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214 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
are viruses visible under standard light microscopes?
genearlly no, but pox virus can just be resolved
resolving power of TEM
.25nm
resolving power of SEM
10nm
how is the high resolutoin of EM made possible
a straem of electrons which have packages of energy associated with very short wavelengths
TEM- viruses can be viewed through
negative staining and thin sectioning
negative staining
staining the virus preparation with a non penetrating stain- the stain will stain the background and not the virus.
most frequently used negative stain
phosphotungstic acid
simplest and most rapid method of detecting and recognizing virus particles
negative staining
in order for negative staining to be successful:
the amount of virus in a specimen must be high
negative stain EM permits the designation of detected virus particles into its respective ____ _____ based on size, shape, structure
family classification
Immunoelectron microscopy
rapid serological diagnostic test using EM
describe the IEM method
virus preparation is mixed with virus specific antibodies (such as virus specific monoclonal Ab). These MAb can be labeled with or attached to small iron or gold particles. The ab causes the viruses to clump together, making it easier to visualize the virus particles in the midst of opaque round gold particles. the iron or gold labeled ab will appear as dark dots and are easy to discern
thin sectioning method
used to prepare fixed and embedded tissues or cells for TEM
advantages of thin sectioning method
permits visualization of the site of virus replication and maturation in host cells
most commonly used thin sectioning fixatives
glutaraldehyde, cacodylate, osmium tetroxide
ultramicrotome
used to section epoxy resin blocks, into sections as thin as .030um
what stains are used with thin sectioning method
lead citrate and uranyl acetate (electron opaque materials)
disadvantages of thin sectioning method
takes time, requires personell with specialized skills
for SEM, what needs to be done to the specimen?
coated with metal, usually gold
in contrast to TEM, SEM has the capacity of
3D imagine
disadvantage of SEM
only the surface can be observed, resolution limited to about 10 nm
influenza subtypes
16 HA subtypes, 9 NA subtypes
avian influenza natural hosts
wild birds- duck, gull, shorebirds. Virus rarely causes disease
all type A influenza viruses are thought to originate from
wild birds
reassortment
a genetic recombination even observed with influenza virus infection
swine flu incubation period
short
HA protein is cleaved into Ha1 and HA2 subunits by host
proteases
cleavage of HA is necessary for virus to be
infectious (necessary to release fusion domain)
HA has a receptor binding site for the _____ receptor
sialic acid
the fusion domain becomes active when
pH is lowered in endosome (conformation changes)
LPAI
low pathogenic avian influenza
emergence of HPAI
LPAI H5/H7 virus transmitted to poultry -> LPAI virus circulates in poultry with mild dz -> LPAI mutates to HPAI with severe disease
HPAI causes_____ and ____ signs
CNS and respiratory
HPAI can cause ____ and ____- on the heart and proventriculius
petichiation and echymosis
substitution mutation
replacing one base with another
where do viruses grow
in living cells only
three host systems commonly used to grow viruses
animals, eggs, cell cultures
explant cultures
organ cultures, maintaining fairly normal histological organization to study viral pathogenicity
cell cultures
propagation of rapidly growing ells without regard to preserving cellular organization. Forms a monolayer of cells.
culture type best suited for and most widely used for propagating viruses
cell culture
primary cell culture
first generation cell cultures obtained from "live" animal organs. Tissue is incubated in trypsin that breaks up tissue into suspension of single cell
newly isolated viruses from infected animals will grow better in ___ than in ____ cultures
primary, than in cell line cultures
cell line
transformed/cancer cells that can be propagated and sub cultured indefinitely
examples of cell lines
HeLa, Vero, crandall feline kidney and MDBK
MDBK
madin darby bovine kidney
