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55 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. In relations to mental preparedness to employ force, when personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or may have concerns about inflicting injury or death, this fear can cause? A. Selfishness B. Higher awareness C. Insecurity and isolation D. Tentativeness and hesitation |
D. Tentativeness and hesitation |
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2. What level of force does the US Supreme Court hold as responsible under the 4th Amendment as it pertains to law enforcement and security personnel in the context of making an arrest or other seizure of a person? Law enforcement and security personnel A. Have to apply the minimum force needed to apprehend the suspect B. Have to apply the least intrusive force to apprehend the suspect C. Must only use deadly force when the suspect resist apprehension D. Do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the suspect |
D. Do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the suspect |
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3. In which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force? A. Protect inherently dangerous property B. Protect assets vital to national security C. Keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle D. Protect other from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm |
C. Keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle |
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4. What are the standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces? A. Permits defenders to open fire upon all identified enemy targets B. Permits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, national defense, or unit defense C. Prohibits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, national defense, or unit defense D. Requires defenders to get authorization before firing upon identified targets |
B. Permits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, national defense, or unit defense |
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5. What are two distinct categories of rules of engagement? A. See first and act first B. First in and fit to fight C. Defense of others and operationally fortified D. Self-defense and mission accomplishment |
D. Self-defense and mission accomplishment |
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6. What should not be confused with rules of engagement during peacetime operations within a US territory? A. Law of armed conflict B. Rules for use of force C. Operational orders D. Operations plans |
B. Rules for use of force |
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7. Conscious verbal communication occurs when A. Words are chosen carefully during a conversation B. Words occur naturally during a conversation C. The communicator reads is directly from a form D. The communicator is in a hurry |
A. Words are chosen carefully during a conversation |
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8. How do you place a subject on foot into the final challenge position? A. Command, subject to "HALT," bring your M4 carbine to port arms or your M9 pistol to ready pistol and contact BDOC for further direction to disposition of the individual B. Command subject to slowly place identification on the ground then turn around and walk approximately 6 paces away from you C. Command, "RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, AND SPREAD YOUR FEET, AND POINT YOUR TOES OUTWARD" D. Command, "RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, DROP TO YOUR KNEES, AND CROSS YOUR FEET" |
C. Command, "RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, AND SPREAD YOUR FEET, AND POINT YOUR TOES OUTWARD" |
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9. Prior to applying handcuffs, you gain positive control of a subject by grasping the A. Back of the neck B. Wrist of the farthest hand C. Ring or middle finger D. Wrist of the nearest hand |
C. Ring or middle finger |
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10. When conducting a search of an individual, for quickness, your search should be A. Complete and simple B. Systematic and simple C. Complete and thorough D. Systematic and thorough |
D. Systematic and thorough |
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11. What type of search is primarily used on suspects who do not appear dangerous, violent, or so drunk they cannot stand on their own power? A. Wall B. Prone C. Kneeling D. Standing |
D. Standing |
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12. When compared to deadly force, non-lethal force is subject to what type of standard? A. Same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force B. Lower standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force C. Higher standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force D. Different standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force |
A. Same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force |
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13. What is the level of force necessary to compel a subjects compliance and is neither likely nor intended to cause death? A. Minimum use of force B. Maximum C. Transitional D. Intermediate |
D. Intermediate use of force |
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14. What combative technique is used to protect your head from strikes while in the ready stance? A. T-position B. Shrimping C. Comb blocks D. Standup to base |
C. Comb blocks |
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15. How do you attain weapon retention during a rear mount? A. By grabbing your weapon with your Weapon side hand B. By grabbing your weapon with your support side hand C. By rolling onto support side, keeping holstered weapon away from suspect D. By rolling onto your weapon side, keeping holstered weapon pinned against the ground |
