Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
110 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
|
The primary function of the pressure injector safety feature is to prevent damage to the injector and the selected catheter |
False |
|
|
|
Educating the patient about their proposed procedure will have little or no effect on the outcome of the exam |
True |
|
|
|
Subclavian steak syndrome is caused by blockage of the subclavian artery near the carotid artery resulting in back flow of blood. This is compensated for via the circle of Willis. |
False |
|
|
|
In the presence of subclavian steal syndrome blood is shunted past the brain through the circle of Willis to the vertebral and subclavian arteries to supply the active muscles in the vertebral artery. There will usually be no differences in blood pressure readings in the left and upper limbs. |
False |
|
|
|
What form of consent is essential prior to performing any exam or procedure on a patient A) oral B) written C) blanket D) informed |
D) Informed |
|
|
|
True or false An H&P must be available and include all the body systems listed prior to performing any invasive procedure |
True |
|
|
|
It is the job of -— to check that all emergency equipment is present and functioning in their procedure room A) engineer B) nurse C) Radiologist D) VI Radiographer |
D) VI Radiographer |
|
|
|
True or False When a patient is to be sedated for a procedure, the nurse along with monitoring the patient can and should act as a circulator as well |
False |
|
|
|
Normal values for BUN and Creatinine would fall in which range A) 13 ; 0.8 B) 13 ; 2.6 C) 26 ; 0.8 D) 26; 2.6 |
A) 13; 0.8 |
Bun 6-23 Creatinine .6- 1.5 mg |
|
|
A patients drug absorption rate may be affected by 1)age 2) food in stomach 3)body weight A) 1&2 B) 2&3 C) 1&3 D) 1,2 &3 |
All of the above |
|
|
|
Your patients discomfort during the injection of contrast media is most likely contributed to the contrasts A) toxicity B) Osmolality C) Viscosity D) Volume
|
Osmolality |
|
|
|
Severe allergic reaction to a contrast agent may result in shock which is characterized by? 1) rapid breathing 2) high pulse rate 3) possible loss of consciousness A) 1&2 B) 1&3 C) 2&3 D) 1,2&3 |
2&3 2) High pulse rate 3) possible loss of consciousness |
|
|
|
A patient’s vasovagal reaction is characterized by 1) Sweating 2) increased blood pressure 3) nausea A) 1&2 B) 1&3 C) 2&3 D) 1,2&3 |
B) 1&3 Sweating & nausea |
|
|
|
A patient’s vasovagal reaction is characterized by 1) Sweating 2) increased blood pressure 3) nausea A) 1&2 B) 1&3 C) 2&3 D) 1,2&3 |
B) 1&3 Sweating & nausea |
|
|
|
To enhance demonstration of the portal venous system, which of the following drugs may be injected prior to angiography A) Pitressin B) Epinephrine C) Tolazoline D) Heprin |
Tolazoline ( benzidazol) |
|
|
|
Which of the following types of embolic would specifically be associated with trauma of a long bone A) fat B) air/has C) pulmonary D) tumor |
A) fat |
|
|
|
What possible results may lidocaine mixed with contrast media exhibit? 1) May make the exam less painful 2) May decrease irritability and prevent PVC’s 3) is permissible for arterial examination of upper extremities A) 1&2 B) 1&3 C) 2&3 D) 1,2&3 |
1&2 1) May make the exam less painful 2)May decrease irritability and prevent PVC’s |
|
|
|
The tibial pulse is felt where? A) just posterior to the lateral malleolous B) just posterior to the medial malleolous C) at the top of the foot D) behind the knee |
Just posterior to the medial malleolous |
|
|
|
The dorsal pedal pulse is felt where? A) at the dorsum of the foot B) just posterior to the medial C) at the top of the foot around the 1st and 2nd metatarsals D) at the anterior portion of the elbow |
C) at the top of the foot around the 1st and 2nd metatarsals |
|
|
|
The effective half-life of heparin is about A) 30 minutes B) 90 minutes C) 2 days D) 5 days |
90 minutes |
|
|
|
The effective half-life of heparin is about A) 30 minutes B) 90 minutes C) 2 days D) 5 days |
90 minutes |
|
|
|
— is the degree of stickiness or thickness of the contrast agent? A) toxicity B) Osmolality C) viscosity D) volume |
C) Viscosity |
|
|
|
The ability of a contrast to be solvent with blood toward embolization is A) toxicity B) Osmolality C) Viscosity D) Miscibility |
D) Miscibility |
|
|
|