most popular way to isolate and grow viruses in laboratory
monolayer cell line cultures set in flasks and plates
sub culturing
in order to keep propagating the cell cultures, the cell monolayer must be broken into individual cells and transferred to new tissue culture flask
trypsin-versene
used to break up the cell monolayer into individual cells
material most commonly used to grow tissue culture cells
plastic, treated with a chemical that increases the adhesion of the cells to the plastic
MEM
minimal essential media- salts, certain AA, vitamins, purines, pyrimidines, hormones, etc at an optimum osmotic pressure. MUST BE BUFFERED.
a common buffer added to MEM
sodium bicarb
tissue culture cells with bicarb buffer must be
incubated in a CO2 atmostphere.
HEPES
an organic buffer, effective at capturing excess hydrogen ions produced by the growing tissue culture cells
FBS
fetal bovine serum,
____ must be added to MEM
serum
how can tissue culture cells be preserved?
freezing at -70c of lower; indefinitely in liquid nitrogen. Need protective additive (glycerin or DMSO), proper cooling rate and rapid thawing
CPE
cytopathic effect
what is CPE
cell death and other changes caused by the replication of viruses in cell culture
CPE of parainfluenza
syncytial formation
cell changes that can be observed with light microscope include
cell destruction, inclusion bodies, syncytia,
hemagglutinins
glycoproteins that attach to rBCs
blind passages are usually required before ___ is observed
CPE
non cytopathic virus
a virus that grows without ever causing any observable CPE (strains of BVDV, etc)
two ways of quantifying virus
direct particle count, viral infectivity assay
viral infectivity assay
dilutions of the stock virus are inoculated into a test system
quantitative assay
einfectivity is quantified by counting the number of infective centers, such as plaques, pocks or foci
plaque assay
widely used in cell cultures to quantify viruses
plaque
a localized region of cell lysis resulting from the cell to cell spread of virus replicating in a monolayer
do all viruses produce plaques?
no
PFU
plaque forming unit
PFU
a term that describes the infectivity of the original viral suspension (one PFU = one infectious virus particle)
Quantal assay
only registers the presence or absence of infection. "all or none" assay
ID50
median infective dose
LD50
lethal dose
tissue culture infective dose
TCID50
ELD50
embryo lethal dose
reed and muench method
used to calculate 50% end point in quantal assay
Poisson distribution
if 100 TC wells are infected with prep that contains 1 PFU per ml, only 67% of the wells will become infected
Herpesvirus growing in MDBK cells- do you need to stain to see plaques?
no
pox virus lesions
intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies
bolinger's bodies
pox virus inclusions
what is unique about pox virus inclusions?
it is a DNA virus that causes inclusion in the cytoplasm
adenovirus inclusion in hepatocytes
basophilic IN in
BRD is initiated via a combo of
stress factors, virus infection, secondary bacterial infection (pasteurella hemolytica)
BRD clinical signs
unexpected death, dyspnea, cough, nasal discharge, inappetance, anorexia, fever, pneumonia
virses that have been associated with BRD
BHV1, IBRV, PI3, BRSV, BVD, etc
characteristics of BVD
60 nm, RNA, enveloped, +++ growth in TC, +/- CPE
characteristics of PI3
150nm, RNa, enveloped, ++++ growth in TC, HAd, synctia/IB
characteristics of BRSV - bov resp syncytial virus
150nm, RNa, enveloped, + growth in TC, syncytia
BHV-1
150 nm, DNA, enveloped, ++++ growth in TC, +/- IB
BAV- bovine adeno virus
100 nm, DNA, +++growth in TC, +/- HaD, IB
AHV-1: acelaphine herpes virus
150 nm, DNA, enveloped, +/- growth in TC
BReoV- bovine reovirus
70 nm, RNA, IB
BRhinoV
25nm, RNA
BCov- coronavirus
150 nm, RNA, enveloped, +/- growth in TC
inoculation onto TC cells: procedure
insert swab into snap cap tube containing transport medium. Place tube on ice. Add .5 ml of virus prep to MDBK monolayer flask and swirl to distribute. Incubate for ~48 hours and then s tain
Hemadsorption test procedure
pour off the media from the infected flask. Add 1 ml to saline, rotate to disperse, and then pour off the saline. Swirl, pour out media. Repeat washing. Add 2ml RBC suspension - incubate 30 minutes. Pour out RBC, add 5 ml saline, gently swirl and pour off saline. repeat washing.
