Vascular Quiz Questions

Front 1

1st branch off AO arch

Back 1

Innominate artery

Front 2

1st branch off ECA

Back 2

Superior thyroid artery

Front 3

Vessel that provides blood supply to brain & eye

Back 3

ICA

Front 4

Which segment of subclavian artery do the vertebral arteries branch off?

Back 4

First

Front 5

Another name for Intracranial-extracranial connections

Back 5

Pre-Willisian anastomosis

Front 6

Terminal branches of basilar artery

Back 6

Posterior cerebral

Front 7

1st major branch of ICA

Back 7

ophthalmic artery

Front 8

ECA branch which has important communication with muscular branches of vertebral artery

Back 8

Occipital

Front 9

Bleeding within a plaque

Back 9

Intraplaque hemorrhage

Front 10

#1 risk factor associated with stroke

Back 10

HTN

Front 11

Vertebrobasilar symptoms include:

Back 11

Vertigo
Drop attacks
Ataxia

Front 12

Mechanisms for extracranial disease include:

Back 12

Stenosis
Thrombosis
Cardiac disease

Front 13

Subclavian steal occurs when there is a flow reducing lesion located where in reference to origin of vertebral artery?

Back 13

Proximal

Front 14

Carotid symptoms lasting 24 to 72 hours wo residual effects categorized as

Back 14

Reversible Ischemic Neurologic Deficit (RIND)

Front 15

ICA territory symptoms usually (bilateral or unilateral)

Back 15

Unilateral

Front 16

98% of fatalities from stroke occur due to

Back 16

Hemorrhagic event

Front 17

A difference of 20-49 mmHg in bilateral brachial blood pressures is indicative of

Back 17

Subclavian steal

Front 18

Smallest ECA branch

Back 18

Ascending pharyngeal artery

Front 19

ICA located what to ECA

Back 19

Posterior

Front 20

What occurs when blood flows through a tear in media of vessel

Back 20

Dissection

Front 21

Symptoms of subclavian steal include

Back 21

Vertigo
Arm claudication
Bilateral hemiparesis

Front 22

Segment of ICA that passes between 2nd & 3rd cranial nerves at Sylvian fissure

Back 22

Cavernous portion

Front 23

Largest ECA branch

Back 23

Internal maxillary

Front 24

"String of beads" appearance typically seen in mid to distal aspect of ICA represents

Back 24

Fibromuscular dysplasia

Front 25

Normal ICA waveform is

Back 25

Low resistance

Front 26

What should you adjust to rule out trickle flow when total occlusion suspected?

Back 26

Wall filter
Doppler gain
PRF
Sample gate size

Front 27

Temporal window is used to evaluate which vessels

Back 27

MCA
ACA
PCA

Front 28

Flow in MCA1 should be (away, towards) transducer when using temporal window

Back 28

Towards

Front 29

What is usual treatment for PTs w severe carotid artery disease who are not good surgical candidates

Back 29

Endovascular procedure

Front 30

Unilateral decreased CCA diastolic flow may suggest

Back 30

Severe distal disease

Front 31

Deep veins lie adjacent to arteries, have same name as accompanying artery, and lie _____ the fascia

Back 31

Below

Front 32

The veins which connect the deep & superficial venous system

Back 32

Perforating

Front 33

The veins which drain blood from pelvis

Back 33

Internal Iliac Veins

Front 34

Group of perforator veins that connect GSV to PTV in upper calf

Back 34

Boyd's

Front 35

Walls of arteries & veins fed by ?

Back 35

Vaso Vasorum

Front 36

Venous reflux lasting longer than ____ seconds indicates valve incompetence

Back 36

.75

Front 37

IVC normally does what with inspiration?

Back 37

Collapses

Front 38

Popliteal vein receives blood from:

Back 38

Sural veins

Articular veins

Gastrocnemius veins

Front 39

ATVs course ___ interosseous membrane

Back 39

Above

Front 40

GSV contains up to how many valves

Back 40

6

Front 41

Hydrostatic pressure in a standing person is what compared to a lying person

Back 41

Increased

Front 42

Largest superficial vein in UE located on inner side of biceps muscle

Back 42

Basilic vein

Front 43

Port vein located ___ to IVC (anterior, posterior)

Back 43

Anterior

Front 44

Blood is transported from liver to IVC via

Back 44

Hepatic veins

Front 45

Left renal vein courses _____ to SMA (Anterior, Posterior)

Back 45

Posterior

Front 46

PPG testing for venous insufficiency is performed on pt. Refilling time of 30 seconds recorded, this is (normal or abnormal)