______ _____ enlarge an entry site and provide a smoother and safer access for multiple exchanges and difficult catheter manipulations A) Dilators B) Glide wires C) Peelaways D) Sheaths |
D) Sheaths |
|
|
|
______ _____ enlarge an entry site and provide a smoother and safer access for multiple exchanges and difficult catheter manipulations A) Dilators B) Glide wires C) Peelaways D) Sheaths |
D) Sheaths |
|
|
|
Vascular stenting is used in conjunction with angioplasty to ? A) Hold down intimal flaps B) Prevent restenosis C) hold the vessel open D) act as a sheath |
A) hold down intimal flaps |
|
|
|
______ _____ enlarge an entry site and provide a smoother and safer access for multiple exchanges and difficult catheter manipulations A) Dilators B) Glide wires C) Peelaways D) Sheaths |
D) Sheaths |
|
|
|
Vascular stenting is used in conjunction with angioplasty to ? A) Hold down intimal flaps B) Prevent restenosis C) hold the vessel open D) act as a sheath |
A) hold down intimal flaps |
|
|
|
The most common problem associated with catheterization is? A) anaphylactic reaction to the contrast media B) nephrotoxicity C) cholesterol embolization D) bleeding at the puncture site |
D) bleeding at the puncture site |
|
|
|
While the catheter is being threaded over the guidewire, it is the Radiographers responsibility to 1) keep the wire held taught ( clothes lining) 2) keep enough slack to be able to advance the wire if needed 3) Be sure the end of the guide wire remains within the sterile field A) 1&2 B) 1&3 C) 1,2,3 D) 2&3 |
All of the above |
|
|
|
Using a catheter with only a single end hole and no side holes may result in 1) A stronger stream of contrast 2) less catheter recoil 3) Transient narrowing of the vessel just beyond the catheter tip A) 1&2 B) 1,2&3 C) 2&3 D) 1&3 |
1&3 1) a stronger stream of contrast 3) Transient narrowing of the vessel just beyond the catheter tip |
|
|
|
Which of the following blood pressure measurements would contraindicate angiography A) 90/60 B) 110/80 C) 120/90 D)150/100 |
D) 150/100 |
|
|
|
Which of the following may be used to relax the walls of arteries during angiography A) Benadryl B) Nitroglycerin C) Demerol D) Pitressin |
Nitroglycerin |
|
|
|
Which of the following may be used to relax the walls of arteries during angiography A) Benadryl B) Nitroglycerin C) Demerol D) Pitressin |
Nitroglycerin |
|
|
|
Because contrast media is ______ the BUN and creatinine should be within normal range before an exam is begun? A) Viscous B) Nephrotoxic C) Electrolytic D) Dynamic |
Nephrotoxic |
|
|
|
Which of the following may be used to relax the walls of arteries during angiography A) Benadryl B) Nitroglycerin C) Demerol D) Pitressin |
Nitroglycerin |
|
|
|
Because contrast media is ______ the BUN and creatinine should be within normal range before an exam is begun? A) Viscous B) Nephrotoxic C) Electrolytic D) Dynamic |
Nephrotoxic |
|
|
|
Patients who present with a decreased red blood cell count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit level may be diagnosed with? A) anemia B) leukemia C) Erythema D) erythremia |
Anemia |
|
|
|
Which of the following may be used to relax the walls of arteries during angiography A) Benadryl B) Nitroglycerin C) Demerol D) Pitressin |
Nitroglycerin |
|
|
|
Because contrast media is ______ the BUN and creatinine should be within normal range before an exam is begun? A) Viscous B) Nephrotoxic C) Electrolytic D) Dynamic |
Nephrotoxic |
|
|
|
Patients who present with a decreased red blood cell count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit level may be diagnosed with? A) anemia B) leukemia C) Erythema D) erythremia |
Anemia |
|
|
|
Dilation of an artery is termed A) clot B) thrombus C) aneurysm D) embolus |
Aneurysm |
|
|
|
A potentially life- threatening condition where blood fills the intima of an artery is? A) coarctation of the artery B) dissection of the artery C) saccular aneurysm of the artery D) fusiform aneurysm of the artery |
Dissection of the artery |
|
|
|
Which of the following medications could be used to optimize visualization during a splenic arteriogram A) vasopressin B) Pituitrin C) dopamine D) priscoline |
Priscolin |
|
|
|
Which of the following medications would be used to reverse an overdose of morphine or sublimaze A) nifedipine B)narcan C) Pitressin D) priscolene |
Narcan |
|
|
|
Normal oral temperature is A) 35• C B) 36• C C) 37• C D) 38• C |
