Vett 236 Exam 3

Front 1

This is a deep subcutaneous slough of tissue composed of full-thickness degenerated skin that occurs after a thermal burn. It appears as a black firm thick movable crust that separates from the surrounding skin, and purulent exudates often lie beneath it.

Back 1

Eschar

Front 2

T or F Tumor Lysis Syndrome is most commonly seen in patients with chemotherapy, or radiation responsive diseases such as lymphoma or lymphoid leukemias, hours to a few days after treatment.

Back 2

true

Front 3

Is release of endogenous endorphins in the brain a mechanism of inflammatory mediators associated with TBI?

Back 3

no

Front 4

Bleeding of appendages in trauma patients can be controlled with tourniquets using pneumatic blood pressure cuff inflated to _____ for not more than ______.

Back 4

200 mm Hg and 1 hour

Front 5

What is the clinical effect most likely to alter the prognosis of a patient following electrocution?

Back 5

respiratory abnormalities.

Front 6

Flail chest occurs secondary to the fracture of ___ or more adjacent rib sections, both dorsally and ventrally.

Back 6

2

Front 7

In this open fracture there is extensive soft tissue injury, commonly in addition to a high degree of comminution, such as distal extremity shearing wounds or high velocity gun shot wounds.

Back 7

Grade III

Front 8

ER surgery for a diaphragmatic hernia is necessary under certain specific conditions. Is 2 or more fractured ribs and concurrent hemothorax one of them?

Back 8

no

Front 9

Once a diagnosis of Tumoe Lysis Syndrome is made, what would the mainstay of therapy be?

Back 9

Aggressive IV fluids

Front 10

This is an old traumatic wound, with exudate or obvious infection, such as an abscess in a bite wound, puncture wound, or traumatic wound with retained devitalized tissue. This wound will contain more than 105 orgamisms per gram of tissue.

Back 10

Dirty or infected

Front 11

In this open fracture there is soft tissue trauma contiguous with the fracture, often caused by external trauma such as a bite wound or low-velocity gun shot injury.

Back 11

Grade II

Front 12

What are the 2 techniques used to perform abdominocentesis?

Back 12

single paracentesis, 4-quadrant approach

Front 13

Therapy of a drowning victim is aimed at improving what?

Back 13

resolving any abnormal serum acid-base status; stabilizing the cardiovascular and neurologic systems; maintaining tissue perfusion; tissue oxygenation

Front 14

Name the 4 phases of wound healing.

Back 14

Inflammation, debridement, repair/proliferation, maturation.

Front 15

What does monitoring of a near drowning victim entail?

Back 15

continuous ECG; body temperature; lung auscultation; mentation and pupil responsiveness.

Front 16

What 2 conditions cause miosis in patients with an ocular related disease?

Back 16

Anterior uveitis, Horner's syndrome

Front 17

T or F: Intracranial monitoring is commonly done through a burr hole in the skull or a craniectomy site.

Back 17

true

Front 18

The syndrome of inappropriate secretion of _____ is a potential cause of oliguria in critically ill patients.

Back 18

ADH

Front 19

Daily assessment of the critical patient should begin with what?

Back 19

thoughtful, history-guided physical examination

Front 20

The normal intracranial pressure varies between ____ and ____ mm Hg above atmosphere pressure in dogs and cats.

Back 20

5 and 12

Front 21

Is pleural effusion a possible consequence of mechanical ventilation?

Back 21

No.

Front 22

Maintenance of a goal colloid osmotic pressure of at least ____ in whole blood for both dogs and cats reduces the risk of edema formation and secondary organ dysfunction associated with edema

Back 22

15

Front 23

Patients with a MAP below ____ mm Hg will have decreased renal blood flow, GFR, and urine output.

Back 23

80

Front 24

Patients with a MAP below_____ mm Hg will have decreased renal blood flow, GFR, and urine output.

Back 24

80

Front 25

What is the main source of acetylcholinterase toxicity?

Back 25

insecticides.