stain the monolayer: procedure
add 5 mls of fixative to flask. Incubate 3 min. Pour off fixative. Add 5 mls of Solution 1. Wait 2 minutes. Pour off solution. Add 5mls of solution II. Wait 2 minutes. Pour off solution. Rinse gently with water. Pour off water. Add 2 mls of water to flask to prevent cells from drying out
most widely used tests to view viral antigen directly in infected animals tissue and/or on virus isolated in TC cells
fluorescent antibody test and IHC/IPX
FA test
can observe virus specific Ab which are tagged to a fluorescent dye, bound to viral Ag. Requires a fluorescent microscope
how does a fluorescent microscope work
emits UV light, which is adsorbed by the fluoresnt dye
most widely used fluorescent dye
fluorescein isothyocyanate (FITC)
advantages of FA test
rapid, highly sensitive, and precise
direct FA test
the virus specific ab is directly conjugated with FITC dye. Test is carried out on a microscope slide to which the tissue section or smear has been fixed. The labeled MAb (conjugate) is added and allowed to react with the RV Ag present in the brain tissue. Slide is rinsed then examined
IFA
two step reaction using two different Ab. The first Ab is a virus specific Ab that is not labeled. (ie, rabbit anti-RV Ab). The second is an FITC labelled Ab that recognizes and binds to the first Ab (goat anti rabbit FITC labeled Ab). The virus specific unlabeled Ab is added first adn allowed to react with the viral Ag in the tissue. Excess Ab is removed by rinsing. FITC labeled anti species globulin is then added and allowed to react.
in the direct method the FITC labeled Ab binds directly to the
Ag
in the indirect method the FITC labeled Ab does not bind directly to the Ag but
recognizes another antibody
for the FA test, viral infected tissues or infected tissue culture cells have to be ____ before addition of the virusa specific Ab
fixed
what is the usual fixative for the FA test
acetone for about 10 minutes
IHC is very similar to IFA except that
1) the FITC is replaced by the enzyme peroxidase. 2) the enzyme precipitates a substrate. 3) the slide is viewed with ordinary light microscope
enzyme most commonly used to conjugate the Ab
horse radish peroxidase (HRP)
another frequently used enzyme to conjugate the Ab
alklaline phosphatase
the primary virus specific Ab (usually a MAb) used in the IHC procedure is rarely ____
conjugated
the secondary Ab Is the ____ Ab
conjugated
how does the enzyme in IPX work?
catalyzes a reaction, which converts a soluble substance in the substrate solution into an insoluble precipitate, causing the precipitate to accumulate in the immediate vicinity of the viral Ag
what can IHC be performed on
tissue sections, either fresh frozen or formalin fixed
IHC procedure
primary Ab is added and allowed to react with tissue. Excess is washed off, secondary conjugted Ab is added and allowed to react. Tissue is rinsed, substrate solution added. Then counterstained with hematoxiliin and observed.
if the tissue is positive for a virus, the precipitate will only form
within the infected cells
advantage of IHC
the location of the virus wihtin the infected tissue can be determiend precisely
VNT can only be performed if
the virus has alreasdy been isolated in TC cells
basic VNT procedure
virus is mixed with virus specific antibodies (antiserum) and then added to the cell culture and the monolayer is observed for CPE
VNT procedure
a vial of the virus harvested from the tissue culture is mixed with anti-FCV Ab and a second vial is mixed with anti FHV Ab. After mixing and incubating for 1 hour, the mixture is put on separate tissue culture cells and observed for CPE.
HI/HAD-I
hemagglutination inhibition and hemadsorption inhibition
cell cultures infected with certain viruses have the ability to ____ RBC
adsorb
the phenomenon of ____ is caused by RBC sticking to virus specific glycoproteins called ______
hemadsorption; hemagglutinins
in HA, viruses bind RBC in solution and
agglutinate them
viruses that cause HA will generally also cause
HAd
hemadsorption inhibition pros/cons
very rapid, can identify virus in about 1 hour. But, not very many viruses cause HAd