37• C |
|
|
|
Which of the following are symptoms of a diabetic patient who has taken insulin but has not eaten 1) clammy cool skin 2) nervousness and irritability 3) fruity smelling breath A) 1&2 B) 1&3 C) 2&3 D) 1,2 & 3 |
1 & 2 1) clammy cool skin 2) nervousness and irritability |
|
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding the cation portion of the contrast medium molecule is true 1) it is the positive portion 2) it provides the solubility 3) provides the radiopaque portion A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 & 3 only D) 1,2 & 3 |
A) 1 & 2 1) it is the positive portion 2) it provides the solubility |
|
|
|
The antecubital vein is often 1) easily found 2) the access site for short term IV solutions 3) the access site for contrast media injections A) 1 & 2 only B) 1 & 3 only C) 2 & 3 only D) 1,2 &3 |
B) 1 & 3 only 1) Easily found 3) the access site for contrast media injections |
|
|
|
Demerol ( Meperidine) is used in the angiography suite usually to help with shaking that can be caused when giving what medication? A) Activasc B) TPA C) Priscoline D) Urikinase |
D) Urikinase |
|
|
|
Amiodarone and other similar types of medications that control premature atrial or ventricular contractions, supraventricular tachycardia, atrial flutter or fibrillation are what class of medication. A) Antiarrhythmics B) Analgesics C) Antimetics D) Emergency medications |
A) Antiarrhythmics |
|
|
|
True or false Amaurosis Fugax is an occurrence of transient monocular blindness caused by temporary ischemia |
True |
|
|
|
What class of drugs do aspirin, pletal, placid, and reopro fall under? A) Anxiolytics B) Antimetics C) Anticoagulants D) Antiplatelets |
D) Antiplatelets |
|
|
|
What class of drugs do aspirin, pletal, placid, and reopro fall under? A) Anxiolytics B) Antimetics C) Anticoagulants D) Antiplatelets |
D) Antiplatelets |
|
|
|
Of the following medications, which one offers a relaxing amnesic effect on the patient A) Valium B) Ativan C) Versed D) Narcan |
C) versed |
|
|
|
What class of drugs do aspirin, pletal, placid, and reopro fall under? A) Anxiolytics B) Antimetics C) Anticoagulants D) Antiplatelets |
D) Antiplatelets |
|
|
|
Of the following medications, which one offers a relaxing amnesic effect on the patient A) Valium B) Ativan C) Versed D) Narcan |
C) versed |
|
|
|
To reverse over medication of Versed, Valium, or Ativan which is the proper counter agent A) Flumazenil ( Romazicon) B) Narcan (Naloxone) C) Atropine D) Epinephrine |
A) Flumazenil ( Romazicon) |
|
|
|
To open a clotted vessel, catheter or other device which has been clotted for a relatively short duration thrombolytic drugs may be given. Which of the following is not an example of a thrombolytic drug? A) Urikinase B) Glassorvase C) Streptokinase D) Tenecteplase |
D) Tenecteplase |
|
|
|
To open a clotted vessel, catheter or other device which has been clotted for a relatively short duration thrombolytic drugs may be given. Which of the following is not an example of a thrombolytic drug? A) Urikinase B) Glassorvase C) Streptokinase D) Tenecteplase |
D) Tenecteplase |
|
|
|
Glucagon is an effective relaxant of smooth muscle structures and is used primarily in which procedure? A) Nephrostomy tube placement B) Chest tube placement C) Percutaneous Gastrostomy Tube Placements D) Biliary tube placements |
C) percutaneous Gastrostomy tube placement |
|
|
|
The angular portion of the needle tip is the A) Bevel B) Cannula C) Gauge D) Hub |
A) Bevel |
|
|
|
During an interventional procedure your patient begins to show symptoms of dyspnea, chest pain, tachycardia, hypotension, agitation, disorientation and cyanosis. What did the patient possibly acquire? A) Anaphylaxis B) cardiac arrhythmias C) Hemothorax D) Air Embolism |
D) Air Embolism |
|
|
|
___________is a serious allergic reaction, whose signs and symptoms may be urticaria, faintness or unconsciousness, swelling, asthmatic _______via I.V. as soon as possible. A) Air Embolism, Epinephrine B) Anaphylaxis, adrenaline C) Tachycardia, Demerol D) Anaphylaxis, Epinephrine |
B) Anaphylaxis, adrenaline |
|
|
|
A Vasovagal response is characterized by what symptoms 1) fainting or blackout 2) warm and sweaty 3) Nausea and pale skin coloration |
All of them |
|
|
|
The method by which needle entry is made into an artery is known as the ________technique? A) Feldaum B) Seldinger C) Dilinger D) single wall needle |