Front 26

The tx of symptomatic animals with serotonin syndrome consists primarily of supportive measure, and correction of nervous system and cardiovascular abnormalities, but could also include an administration of a ____ receptor antagonist.

Back 26

5-HT2A

Front 27

What are recognized as the 2 best tx for black spider evenomations?

Back 27

pain management and antivenin

Front 28

The radiographic appearance of feline bronchopulmonary disease can vary. The classic radiographic findings include an increase in bronchial densities often described as what?

Back 28

doughnuts, tram lines, or train tracks.

Front 29

The definitive dx of pulmonary embolism requires which specific diagnostic procedure?

Back 29

selective pulmonary angiography

Front 30

What is the most common hematologic finding in ******* and queens with pyometra?

Back 30

neutrophilia

Front 31

Loss of subatmospheric pressure during a thoracotomy causes?

Back 31

atelectasis

Front 32

Altered albumin synthesis is not detected until more than ____% to _____% of liver function is lost.

Back 32

66to 80

Front 33

The FiO2 of unsupplemented air (room air) is app. ____%

Back 33

21

Front 34

Hypoxemia occurs when PaO2 is less than ____ mm Hg at sea level.

Back 34

80

Front 35

The indications for thoracentesis are ____ and ____

Back 35

pneumothorax and pleural effusion.

Front 36

MAP is = to?

Back 36

MAP= diastolic + 1/3(systolic - diastolic)

Front 37

In methemoglobinemia the gums are what color?

Back 37

brown

Front 38

What are the 2 most useful tools for the early detection of an air embolism?

Back 38

capnography and esophageal Doppler probes.

Front 39

T or F the normal Ph of blood is 7.39 +- 0.03

Back 39

true

Front 40

If more than ___% of the total body surface is involved in a thermal burn, cardiovascular shock,and sepsis can occur

Back 40

20

Front 41

T or F the normal canine HCO3 (mEq/L) is 100 +/- 20

Back 41

false

Front 42

Active core warming is indicated in hypopthermia patients. The lavage fluids, should be warmed to?

Back 42

40 to 45 C (104-113 F)

Front 43

Which immunoglobulin is most responsible for anaphylactic reactions?

Back 43

IgE

Front 44

Based on the text, what is the normal MAP in dogs?

Back 44

80-120 mm Hg

Front 45

In cats, acute blindness has been associated with systemic ____ administration at dosages as low as 4 mg/kg PO Q 12.

Back 45

Enrofloxacin

Front 46

In mechanical ventilation, what would be the desired partial pressure of arterial oxygen?

Back 46

60 - 120 mm Hg

Front 47

Normal urine output is ____ ml/kg of body weight per hour.

Back 47

1

Front 48

Is Intraabdominal hypertension is measured by catheter placed in the pleural cavity?

Back 48

no

Front 49

What would be a possible electrolyte abnormality following a massive transfusion?

Back 49

hypocalcemia

Front 50

When breathing normal room air, complete upper airway obstruction or apnea will lead to hypoxemia within approximately how many minutes?

Back 50

3 minutes

Front 51

Preoxygenation of a patient with 100% oxygen via a tight-fitting facemask can prevent hypoxemia for up to how many minutes of airway obstruction or apnea?

Back 51

10 mins.

Front 52

Know the two main pathophysiologic forms of pulmonary edema

Back 52

high-pressure edema and increased permeability edema.

Front 53

What can cardiogenic pulmonary edema cause or result in?

Back 53

the most common forms of high-pressure edema

Front 54

Which drugs are used to treat or manage cardiogenic pulmonary disease?

Back 54

Diuretics, vasodilators

Front 55

How often should recumbent patients be turned to prevent atelectasis?

Back 55

Q 1-2 hours.

Front 56

How long following the initial traumatic impact may pulmonary contusions continue to worsen?

Back 56

24-48 hours

Front 57

The lesions associated with pulmonary contusions typically resolve within how many days, unless complications such as pneumonia or acute respiratory distress syndrome ensue?