Back 46

normal

Front 47

Vein compression performed in which scan plane

Back 47

Transverse

Front 48

Gastrocnemius veins drain into what vein

Back 48

Popliteal

Front 49

Calf veins located above interosseous membrane

Back 49

ATVs

Front 50

Doppler interrogation for venous flow performed in what scan plane

Back 50

Sagital

Front 51

Spontaneous ileofemoral thrombosis

Back 51

Treuseus syndrome

Front 52

Continuous flow signal heard at CFV indicates

Back 52

Valve reflux

Front 53

Acute DVT presents w/ what image characteristics

Back 53

Rounded tip

Low to medium level grey echogenicity

Does not adhere to vessel wall

Front 54

When performing saphenous vein mapping, vein must measure at least ____ mm in diameter to allow adequate expansion under arterial pressure

Back 54

2.0

Front 55

Ascending venography performed by placing pt in ____ degree upright position

Back 55

45

Front 56

Chronic DVT exhibits what characteristics

Back 56

Bright echogenicity

Possible posterior shadowing

Adheres to vessel wall

Front 57

Pulsatile venous flow may be seen with

Back 57

Increased CVP

Front 58

Perforating veins measuring more than ____ mm in diameter usually incompetent

Back 58

4

Front 59

The first branch of the Abdominal Aorta is the

Back 59

Celiac Artery

Front 60

The Common Femoral Artery courses _____ to Common Femoral Vein

Back 60

Lateral

Front 61

The Right Common Iliac Artery crosses

Back 61

Over the Left Iliac Vein

Front 62

The first branch of the popliteal artery is the ____ artery

Back 62

Anterior Tibial

Front 63

The SFA gives rise to the genicular artery (where)

Back 63

At the level of the adductor canal

Front 64

CW Doppler evaluations should be performed using a _____ degree angle

Back 64

60

Front 65

Normal peripheral arteries should exhibit a ____ type waveform characteritic

Back 65

Triphasic or Multiphasic

Front 66

Flow signals obtained DISTAL to the site of stenosis will exhibit a ____ type waveform pattern

Back 66

Monophasic

Front 67

A pulsatility index of 6.0 is normal at the CFA. The PI measurements obtained further distal in popliteal & posterior tibial arteries should ___ if vessel is normal.

Back 67

Increase

Front 68

Window filling on the spectral display represents

Back 68

Turbulent flow

Front 69

Factors resulting in false window filling

Back 69

Sample Gate size too large

Doppler gain too high

Poor Doppler angle

Front 70

When obtaining a peak systolic velocity (PSV) measurement using duplex techniques, angle cursor should be adjusted so that it is ____ to the vessel wall

Back 70

Parallel

Front 71

A velocity ratio measurement of ____ is indicative of a stenosis greater than 75% when evaluating lower extremity arterial disease

Back 71

> 4.0

Front 72

Normally the ankle systolic pressure is ____ than the brachial pressure

Back 72

Higher

Front 73

Patients w/ severe arterial disease & ischemic rest pain generally have systolic pressures less than

Back 73

40 mm/Hg

Front 74

Ischemic foot ulcers are not likely to heal if ankle pressures are less than ____ in a diabetic patient

Back 74

80 mm/Hg

Front 75

Single level occlusions have ABI measurements

Back 75

> 0.50

Front 76

Ischemic rest pain is seen w/ pressure indices less than

Back 76

0.35

Front 77

A positive clinical response to a sympathectomy procedure is predicted by an ABI greater than

Back 77

0.35

Front 78

Ankle brachial indices compensate for variations in central perfusion pressure which

Back 78

Allows for direct comparison of serial tests

Front 79

When performing segmental pressures, a cuff bladder width should be _____ % > the diameter of the limb which pressures are being measured

Back 79

20%

Front 80

When performing segmental pressure measurements, a difference of _____ mm/hg between segments indicates significant arterial occlusive disease in that segment of the vessel.

Back 80

20

Front 81

A pressure gradient greater than 20 mm/hg between the above knee cuff & below the knee cuff suggests significant ______ artery disease

Back 81

Popliteal

Front 82

An index measurement between the high thigh cuff & the brachial pressure of 0.8 suggests

Back 82

Aorto-iliac disease

Front 83

Toe pressures greater than _____ mm/hg predict ulcer healing

Back 83

30

Front 84

Diabetic patients may have artifactually high pressures due to

Back 84

Medial wall calcifications

Front 85

A patient walks on the treadmill for 2 minutes before experiencing calf pain which requires him to stop walking. The post exercise ankle pressure dropped to 60 mm/hg and returned to resting pressure of 105 within 6 minutes. These results indicate the patients pain ____ (is/is not) significant for claudication.