how can hemadsorption be prevented
virus specific antibodies bind to the hemagglutinins on the cell membrane before RBC are added- prevents the RBC from adsorbing or sticking to the infected cells
HI can only be performed if
the virus has alreasdy been isolated in TC cells
HI test procedure
virus prep is added to an antibody solution that is thought to be specific for that virus. (Ie, if you suspect PI3, use antiPI3 virus ab solution), is added to virus solution. Incubate 60 minutes. Then add RBC. Wait 1 hour before reading resutls-- look for button formation or veil formation
ELISA
enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
the ELISA is ____ and ____
highly sensitive and specific
ELISA use
can be used to identify and quantitate viral specific Ag that has been solubilized and attached to the bottom of the plastic well or to membranes
with an elisa, the viral antigen must be
solubilized first
ELISa can be used to capture and
quantitate viral ag in serum or other body fluids
ELISA is based on the principle that
an Ab can be coupled with an enzyme and still retain both its immunological and enzymatic activity
enzymes primariliy used for ELISA
alkaline phosphatase or horseradish peroxidase
PCR detects
the presence of viral nucleic acid in the sample
the importance of the PCR lies in its ability to
1) amplify very small amounts of viral DNA or RNA from samples. And 2) test a large number of samples through automation
in order to perform a PCR ____ that can recognized the specific viral genome have to be available
primers
qRT-PCR
real time PCR
real time PCR uses
fluorescent labeled primers, is quantitative
true or false: false positives are uncommon in PCR
FALSE
when can PCR false negatives occur
if the virus mutates so that the primer can no longer recognize the mutated genome
PCR amplifes ___ only
DNA
RT-PCR
reverse transcriptase PCR
RT-PCR procedure
the genome of rna viruses have to be transcribed into a dna molecule. The enzyme that transcribes the viral rna is the reverse transcriptase
AGID
agar gel immuno diffusion
VNT is virus type ___
specific
VNT can tell you which ___ infeted the animal
serotype
AGID can tell you that an animal has been infected but not
which serotype
does seropositive mean infection?
no, can be result of of vaccination, past infection, maternal Ab, etc
typically, serological diagnosis requires the collection of _________
paired serum samples taken 3-4 weeks apart (Acute and convalescent)
seroconversion
acute sample is seronegative, convalescent sample is seropositive
what does seroconversion indicate
the disease is due to an infection
a significant increase in titer indicates
recent or ongoing infection
____ can help rapidly establish a diagnosis with isolation is not possible
serology
what can serology do that negative virus isolation cannot?
definitively rule out infection
examples of common serological tests
VNT, ELISA, HI, HAd-I, AGID, western blot, radioimmunoassay
when should a sample be collected from a live animal, if it is to have the greatest success at viral isolation?
early during the course of infection
when should a sample be collected at necropsy?
as soon as possible after death, because autolysis inactivates many viruses
how should samples submitted for virus isolation be shipped?
cold on ice, or frozen
what should be collected to determine viremia?
blood in EDTA, citrate, or heparin
should blood samples be frozen for shipment?
no
impression smears
can be obtained from live animals or from cut surfaces at necropsy. Submit air dried for virus detection, alcohol fixation for cytology, cold acetone fixation for FA test
how do you detect virus by histopathology?
from the characteristics of the lesions, or by IPX
most important serological test
elisa
what common test Is still run by AGID?
Coggins
virus detection tests
virus isolation, FA, IPX, HA, ELISA, EM
most important test to detect presence of virus in tissues and impression smears
FA test
direct FA
fluorescent labeled Ab added that will detect and bind to viral Ag in tissue
indirect FA
specific Ab added that will bind to the viral Ag, followed by fluorescent labeled Ab that will recognize and bind to the first Ab
importance of IPX
can be used on formalin fixed tissues, allows one to study viral pathogenesis