B) seldinger |
|
|
|
Which of the following are criteria for performing a vascular interventional beside procedure? A) Body habitus exceeds the safe guidelines for your interventional labs equipment. B) Peripheral accesss for emergency medication and fluid administration is poor or nonexistent and the pt condition is not conducive to transport to the lab. C) chest tube insertion or emergency bedside dialysis is needed on an emergent basis. D) all of the above. |
All of the above |
|
|
|
The left and right hepatic ducts join to become the A) common bile duct B) Hepatic artery C) Common hepatic duct D) Portal duct |
C) common hepatic duct |
|
|
|
Which of the following does the celiac artery not supply A) Liver B) Intestines C) Stomach D) spleen and Pancreas |
B) intestines |
|
|
|
Which of the following does the celiac artery not supply A) Liver B) Intestines C) Stomach D) spleen and Pancreas |
B) intestines |
|
|
|
________ ______ is a term describing a group of symptoms ( pain, vomiting, cramping after eating, diarrhea, weight loss) caused by chronic poor blood flow? A) Intestinal angina B) Bowel obstruction C) PMS D) Colitis |
A) Intestinal Angina |
|
|
|
What supplies blood to the small intestines, cecum, ascending colon, hepatic flexure and the right half of the transverse colon? A) SAM B) SMA C) GDA D) IMA |
A) SMA |
|
|
|
What supplies blood to the small intestines, cecum, ascending colon, hepatic flexure and the right half of the transverse colon? A) SAM B) SMA C) GDA D) IMA |
A) SMA |
|
|
|
It supplies blood to the left half of the transverse colon, splenic flexure, descending colon and rectosigmoid area A) HGA B) SMA C) IDA D) IMA |
D) IMA |
|
|
|
What supplies blood to the small intestines, cecum, ascending colon, hepatic flexure and the right half of the transverse colon? A) SAM B) SMA C) GDA D) IMA |
A) SMA |
|
|
|
It supplies blood to the left half of the transverse colon, splenic flexure, descending colon and rectosigmoid area A) HGA B) SMA C) IDA D) IMA |
D) IMA |
|
|
|
The ____ is formed by the union of the superior mesenteric vein and the splenic vein? A) Hepatic vein B) Inferior mesenteric vein C) Portal Vein D) Diaphragmatic vein |
C) Portal Vein |
|
|
|
The walls of the arteries have three layers , which of the following are listed in the correct order from outside to the inside layers: A) Adventitia, Intima, Media B) Adventitia, Media, Intima C) Intima, Media, Adventitia D) Media, Intima, Adventitia |
B) Adventitia, Media, Intima |
|
|
|
Both the contrast filled vessel and the item being introduced into the vessel are displayed together when _______ is utilized. A) Road mapping B) Pixel shifting C) Landmarking D) Mask image utilization |
A) Road Mapping |
|
|
|
Various methods of revascularization are available. Which method is most frequently used? A) Laser B) Atherectomy C) Percutaneous transluminal Angioplasty (PTA) D) Stenting |
C) PTA |
|
|
|
PTA can be applied to almost any vessel but is MOST commonly performed on all the following arteries except the _____arteries? A) Iliac B) Femoral C) Cerebral D) Renal |
C) Cerebral |
|
|
|
Direct puncture of the ______ artery shoulder only be considered when the patient has no femoral, dorsalis pedia, or posterior tibial pulses, cannot lay flat or has other symptoms precluding femoral punctures? A) Brachial B) Cereberal C) Axillary D) Carotid |
D) Carotid |
|
|
|
Epistaxis embolization is performed to alleviate hemorrhaging from the ? |
Nose |
|
|
|
Direct stick of the carotid artery may cause a resulting pressure on the carotid sinus. This may result in all of the following except? A) Bradycardia B) Tachycardia C) Hypotension D) SA node effect |
B) Tachycardia |
|
|
|
Direct stick of the carotid artery may cause a resulting pressure on the carotid sinus. This may result in all of the following except? A) Bradycardia B) Tachycardia C) Hypotension D) SA node effect |
B) Tachycardia |
|
|
|
When planning to perform any invasive procedure on a patient, labs obtained should include which of the following? A) PT, INR B) CBC C) Platelets |
All of the above |
|
|
|
When normal routing of Arterial blood in the brain is blocked, what structure maintains blood flow to the affected area? A) Semi circle branches B) Circle of Gillis C) Subclavian steal D) Circle of Willis |
