Year 4 Locomotor

Front 1

Which acronym is helpful to remember when undertaking a physical exam on a lame animal?

Back 1

SOAP
Subjective (history/basic info)
Objective (physical exam)

Assessment (summary of results)

Plan

Front 2

State some of the things you may need to do as part of the OBJECTIVE stage of a locomotor exam?

Back 2

- Check symmetry/conformation/posture
- Check gait / circling and turning
- Palpation (GENTLY, unless bone)
- Hoof testers
- Joint manipulation / ROM / swelling

Front 3

Define the 'Safety Factor' of a limb/strucutre

Back 3

The maximum stress a structure withstands until breakage '/. Stress it is most likely to undergo during its lifetime

Front 4

How do you calculate 'stress'?

Back 4

Force '/. CSArea

Front 5

Which of the following factors does NOT influence the force on a limb?

a) Body Mass
b) Gait
c) Speed

d) Duration of Load

e) Number of Cycles

Back 5

B. The forces are the SAME in different gaits!

Front 6

Which one of the following force types is most commonly experience in JOINTS?

a) Shear
b) Tension
c) Compression

d) Bending

e) All of the Above

Back 6

A

Front 7

The equine leg can be defined as a 'biological spring'. Define three features that make it this way.

Back 7

1. LESS DISTAL MUSCLE MASS (increases speed and energy store and decreases swing)

2. STRAIGHT LIMB (less joint movement and force)

3. ONE 'FINGER' (stability > flexibility)

Front 8

Which of the following does not necessarily indicate lameness?

a) Poor posture
b) Asymmetry
c) Decreased ROM
d) Poor conformation
e) Not weight bearing

Back 8

D.

Front 9

Which of the following structures is most likely to be injured when subjected to a higher force?

a) DDFT
b) SDFT
c) SL
d) PAL
​e) They are all equally stressed

Back 9

B. Mainly because it is smaller.

Front 10

Bone fusion and lighter distal limbs both lead to energy saving movement in horses - by decreasing the time in which phase?

a) Swing
b) Stance
c) Toe Pivet
d) Heel Lift
​e) All of the above

Back 10

A

Front 11

Which of the following correctly defines the Duty Factor?

a) The ratio of loading to landing time
b) The ratio of travel to action time
c) The ratio of swing to stance time
d) The ratio of swing to landing time
​e) The ratio of loading to stance time

Back 11

C

Front 12

Which of the following gaits is best to be used for evaluating BACK problems?

a) Walk
b) Trot
c) Canter
d) Gallop
​e) Any of the above

Back 12

C.

Front 13

Which of the following gaits is best to be used for evaluation LAMENESS problems?

a) Walk
b) Trot
c) Canter
d) Gallop
​e) Any of the above

Back 13

B

Front 14

Which of the following diseases would cause a fetlock drop on the LAME limb?

a) Pastern fracture
b) EMS
c) Canker
d) Navicular Syndrome
​e) SDFT Damage

Back 14

E.

Front 15

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding equine lameness?

a) Drifting can occur toward the lame limb
b) Circling is worse when the lame limb is on the inside of the circle
c) Fetlock drop is seen on the non-lame limb
d) Pelvic hike is seen on the side of the lame limb

Back 15

A. It occurs AWAY from the lame limb

Front 16

Which of the following is NOT a predisposition for a horse to get laminitis?

a) Increased age
b) Increased weight
c) Increased time since worming
d) Increased exercise regime
​e) Increased grass access

Back 16

D.

Front 17

Which of the following is not an indicative sign of laminitis?

a) Increased digital pulse
b) Increase hoof wall temperature
c) Pain on hoof testers
d) Lameness in one limb
​e) Palpable depression at the coronary band`

Back 17

D. 99% of the time, Laminitis is present in more than one limb.

Front 18

Which of the following treatments would be least helpful when addressing laminitis in horses?

a) NSAIDs
b) Opiates
c) ACP

d) Ice Pack
e) Box Rest
f) 2% BW in poor quality hay
g) Zero-Grazing

Back 18

D. This is only good for PREVENTION and is very impractical for use in horses.

Front 19

Which of the following measures will NOT help reduce the risk of laminitis in horses?

a) Avoid hot, dark and drought conditions
b) Rotate paddocks regularly
c) Restrict turn out in spring/autumn

d) Increase fibre and forage
e) Decrease sugar and starch

Back 19

A. NSCs are higher in plants when they photosynthesise (in frosty, bright and drought conditions)

Front 20

Which of the following criteria gives the WORST prognosis in equine lameness?