Resolving power of TEM compared to LM and eye
EM is 1000x LM. LM has resolving power of .25um, human eye is .25mm
Immunoelectron microscopy basic procedure
virus prep mixed with monoclonal Ab. MAb labeled with small iron/gold particles. Ab causes viruss to clump together- easier to virualize
three systems for propagating viruses
animals, embryonated egg, tissue and cell cultures
why would you choose embryonated egg to isolate influenza instead of TC cells?
the embryonated eggs have the protease necessary to cut the hemaglutinin
primary TC vs cell line TC
primary is first generation obtained from animal organ, whereas cell lines are transformed cells. Primary can be transformed into cell line
what TC did we use during lab
Madin Darby Bovine kidney cell line
MEM?
minimal essential medium. Basis for all cell culture media
FBS?
fetal bovine serum- added to MEM at a level of 5-10% by volume
how do you passage a virus?
the primary cell culture monolayer is only viable for 10-14 days. Needs to be subcultured.
what is a blind passage?
"Transfer of some material from an inoculated animal or cell culture that does not exhibit evidence of infection, to a fresh animal or cell culture;; passage of an infectious agent through an experimental animal or medium without there being any evidence, clinical or cultural, that the agent is present.
Quantitative vs quantal viral assays
quantal only registers the presence of absence of infection, cannot count the number of infectious viral particles
what is key to a quantitative assay?
dilution of the sample
In negative staining, where does the stain stay?
on the virus, in between the capsomeres (in valleys/spaces rather than on the sample itself)
positive staining
the protein picks up the stain, and the sample itself is stained.
AGID stands for
agarose gel immuno diffusion
• Advantages of negative staining in diagnosis of viral diseases and limitations of this procedure regarding viral diagnosis
Negative staining provides the simplest and most rapid method of detecting and recognizing virus particles. Negative staining requires high quantities (106-107 virus particles) of virus within the specimen. Negative staining allows the virus particle to be sorted into its family classification by size, shape, and structure.
• Understand negative staining and know the stain used to perform this procedure
Negative staining is the most common technique used for determining the size and shape of viruses. Method involves mixing of virus preparation with an electron-dense material such as phosphotungstate. This mixture is sprayed onto grids to be observed under EM. The viruses are viewed as light objects against a dark background. Surface structures of viruses can be demonstrated by this technique because the negative stains can penetrate gaps in the viral structure
does negative staining involve TEM or SEM?
TEM
• What is immuno-electron microscopy (IEM) and why use it in viral diagnosis?
Immuno-electron microscopy is rapid serological diagnostic testing using EM. The virus preparation is mixed with virus specific antibodies such as viral specific monoclonal antibodies. These monoclonal antibodies are attached to small iron or gold particles. The antibody causes the viruses to clump together instead of being normally scattered all over the carbon film allowing the visualization of the virus particles easier in the midst of opaque round gold particles. The iron or gold labeled antibody will appear as dark dots and are easy to discern.
• Know the 3 systems used for propagating viruses – why would you choose embryonated eggs to isolate influenza virus instead of tissue culture cells?
The three host systems used to grow viruses are animals, chicken embryos (eggs), and cell cultures. Some viruses may be grown in all three systems, while others may be more selective and grow only in one system. Influenza virus is difficult to grow (nearly impossible) in TC cells.
• Know the difference between primary tissue culture (TC) and cell line TC
Primary cell culture is the first generation cell cultures derived from cells obtained from animal organs such as kidneys, testicles, etc. They can not be cultured indefinitely. They will grow to form a monolayer and will remain viable for 10-14 days.