D. By rolling onto your weapon side, keeping holstered weapon pinned against the ground |
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16. To ensure the safety of the patrol officer and for legal precautions, what should you do before placing suspect in an SF vehicle for transporting? A. Advise the suspect of rights B. Handcuff the suspects hands in the front C. Search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband D. Have a second SF member ride in the back with the suspect |
C. Search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband |
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17. What are the minimum requirements any time you are transporting a member of the opposite sex? A. Have an additional patrol officer as passenger B. Have a family member or friend ride in the front seat C. Notify BDOC of ending mileage D. Have a second patrol officer follow you to BDOC |
A. Have an additional patrol officer as passenger |
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18. To whom do you release civilians who commit a minor offense in areas with concurrent jurisdiction? A. US Marshal B. Military sponsor C. Local law enforcement D. AFOSI |
B. Military sponsor |
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19. What type of mandatory training is needed if your are armed with an expandable baton? A. Annual refresher B. Quarterly refresher C. Initial and annual refresher D. Initial and semiannual refresher |
C. Initial and annual refresher |
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20. How long should a direct pepper spray burst st the subjects facial area last? A. 1 second B. 3 seconds C. 5 seconds D. 7 seconds |
A. 1 second |
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21. How many barbed projectiles (probes) does the electronic control device (ECD) neuromuscular incapacitation (NMI) system use when fired? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
B. 2 |
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22. How do you read a grid map in order to find a grid coordinate? A. Top to bottom, left to right B. Right to left, top to bottom C. Left to right, bottom to top D. Bottom to top, left to right |
C. Left to right, bottom to top |
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23. Which agency assumes lead responsibilities for terrorist and high-risk incidents within US territories? A. AFOSI B. FBI C. Department of Justice D. Department of State |
C. Department of Justice |
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24. What must be established at each incident site? A. Cordon and ECP B. Secondary ECP C. Cordon and operational rally point D. Evacuation Point |
A. Cordon and ECP |
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25. How should you mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas? A. Flat markers B. Lights and Cones C. Elevated markers D. Posted SF personnel |
C. Elevated markers |
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26. What type of search consists of searching all areas of a vehicle without disassembling any part of the vehicle? A. Simple B. Partial C. Complete D. Plainview |
A. Simple |
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27. What type of search consists of a much more detailed search and may often require partial or total disassembly of the vehicle? A. Simple B. Partial C. Complete D. Plainview |
C. Complete |
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28. What must the SF on-scene commander evaluate before making the decision on how to search the area? A. How to employ different types of of searching techniques B. Items to be searched, local law enforcement availability, and area C. Situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searchers available D. Number of patrols available, weather, and if the unit commander concurs |
C. Situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searchers available |
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29. Which of the following is not a reason to make an entry without search authority? A. To secure an unlocked door B. To prevent injury to persons C. To render aid to someone in danger D. To prevent serious damage to property |
A. To secure an unlocked door |
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30. When processing a crime scene, when would you normally cover the body of a deceased person? A. Before it has been fully processed for evidence B. After it has been fully processed for evidence C. After the coroner pronounces them dead D. After the body has been photographed |
B. After it has been fully processed for evidence |
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31. What are the two types of sketches normally made of the crime scene? A. Rough and refined B. Partial and refined C. Rough and finished D. Partial and complete |
C. Rough and finished |
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32. What document establishes the rules of evidence for the military? A. Federal rules of evidence B. Manual for courts martial C. Federal statutes of evidence D. UCMJ |
B. Manual for courts martial |
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33. From whom must you obtain approval before disposing of crime scene evidence? A. Staff Judge Advocate B. Defence force commander C. FBI D. AFOSI |
A. Staff Judge Advocate |
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34. Which UCMJ article covers wrongful use and possession of a controlled substance? A. 92 B. 108 C. 112a D. 123a |
C. 112a |
