is known for what unique feature?

Back 355

Vertical Short Take Off and Landing Capabilities

Front 356

Who commanded the USS Constitution against the British Frigate Guerriere, defeating it and earning the USS Constitution it's nickname "Old Ironsides"?

Back 356

Isaac Hull

Front 357

Logistics Support Manua

Back 357

COMNAVCRUITCOMINST 4400.1E

Front 358

Training

Back 358

COMNAVCRUITCOM INST 1500.4S

Front 359

Command Assessment Program

Back 359

COMNAVCRUITCOMINST 5040.2

Front 360

SOPMAN

Back 360

COMNAVCRUITCOMINST 5400.2F

Front 361

Fraternization

Back 361

OPNAVINST 5370.2D

Front 362

Awards

Back 362

COMNAVCRUITCOMINST 1650.1D

Front 363

Suicide Prevention

Back 363

OPNAVINST 1720.4A

Front 364

SORM

Back 364

5400.1

Front 365

PQS

Back 365

COMNAVCRUITCOMINST 1136.2S

Front 366

Officer Cruitman

Back 366

COMNAVCRUITCOMINST 1131.2G

Front 367

SAPR

Back 367

OPNAVINST 1752.2

Front 368

Field Advertising Manual

Back 368

COMNAVCRUITCOMINST 1140.3G

Front 369

Enlisted Cruiman

Back 369

COMNAVCRUITCOMINST 1130.8K

Front 370

Recruiter MAP Program

Back 370

1430.9

Front 371

N1

Back 371

Manpower & HR

Front 372

N3

Back 372

Operations

Front 373

N4

Back 373

Supply, logistics, & facilities

Front 374

N5

Back 374

Strategic planning

Front 375

N6

Back 375

IT & communications

Front 376

N7

Back 376

Training & QA

Front 377

N8

Back 377

Financial management

Front 378

N9

Back 378

Marketing

Front 379

E1-E6 eval form?

Back 379

1616/26

Front 380

E7-E9 eval form?

Back 380

1616/27

Front 381

E1-E3 eval due date

Back 381

15 Jul

Front 382

E4 eval due date

Back 382

15 Jun

Front 383

E5 eval due date

Back 383

15 Mar

Front 384

E6 eval due date

Back 384

15 Nov

Front 385

O1 fitrep due date

Back 385

May

Front 386

O2 fitrep due date

Back 386

Feb

Front 387

O3 fitrep due date

Back 387

Jan

Front 388

E7 fitrep due date

Back 388

15 Sep

Front 389

Types of transfers

Back 389

Fault, no fault, & incompatible

Front 390

Types of moves

Back 390

Short (in proximity) less than 50 miles pds to pds, and out of proximity (more than an hour 1 way)

Front 391

Fraudulent Enlistment Article

Back 391

83

Front 392

Effecting Unlawful Enlistment Article

Back 392

84

Front 393

Desertion Article

Back 393

85

Front 394

Absence without leave article

Back 394

86

Front 395

Missing movement article

Back 395

87

Front 396

Failure to obey lawful order article

Back 396

92

Front 397

DUI article

Back 397

111

Front 398

Drunk on duty article

Back 398

112

Front 399

Assault article

Back 399

128

Front 400

General article

Back 400

134

Front 401

CANREC Instruction

Back 401

BUPERSINST 1001.40B

Front 402

Advancement Manual

Back 402

BUPERSINST 1430.16F