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90 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What structural areas allow maintenance personnel to inspect or service aircraft components? |
doors |
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Which major aircraft structural area provides support for the engines? |
nacelles |
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Which is not a major aircraft structural area? |
wing carry-through |
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What components guard against accidental firing of ejection seats? |
safety pins |
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How do independent positioning determine subsystems function? |
independent of ground equipment |
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Which is not an offensive avionics system? |
BIT system |
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Which is not part of an engine indicating system? |
water temperature |
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What is normally considered a minimum safe distance from the intake of an operating jet engine? |
25 ft to the front and sides |
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When approaching overheated aircraft wheels, always approach the wheel |
from the front of or behind the wheel |
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Initially what happens when RF energy is absorbed in the tissue of your body? |
heat is produced |
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What is the minimum safe distance from an UHF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power? |
1 ft |
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The minimum safe distance from a HF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power is |
5 ft |
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Which condition is not caused by overexposure to noise? |
excessive energy |
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The greatest noise levels around an operating jet aircraft engine is to the rear of the engine through an angle of |
45 degrees on either side |
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Which physical symptom is least likely to indicate a person is suffering from overexposure to noise? |
unconsciousness |
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Which is a condition that results from frequent exposure to small overdoses of noise? |
permanent hearing loss |
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Which is not an Air Force inspection concept? |
preflight |
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Which units fall under the programmed depot maintenance inspection concept? |
all units regardless of MAJCOM |
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Which inspection is designed to detect defeats that might have developed during ground operation of the aircraft? |
end-of-runway |
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When is the thruflight inspection performed? |
prior to takeoffs at intermediate stops |
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Which inspection is more extensive than the hourly postflight or basic postflight inspections and covers certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspection? |
periodic |
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When the HSC inspection becomes due during a long-range mission, it is completed at the base |
to which the aircraft belongs |
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Which inspection includes a review of the forms for current status, a visual inspection of equipment for defects, and adequate servicing? |
operator inspection |
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Malfunctions documented on an AFTO form 244 are the responsibility of |
aerospace ground equipment mechanics |
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Part V of the AFTO form 244 is used to document |
maintenance/delayed discrepancies |
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The AFTO Form 781-series would not be used to document aircraft |
component repair
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Except for battle damage, each discrepancy discovered is documented on AFTO Form 781
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A
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At what point do you erase symbols you entered on the AFTO form 781 A?
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never
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Who ensures that the job control number (when assigned) is entered on the AFTO Form 781 A?
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technician
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Which information is required in the corrective action block of the AFTO Form 781?
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description of the corrective action
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Who is responsible for the validity and legibility of all COMSEC required entries?
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comm/nav technician
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Which AFTO form is used to document maintenance status and servicing information?
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781H
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Which AFTO form is used to document aerospace vehicle time and engine data including operating time?
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781J
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Which AFTO form allows you to record essential inspection and delayed maintenance data?
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781K
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Block C on the AFTO Form 781K is used to document
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inspection items that require inspection/testing at a specified time/period
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To "flag" a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury if ignored, use
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AF Form 1492
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What portion of the tag is used to provide a "cross-check" with the aircraft forms and is inserted through the aircraft forms binder?
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bottom portion
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What helps to dissipate and lessen the effects of electrostatic discharges?
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humid air
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An example of an ESDS device is a
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PROM
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What type of failure associated with ESD is the most difficult to detect?
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latent or delayed
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Which is not a flight line precaution used to protect ESDS components?
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using protective tote boxes
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When working on ESDS devices in the shop area, you must use
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a grounded workbench
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What type of ground do you need to provide for soldering irons in an ESD protected area?
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hard
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Which action could pose a safety hazard to personnel in an ESD protected area? |
use of ionizers |
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Which type of cable carries RF power from one point to another with a known rate or loss?
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coaxial
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Which is not a type of connector coupling?
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insertion
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All of the following are RF connector precautions except
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ensure a good grip when using pliers
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Twisting an optic fiber during installation or maintenance results in
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reduced optical power transmission
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What is not an advantage of fiber optic cables over copper wire?
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cost
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Optoelectric transducer detectors perform what function in a fiber optic transmission?