a) Chronic case
b) Repeated incidents
c) Rotation >11.5 degrees on radiography

d) Sinking >15mm on radiography
e) No response to treatment

Back 20

D. Sinking is MUCH worse than rotation. Palpable depression around the coronary band is the worst sign you can get!!!

Front 21

Which of the following signs is ABNORMAL in a juvenile (>3 months) dog's X-Ray?

a) Big gaps between joints
b) Floating calcified spots
c) Epiphyseal plates

d) Thin cortices

Back 21

D. This is a sign of calcium deficiency!

Front 22

What is the name of the condition that gives rise to 'Bottle Jaw'?

a) Vitamin D Deficiency
b) Secondary Nutritional Hyperparathyroidism
c) Secondary Renal Hyperparathyroidism

d) Juvenile Calcium Deficiency
e)Metabolic Bone Disease

Back 22

C. Renal Failure = no vitamin D activation and less PO4 excretion = Ca + PO4 = low Ca = Increase PTH = bone release

Front 23

Which of the following would NOT be on your top differential list for an iguana with lameness?

a) Metabolic Bone Disease
b) Spinal Spondylosis
c) Secondary Nutritional Hyperparathyroidism

d) Gout
e) Arthritis

Back 23

C.

Front 24

Which of the following infectious diseases is associated with metaphyseal osteopathy in young dogs?

a) Kennel Cough
b) Distemper
c) Parvovirus

d) Canine Infectious Hepatitis
e) Leptospirosis

Back 24

B.

Front 25

Which one of the following treatments gives the best prognosis for a dog with osteosarcoma?

a) Amputation only
b) Amputation/Limb spare and chemo
c) Chemo only
d) Radiotherapy
e) NSAIDs and Bisphosphates

Back 25

B. There is no difference between amputating and using a limb spare.

Front 26

Which of the following is FALSE regarding physiotherapy?

a) Anyone can be a physiotherapist as long as it has been recommended by a qualified vet
b) Analgesia is more important than stopping it from weight bearing
c) It promotes proprioceptive learning
d) It includes acupuncture, osteopathy and chiropractice

Back 26

D. IT DOES NOT include Acupuncture

Front 27

Which of the following physio tequniques is best for acute inflammation?

a) Thermotherapy
b) Cryotherapy
c) Electrotherapy
d) Ultrasound
e) Hydrotherapy

Back 27

B. For 20 minutes, to cause vasoconstriction and analgesia

Front 28

What is the most common cause of lameness in equine forelimbs?

a) Fetlock injury
b) Pastern injury
c) Tendon injury
d) Foot injuries
e) Other

Back 28

D. 80% forelimb lameness is due to foot troubles - especially abscesses.

Front 29

Which of the following conditions are most commonly seen in horse feet?

a) Hoof-Wall Avulsions
b) Septic Pedal Osteitis
c) Keratoma
d) Canker
e) Nail Bind

Back 29

D. Thrush, but deeper and infecting bone, entire frog and horn.

Front 30

"Gravel" is a term given to which condition in lame horses?

a) Fractures that are in multiple pieces
b) Fractures in the MC or MT joint
c) Hoof abscess that breaks out of coronary band
d) Extensive White Line Disease
e) Keratoma that breaks out of coronary band

Back 30

C.

Front 31

Which of the following findings on radiography may not be a pathology, but a congenital abnormality in horses?

a) Dystrophic Calcification
b) Thin cortices
c) Big epiphyseal gaps
d) Lack of sesamoid bones
e) Bipartile Navicular Bones

Back 31

E. They may look like fractures but are in fact normal in some horses

Front 32

Navicular Syndrome is responsible for what percent of chronic, equine forelimb lameness?

a) 10%
b) 33%
c) 50%
d) 80%
e) 99%

Back 32

B. 1/3

Front 33

Which of the following would NOT be expected to be seen in a horse with navicular syndrome?

a) +ve PDNB
b) Bilateral disease
c) Toe first gait
d) +ve Hoof Tester
e) Insidious Onset

Back 33

D. Hoof testers are usually not responded to

Front 34

In horses, which bone should be taken 'wing' views of radiographically to look for fractures?

a) Distal phalanx (coffin bone)
b) Middle phalanx
c) Proximal phalanx
d) Navicular bone
e) MCP or MTP

Back 34

A.

Front 35

Which of the following pedal bone fracture types is on the articulating surface?

a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) Type IV
e) Type V

Back 35

B. II (1 is non articular, 3 is in a sagittal plane, 4 is extensor and 5 is comminuted)

Front 36

Where in a horse is it normal (to an extent) to see osteitis due to repetitive concussion?

a) Articular surface of distal phalanx
b) Mid sagittal plane of distal phalanx
c) Distal border of distal phalanx
d) Distal end of middle phalanx
e) Mid sagittal plane of middle phalanx

Back 36

B. This is where the collateral ligaments attach, therefore providing some degree of osteitis (also the proximal middle phalanx)

Front 37

Which of the following steps is VITAL when investigating lameness in horses with radiography?

a) Removing the shoe
b) Taking X-Rays from ALL angles
c) Taking X-Rays of BOTH limbs
d) Use Packing to erase frog lines
e) Use nerve blocks

Back 37

C. Skeletons vary between individuals therefore it is hard to tell if something is normal or not - compare it to the other leg and see if it is present there!