Back 57

3-10

Front 58

What are the three major mechanisms that can cause atelectasis?

Back 58

compression, oxygen absorption, and depletion of surfactant.

Front 59

Blind thoracentesis should be performed between which intercostal spaces?

Back 59

7th - 9th

Front 60

What is the most common acid-base abnormality in small animals?

Back 60

metabolic acidosis

Front 61

Know the normal heart rate of small dogs

Back 61

70-120

Front 62

Know the normal heart rate of large dogs

Back 62

60-120

Front 63

Know the normal heart rate of cats

Back 63

120- 200

Front 64

Know the various causes of shock

Back 64

Hypovolemia, vasodilation, cardiac failure

Front 65

At what body temperature should warming measures be discontinued?

Back 65

100 F

Front 66

How often should patients be turned to help prevent lung consolidation and pneumonia?

Back 66

Q 2-4 hours

Front 67

Know the nutritional needs of postoperative patients

Back 67

30kcal/kg q24h

Front 68

Know the arterial partial pressures of oxygen that would result in hypoxemia and severe hypoxemia.

Back 68

Hypoxemia: PaO2 less than 80 mm HG, pulse ox <95%. Severe hypoxemia: PaO2 < 6mm HG or pulse ox < 90%

Front 69

What PCO2 levels would indicate hypoventilation and show an indication for mechanical ventilation?

Back 69

> 45mm HG, mechanical - > 60-70 mm HG

Front 70

What is the recommended respiratory rate during CPR?

Back 70

10-24 breaths/min.

Front 71

Ventilation during CPR should not exceed how many cm H2O pressure?

Back 71

20-30

Front 72

What is the proper number of chest compressions that should be performed during CPR?

Back 72

100-120/minute

Front 73

Know when fevers become a threat to the life of patients

Back 73

When exceeds 107.

Front 74

What is the normal rectal temperature of dogs and cats?

Back 74

Below 102.5.

Front 75

Which specific area of the brain controls thermoregulation?

Back 75

a region of the hypothalamus.

Front 76

What effect would increased sympathetic noradrenergic innervation of cardiac muscle have?

Back 76

Increase HR and force of contraction

Front 77

Know the normal, low value, and high values of the MAP

Back 77

Low = < 60 mm HG. Normal = 60 – 100 mmHG. High = >100mm Hg

Front 78

What are the parameters that define oliguria in patients?

Back 78

Decrease in urine production below min acceptable rate of 1-2 ml/kg/hour

Front 79

What are the common states of consciousness?

Back 79

Normal, obtunded, stupor or semicoma, coma.

Front 80

Which part of the brain is responsible for the integration of sensory information from the entire body, the planning of motor activity, and the appropriate responses to this information, emotion, and memory?

Back 80

Cerebrum

Front 81

Which part of the brain activates the cerebral cortex and maintains consciousness?

Back 81

Reticular activating system in the midbrain, pons, thalamus.

Front 82

Know the most life-threatening causes for a decline in mentation for patients in an ICU.

Back 82

Vascular event, increased intracranial pressure, herniation of brain structures. Infarction or hemorrhage secondary to lesions.

Front 83

Know the primary causes of a reduced PaO2 in arterial blood

Back 83

1. Decrease PiO2 2. Hypoventilation 3. Ventilation – perfusion mismatch 4. Shunt 5. Diffusion impairment

Front 84

Know what happens when venous blood bypasses the gas exchange areas of the lung and mixes with oxygenated arterial blood.

Back 84

Shunt – most important cause of hypoxemia

Front 85

Cats with congestive left heart failure commonly develop which condition or disease?

Back 85

pleural effusion

Front 86

What effect does heart failure have on the heart rate of cats?

Back 86

Increased.

Front 87

Which drugs are used in the acute treatment of feline HCM?

Back 87

Diuretics, nitroglycerin

Front 88

DCM typically affects which sized dogs?

Back 88

Large, medium

Front 89

Virtually all patients with acquired degenerative valve disease that have congestive heart failure will have an audible cardiac murmur in which cardiac position?