D) Circle of Willis |
|
|
|
Routine angiographic examination of the Cerebral arteries is known as _____ vessel Cerebral angiography? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D)6 |
C) 4 |
|
|
|
When performing a bedside or any invasive procedure, you must verify all of the following 1) signed consent B) appropriate lab results C) written doctors order |
All of the above |
|
|
|
The right and left vertebral arteries merge at the posterior base of the brain to form the ? A) posterior cerebral artery B) superior cerebellar artery C) basilar artery D) Posterior Inferior cerebellar artery |
C) Basilar Artery |
|
|
|
The four portions of the internal carotid arteries are the ? A) cervical, facial, cavernous, and Cerebral B) Cervical, Petrous, cavernous, and Cerebral C) Cervical, Maxillary, cavernous and Cerebral D) Cervical, Superficial temporal, Cavernous and Cerebral |
B ) Cervical, Petrous , cavernous and Cerebral |
|
|
|
An angiograph of the intracranial and extracranial circulation include examination and understanding of the arteries of the ______, neck ,and Cerebral vessels? A) Brachial cephalic B) Vertebral C) Aortic arch D) Innominate |
C ) Aortic Arch |
|
|
|
An AVM is a web of dilated blood vessels that disrupt normal blood flow in the brain by pooling blood within its dense center or A) Fundus B) abnormus C) Niculus D) Nidus |
D) Nidus |
|
|
|
Hemodynamic Pressures |
Blood pressure 90-140 mm hg( systolic) 60-90 mm hg ( Diastolic) Right Atrial pressure (CVP) 0-8 mm hg Right Ventricular pressure 15-25 mm hg ( systolic) 0-8 mm hg ( diastolic) |
|
|
|
Lab values BUN, PT, PTT |
BUN ( blood Urea Nitogen) 8-25/100 ml Creatinine Male .6-1.5/ 100 ml Female .6 -1.1/100 ml PT ( prothrombin Time) 11-16 seconds PTT (partial thrombin time) 25-38 seconds INR ( International normalization ratio) .5-1.5 Glucose 70-110mg/ 100ml Potassium (K) 3.5-5 meg/l |
|
|
|
Lab values CBC |
RBC- male- 4.6-5.9 million Female- 4.2-5.4 million WBC -4300-10,800/ mm3 HCT- male 4.5-52% Female 37-48% HGB- male 13- 18g/100ml Female 12-16g/100ml PLT 150,000-350,000/mm3 Bili 0.1-1mg / dl |
|
|
|
Normal Adult Vital signs |
Blood pressure Systolic- 100-140 Diastolic 70-90
Pulse 60-100 BPM Respirations 16-20 per minute Oxygen saturation 95-99% Temperature. 98.6 degrees F oral 37 degrees Celsius |
|
|
Front (Term) |
P- contraction of atria PR- the time it takes from the beginning of the atrial contraction to the beginning of the ventricular contraction QRS- contraction of the ventricles T- Ventricular recovery ( resting of the heart) |
|
|
Front (Term) |
Sinus bradycardia Less than 60 beats per minute |
|
|
Front (Term) |
Sinus Tachycardia Over 100 beats per minute |
|
|
Front (Term) |
Ventricular tachycardia Most dangerous. Only ventricular contraction, no normal beats |
|
|
Front (Term) |
Premature ventricular complex (PVC) Ventricles contract sooner than usual, tall and broad QRS. PVC’s May be unificol (1) or multifulcal ( more than one). |
|
|
Front (Term) |
Premature atrial contraction (PAC) Atria contracts sooner than usual. Longer gap between T and P wave. You might see this when performing a central line placement or during a pulmonary angiogram. |
|
|
|
True or false vasopressin ( Pitressin) is an antidiuretic hormone that causes contraction of the arteries and is used to control visceral bleeding |
True |
|
|
|
The choice of embolic agent depends on the size of the patient, the desired outcome ( hemostasis or infarction , temporary or permanent) and ease of catheter placement |
False |
|
|
|
True or False Excess renin production stimulates angiotensin and aldosterone production which in turn causes sodium and fluid retention resulting in low blood pressure |
False |
|
|
|
True or false The celiac artery ( also referred to as celiac axis or trunk) is the first major branch of the abdominal aorta arising posteriorly at the level of the T12-L1 interspace |
False It’s the 2nd branch |
|
|
|
True or false Wilm’s tumor is a non-malignant tumor of the kidney that occurs in pediatric patients, usually before the age of 5 |
False |
|
|
|
True or false The usual path of access for TIPS formation is R IJ to SVC to R atrium to IVC to R hepatic vein then through the liver parenchyma to the Portal vein |
True |
|
|
|
True or false The TIPS procedure is a method of decomposing hypertension in the Portal venous system |
False |
|