Front 38

What angle should there be between the hoof capsule and pedal bone in a healthy horse?

a) <5%
b) 5-10%
c) 10-15%
d) 20-25%
e) >25%

Back 38

C. Any more than this is a VERY BAD prognostic indicator

Front 39

Which of the following species has the slowest bone metabolism?

a) Cat
b) Dog
c) Rabbit
d) Horse
e) Cow

Back 39

D.

Front 40

Which of the following is NOT an indication for an MRI?

a) Navicular Syndrome
b) Navicular Bone fracture
c) DDFT lesion
d) Cannon fracture

Back 40

D.

Front 41

Which of the following nerve blocks would be definitive for diagnosing lameness in the fetlock joint?

a) Palmar Digital Nerve Block
b) Abaxial Sesamoid Nerve Block
c) Low 4-Point Nerve Block
d) High 4-Point Nerve Block
e) DIP Joint Nerve Block

Back 41

C.

Front 42

Which of the following nerve blocks would be definitive for diagnosing lameness in the distal sesamoidean ligaments?

a) Palmar Digital Nerve Block
b) Abaxial Sesamoid Nerve Block
c) Low 4-Point Nerve Block
d) High 4-Point Nerve Block
e) DIP Joint Nerve Block

Back 42

B.

Front 43

Which of the following nerve blocks would be definitive for diagnosing a problem with the sole?

a) Palmar Digital Nerve Block
b) Abaxial Sesamoid Nerve Block
c) Low 4-Point Nerve Block
d) High 4-Point Nerve Block
e) DIP Joint Nerve Block

Back 43

A.

Front 44

Which of the following conditions has the biggest heritability, making it very genetic?

a) Elbow dysplasia
b) Hip dysplasia
c) Laminitis

d) Navicular Syndrome
e) DJD

Back 44

A. 50-70% hertitability (ED is 20-30%)

Front 45

Which of the following conditions begins by lack of cartilage to bone development?

a) OA
b) DJD
c) OCD

d) Laminitis
e) Keratoma

Back 45

C. Causing an articular fracture

Front 46

Which of the following conditions begins by an increase in slack ligaments?

a) OA
b) Laminitis
c) White Line Disease

d) DJD
e) Hip Dysplasia

Back 46

E. Causing subluxation, cartilage destruction and secondary OA

Front 47

At what age do dogs commonly get secondary osteoarthritis with dysplasia?

a) 0-6 months
b) 6-12 months
c) > 16 months

d) > 6 years
e) > 16 years

Back 47

C.

Front 48

The Angle of Reduction (AOR) and Angle of Subluxation (AOS) can be used to quantify the amount of subluxation in hip dysplasia. Which of the follow gives the worst prognosis?

a) AOR > AOS
b) AOS > AOR
c) AOS = AOR

d) AOS and AOR are extremely far apart
e) It cannot be used to quantify severity

Back 48

C.
AOR = Angle to put back a subluxated hip (ie slack of ligaments)
AOS = Bring back into middle and subluxate again. If they are close, it is bad!!!

Front 49

The severity of which of the following diseases can be quantified with an Ortolani Test?

a) Elbow Dysplasia
b) Hip Dysplasia
c) OA

d) DJD
e) Laminitis

Back 49

B.

Front 50

Which of the following candidates with hip dysplasia is best treated with a surgical hip replacement?

a) A 6 month old rottweiler
b) A 6 year old jack russell terrier
c) A 6 month old Labrador

d) A 6 year old DSH cat
e) A 16 month old Labrador

Back 50

E. They should be older than 16 months and over 15-20kilos.

Front 51

In a patient with hip dysplasia, which of the following will determine your next steps most?

a) It's age
b) It's use
c) The degree of OA

d) The breed
e) The degree of subluxation

Back 51

B. As well as the levels of pain and exercise intolerance. The OA should not determine your choice.

Front 52

Which species suffers from OCD lesions almost exclusively in their hips?

a) Dog
b) Cat
c) Horse

d) Pig
e) Chicken

Back 52

D.

Front 53

Which species suffers from OCD lesions almost exclusively in their stifles?

a) Dog
b) Cow
c) Pig

d) Chicken
e) Horse

Back 53

D.