Back 89

left apical position.

Front 90

Arrhythmias associated with myocardial injury may be delayed in onset up to how many hours?

Back 90

48 hours

Front 91

What is the immediate treatment of choice for cardiac tamponade?

Back 91

Immediate pericardiocentesis is indicated for cardiac tamponade.

Front 92

What are the most common causes of pericardial effusion in dogs?

Back 92

Neoplasia.

Front 93

Elevated blood hydrogen ion levels (pH <7.4) are described as __________, and reduced hydrogen ion levels (pH >7.4) are described as ____________.

Back 93

acidemia, alkalemia.

Front 94

The total body water content is approximately what percentage of body weight in a nonobese adult dog or cat?

Back 94

60%

Front 95

Animals with acute hemorrhage exceeding what percentage of the blood volume may require a blood transfusion in addition to the initial shock fluid therapy?

Back 95

20%

Front 96

What is the most important canine blood type?

Back 96

DEA 1.1

Front 97

What is the main blood group system recognized in cats?

Back 97

AB blood group system.

Front 98

What is the chemical precursor of the ketones found in ketoacidosis?

Back 98

Hyperkalemia.

Front 99

What is the common name for hypoadrenocorticism?

Back 99

Addison’s.

Front 100

What is the common name for hyperadrenocorticism?

Back 100

Cushing's

Front 101

Know the normal and abnormal intracranial hypertension (ICH) pressures in small animals.

Back 101

normal range of 5 to 12 mm Hg.

Front 102

Icterus may be observed the day after substantial hemolysis and when the serum bilirubin concentration often exceeds ___ mg/dl.

Back 102

2

Front 103

What PCV percentage is generally accepted as indicating that a patient will need a blood transfusion?

Back 103

20% or less.

Front 104

Pyometria is an endocrine disease most commonly occurring during which stage of the estrous cycle?

Back 104

diestrus

Front 105

What is the interval from ovulation to parturition is in cats?

Back 105

63 to 65 days

Front 106

What is the interval from ovulation to parturition is in dogs?

Back 106

58 to 72 days from the first of multiple breedings

Front 107

How long does the first stage of labor last in dogs undergoing a normal parturition?

Back 107

6 to 12 hours

Front 108

How long does the second stage of labor last in dogs undergoing a normal parturition?

Back 108

3 to 12 hours and, in rare cases, up to 24 hours

Front 109

How many days before parturition can radiographs of fetal skeletons be adequately visualized and counted?

Back 109

17 to 20 days

Front 110

Which drug is most commonly used to treat uterine inertia?

Back 110

oxytocin

Front 111

Be able to define Paraphimosis.

Back 111

the inability to reduce the penis into the prepuce

Front 112

Be able to define Priapism

Back 112

persistent penile erection in the absence of sexual stimulation.

Front 113

Be able to define Galactostasis

Back 113

the delay in the passage of milk from the mammary glands

Front 114

What is the most common cause of cardiovascular compromise in the critically ill patient and needs to be resolved before anesthesia induction?

Back 114

Hypovolemic shock

Front 115

Which class of drugs, used in anesthetic plans, does not adversely affect the cardiovascular system and are safe to use in even the most critically ill animals?

Back 115

Opioid drugs

Front 116

What are the most common life-threatening abnormalities seen in the critical postoperative patient?

Back 116

Hypoventilation, hypoxemia, hypotension, and hypothermia

Front 117

Once an anesthetic patient’s core body temperature has been increased to which temperature F, active rewarming efforts should stop, to prevent accidental hyperthermia.

Back 117

99 F

Front 118

What is the most common indication for sustained peritoneal drainage?

Back 118

Septic peritonitis

Front 119

What are the common consequences of a thoracotomy?

Back 119

Hypoxemia, hypotension, and arrhythmias

Front 120

Volume loading a thoracotomy patient before surgery with crystalloid or colloid fluids to a central venous pressure of ____ to ____ cm H2O will help prevent the reduction in cardiac output.

Back 120

6 to 7