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35. When dealing with controlled substances, who wrongfulneds defined? An action done A. To show inability to take full responsibility for actions B. Without legal justification or authorization C. With full medical justification and authorization D. With legal authorization and personnel justification |
B. Without legal justification or authorization |
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36. What agency has primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving infliction of serious bodily harm? A. Family advocacy officer B. FBI C. BDOC D. AFOSI |
D. AFOSI |
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37. What form will be completed in all instances where an apprehension is made? A. 1109 B. 1297 C. 1920 D. 3545 |
D. 3545 |
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38. What is conducted during a domestic dispute/ violence call to assess the immediate danger to family members and need for medical assistance or protective custody? A. Rights advisement B. Complete search C. Interrogation D. Interview |
D. Interview |
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39. Which of the following is not one of the three types of child abuse? A. Neglect B. Sexual abuse C. Mental abuse D. Physical abuse |
C. Mental abuse |
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40. Child pornography and child prostitution are example of what type of child abuse? A. Neglect B. Sexual C. Mental D. Physical |
B. Sexual |
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41. What type of child abuse is exemplified by not providing nourishment, deprivation of necessities, and not providing appropriate shelter or clothing? A. Neglect B. Sexual C. Mental D. Physical |
A. Neglect |
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42. What characteristics you can show at your initial contact with a sexual assault/rape victim can make a difference in the emotional state of the victim? A. Your tact and poise B. Your ability to cope C. Your physical appearance D. Your tone of voice and manners |
A. Your tact and poise |
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43. What is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another, whether successful or not, provided the target is aware of the danger? A. Aggravated assault B. Simple assault C. Assault D. Battery |
C. Assault |
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44. What type of assault is punishable in all states as a felony and is committed when a defendant tends to do more then merely frighten the victim? A. Aggravated assault B. Simple assault C. Assault D. Battery |
A. Aggravated assault |
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45. What are the four phases of the judicial process in which you must brief all victims and witnesses on in the victim\witness assistance program? A. Notification, response, confinement, and release B. Response, investigation, prosecution, confinement C. Report, investigation, administrative action, confinement D. Initial contact, administrative, prosecution, and confinement |
B. Response, investigation, prosecution, confinement |
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46. What type of crowd is identified as individuals or small groups with nothing in common to bind them together? A. Casual B. Sighting C. Agitated D. Mob-like |
A. Casual |
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47. The use of the riot baton is based on whose appraisal of the situation and his or her choice of force option? A. Fire chief B. Flight chief C. Commander D. AFOSI |
C. Commander |
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48. Which riot control formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups? A. Line B. Wedge C. Circular D. Diamond |
B. Wedge |
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49. Which force protection measure is taken to render a threat or hazard incapable of interfering with AF operations? A. Deter B. Detect C. Negate D. Preempt |
C. Negate |
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50. Which control authority is exercised through the subordinate joint force commanders or functional component commanders? A. Military Control (MILCON) B. Tactical Control (TACON) C. Operational Control (OPCON) D. Administrative Control (ADCON) |
C. Operational Control (OPCON) |
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51. Which type of lighting is a low illumination light used in nuclear restricted areas? A. Area lighting B. Boundary lighting C. Special purpose lighting D. Very near infrared (VNIR) |
D. Very near infrared (VNIR) |
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52. How many feet apart would you display restricted area signs along restricted area boundaries? A. 50 feet B. 75 feet C. 100 feet D. 125 feet |
C. 100 feet |
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53. What type of force is required at all installations supporting protection level 1, 2, or 3 resources? A. Security patrols B. Fire teams C. Alarm fire team D. Security response team |
D. Security response team |
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54. The letter "E" next to an unblocked number on a restricted area badge identify that an individual is authorized to A. Educate personnel in those restricted areas B. Escort personnel into those restricted areas C. Exclude personnel into those restricted areas D. Employee personnel into those restricted areas |
B. Escort personnel into those restricted areas |
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55. What type of sentries controls the entry into aircraft when the aircraft is carrying specific protection level assets? A. Close-in-sentry B. Flight line sentry C. Installation controller D. Close-boundary sentry |
A. Close-in-sentry |