Cell line tissue culture is comprised of heteroploid cells in chromosomal configuration that can be sub-cultivated indefinitely. Monolayer and suspension cultures can be prepared with these cells. Monolayer cell line cultures set in flasks and plates are the most popular way to grow viruses in laboratories.
• How do you passage viruses and what is a “blind passage”?
Passaging virus is transferring virus from one infected flask to another to increase adaptability. A blind passage is the transferring of virus through at least 3 flasks to allow the virus to adapt and to detect the presence of a virus.
• Under what condition would you perform a quantal assay instead of a quantitative PFU assay?
A quantal assay would be performed instead of a quantitative PFU assay because the virus does not form plaques.
• A virus preparation has 10^9 virus particles per milliliter when measured by EM direct virus particle count. However, a quantitative assay detects only 10^8 infectious particle per milliliter (108 PFU/ml) in the same preparation.
o What is the percentage of non-infectious virus particles in that preparation?

o Is this percentage of non-infection particles within the normal range?

o Explain the source of or basis for these non-infectious particles
10^8/10^9 = 10% infectious particles or 90% non infectious particles.

Yes, it is within normal range

The non-infectious particles were either infectious but have since been inactivated during growth or preparation, genetically defective or lack a complete genome, or have “empty” capsids
o Differentiate between seroconversion versus a significant rise in Ab titers
Serological diagnosis of virus infection typically requires the collection of paired serum samples taken 3-4 weeks apart. These are called an acute and a convalescent sample. Seroconversion is when the acute sample is seronegative and the convalescent sample is seropositive indicating that the disease is due to an infection with the virus being tested for.

A significant increase or rise in titer is a fourfold or greater rise in serum antibody titer between the two samples that indicates a recent or ongoing infection with the virus being tested for.
IEM
Immuno-electron microscopy makes use of the same antibody and monoclonal antibody that can be performed directly on infected animal’s tissue and/or on virus isolated in TC cells. Immuno-electron microscopy is available within hours, requires high viral concentration of at least 100, 000 virus particles per gram of tissue, moderate sensitivity and high specificity, and can detect virus that cannot be cultured easily.
Make sure you can ID:
1. Envelope
2. Glycoproteins (peplomers)
3. Icosahedral capsid (when present)
4. Capsid proteins (capsomeres)
5. Nucleoproteins (NP)
6. Viral genome.
Be able to ID wells with hemagglutination
Bottom have hemagglutination
What is this test called?
HAd inhibition
What test is this?
immunoperoxidase
what type of staining is this
positive
what type of microscopy is this?
immunoelectron microscopy
Calculate PFU

You must first dilute the virus preparation 10 fold and make subsequent dilutions – e.g. 1:10, 1:100 or 10-2, 10-3 , all the way to 10-8 or 1:100,000,000


Each well received 1 ml of the virus diluted preparation

Counting the plaques - ~20 plaques at 10-7 if we count the plaques in both wells
Therefore, we have 20 plaques forming units (PFU) in 2 ml of the virus preparation (1 ml/well) that was diluted 1:10,000,000 or 10-7

How many PFUs do we have in 1 ml of the original preparation?

Answer: 20 X107 PFUs in 2 ml = 10 x 107 PFUs in 1.0 ml = 108 = 100,000,000 PFUs
what is the virus titer?
is the reciprocal of the dilution that causes CPE in at least 50% of the infected wells (that is because you do not get 50% each time)
Calculate TCID50 for each sample
sample 1 contains 108 TCID50 in 100 ul of virus preparation
Sample 2 contains 105 TCID50 in 100 ul of virus preparation
Sample 3 contains 107 TCID50 in 100 ul of virus preparation
Sample 4 contains 107 TCID50 in 100 ul of virus preparation
which tends to be higher- TCID50 or PFU?
TCID50
What test is this?
fluorescent antibody
what do you use to fix a sample for FA test?
acetone
What test is this?
AGID
Most striking difference in the CPEs formed by herpes and parainfluenza?
first virus (Herpes) forms discrete holes. you also see some stranding where cells stretch down into the middle of plaques (due to cells fusing together). The second virus (parainfluenza) didn't have obvious nice-looking holes, but the CPE fused the cells to form large syncitia--the plaques were larger and more haphazard clumps (as opposed to perfect holes).