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converts optical energy to electrical energy
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Utilizing exact dimensions for stripping wire ensures
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proper connection
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Flux is designed to
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prevent oxygen from combining with metal
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Proper care of an electric soldering iron involves
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keeping iron in a proper holder when you are not using it
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Which is not a type of solderless connector?
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connector splice
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What type of solderless connector permits easy and effecient connections to electrical equipment?
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terminal lug
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One purpose of crimper positioners is to
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put pin contacts in the proper position
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The colored end of an insertion and extraction tool is used for contact
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insertion into a rear-release connector plug
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One way to pressure and moisture sealing the back of a connector is to use
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silicone tape
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The MIL-STD that governs heat tool operations in a potentially explosive environment is
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810
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The heat and air pressure required for proper installation of heat shrink products is controlled by the
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tool operator
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As a flight line technician, you can repair up to
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25% of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable
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Before performing any type of wire repair, you must consult the procedures in TO
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1-1A-14
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What precaution must you adhere to prior heat shrink to a wire repair job?
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warnings concerning use of heat tools on aircraft
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What is the purpose of prewaxing cotton or linen tape when used for wire bundling?
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promotes moisture and fungus resistance
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Which of the following is not considered a general precaution when lacing or tying wire groups or bundles?
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tie all wire groups or bundles 12 inches or less apart
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The circuit used in an AM transmitter to bring the oscillator frequency up to the designed frequency required for carrier wave operation is
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a frequency multiplier
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To achieve AM, what device is used to ensure the output signal contains frequencies not present in the input signal?
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non-linear amp
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The frequencies created by the heterodyning process in an AM transmitter modulator are the
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sum and difference
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Which is not a basic characteristic that can vary in a modulating wave or signal?
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rate
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In an FM signal, the amount of frequency modulation is controlled by the modulating signal's
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amplitude
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In an FM transmitter, the frequency of the oscillator is controlled by the
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reactance modulator
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In an FM transmitter, which circuit detects the output frequency changes and produces an automatic frequency control correction voltage?
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discriminator
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The low-pass filter in the automatic frequency control circuitry of a FM transmitter prevents
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correction voltage changes caused by the modulation signals
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Which is not an advantage of single sideband over double sideband?
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frequency stability
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In a single sideband transmitter, frequency stability is controlled by
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carefully controlled oscillators
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In single sideband transmitter, the balanced modulator's output consists of
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the upper and lower sidebands
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The single sideband transmitter circuit that increases the power output without introducing distortion is the
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linear power amp
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The ability of a radio receiver to select a particular station frequency from all other station frequencies that appear at the receiver antenna is called
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selection
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In a typical AM superheterodyne receiver, the process used to tune two or more circuits with a single control is called
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ganged tuning
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In a typical AM superheterodyne receiver, the heterodyning process produces four frequencies; they are the two basic input frequencies, their sum, and their difference. The difference frequency is known as the
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intermediate frequency
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The purpose of the limiter circuit in an FM receiver is to
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remove amplitude variations from the intermediate frequency signal
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FM modulation signals provide much more realistic sound reproduction than AM signals because
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of an increase in the number of sidebands
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The two advantages of using a single-sideband receiver over an AM receiver are the ability to place
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more signals in a small portion of the frequency spectrum and a narrower receiver bandpass
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The basic difference between the single-sideband reeiver and a conventional superheterodyne receiver is that the single-sideband receiver uses a |
special detector and carrier reinsertion oscillator
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A major drawback in using a single-sideband receiver over an amplitude modulated receiver is the
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need for critical frequency stability
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A receiving radio antenna receives radio frequency signals by
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electromagnetic fields impressing a voltage across the antenna this causing current to flow
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The ratio of the maximum radiation intensity of a given directional radio antenna to the radiation intensity of a nondirectional radio antenna using the same power input is known as antenna
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gain
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The radio frequency line that had uniform capacitance between the conductors throughout the length of the line is the
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shielded pair
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When the impedance of a radio frequency transmission line and load do not match, the reflected wave and the applied wave are on the line at the same time and are creating a
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standing wave
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What type of radio frequency transmission line losses results from the skin effect? |
copper |