Back 85

is

Front 86

In same patient above, the stenosis is most likely

Back 86

Single level

Front 87

When performing a reactive hyperemia test, a drop in pressure greater than 50% suggests ______ level stenosis

Back 87

Multiple

Front 88

A pressure drop of ____ mm/hg when performing an UE arterial exam suggest significant disease between the two segments

Back 88

20

Front 89

A patient presents w/ UE arm claudication & normal resting pressures. Reactive hyperemia is performed showing no change in values. The pain is probably

Back 89

Neurologic or muscoskeletal

Front 90

A subclavian artery aneurysm is _______

Back 90

a possible complication of thoracic outlet compression

Front 91

Palmar arch perfusion is assessed by performing a(n)

Back 91

Allen's test

Front 92

A patient presents w/ arm & hand ischemia associated w/ symptoms of nerve root compression. The proper examination to perform is

Back 92

Thoracic Outlet Examination

Front 93

Primary Raynaud's syndrome is a vasospastic condition where the arteries are (abnormal/normal)

Back 93

Normal

Front 94

Secondary Raynaud's can be due to:

Back 94

Buerger's disease

Scleroderma

Trauma

Front 95

Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty is best for ____ segments

Back 95

Single short stenotic

Front 96

The type of treatment used for embolic or thrombotic events is

Back 96

Thrombolytic therapy

Front 97

Arteriography ______ used as a primary method for diagnosis of disease before a decision for surgical intervention has been made. (is/is not)

Back 97

Is not

Front 98

The type of arteriography technique which uses a guide wire system is called the

Back 98

Seldinger method

Front 99

Multiple level arterial stenosis is usually treated with

Back 99

Vein graft placement

Front 100

A chronic recurring inflammatory vascular occlusive disease seen primarily in the peripheral vessels among young white Jewish males or heavy cigarette smokers is called

Back 100

Buerger's disease

Front 101

The typical plethysmographic waveform seen w/ cold sensitivity syndrome is described as

Back 101

Peaked

Front 102

A plethysmographic waveform is obtained from the UE digits which reveals a rounded systolic peak & loss of the dichrotic notch. This is best characterized as a _____ waveform

Back 102

Obstructive

Front 103

The cuffs placed around the high, calf, and ankles should be inflated to ______ mm/hg when performing an arterial PVR examination

Back 103

65

Front 104

A digital plethysmorgraphy examination was performed on Mrs A. The waveform revealed a rapid systolic upstroke, an anachrotic notch and a dicrotic notch located high on the downslope of the wave. This most likely represents a ____ waveform

Back 104

Peaked

Front 105

A LE arterial duplex/color exam is performed. A region of the vessel exhibits a change in peak systolic velocity greater than 100% as compared to the segment immediately PROXIMAL. The reverse flow component is absent & there is significant spectral broadening. This suggests a stenosis of

Back 105

50-99%

Front 106

Two types of artificial grafts are placed superficially under the skin surface in patients who are poor surgical candidates: axillo-femoral & a _______ bypass graft

Back 106

Fem-Fem

Front 107

Ultrasound imaging at the anastomotic site of an arterial bypass graft during the first 10 days may exhibit

Back 107

Small amounts of fluid

Front 108

The Doppler characteristics obtained from the abdominal aorta above the level of the SMA normally reveal

Back 108

Sharp rise to systole, rapid deceleration, with a small amount of diastolic flow

Front 109

The etiology of aortic dissection are

Back 109

Hypertension

Trauma

Marfan's diase

Front 110

The celiac and hepatic arteries normally exhibit a _________ resistance waveform pattern

Back 110

Low

Front 111

Complications associated with iliac artery aneurysm include:

Back 111

Increased risk of rupture

Iliac vein thrombosis

Hydronephrosis

Front 112

The vessel located between the first portion of the duodenum and the anterior surface of the pancreatic head is called

Back 112

Gastroduodenal artery

Front 113

The SMA in the post-prandial patient normally reveals a _______ resistance waveform pattern

Back 113

Low

Front 114

The SMA in the fasting patient normally exhibits a __________resistance waveform pattern

Back 114

High

Front 115

A patient presents with weight loss and pain after eating. Velocity calculations in both the celiac and SMA are > 300 cm/s. This suggests

Back 115

> 70% stenosis

Front 116

Evaluation of mesentric ischemia should include Doppler interrogation of what vessels

Back 116

Celiac

Common Hepatic Artery

SMA

Renal Arteries

Front 117

Renal transplant evaluation should be performed using a ______ transducer (MHz)

Back 117

7.5 - 10 MHz

Front 118

Renovascular hypertension is considered in patients who consistently have a diastolic blood pressure greater than ____ mmHg without medication

Back 118

105

Front 119

The normal renal artery should exhibit a _____ resistance waveform pattern

Back 119

Low

Front 120

The normal renal to aortic ratio should be _____ 3.5 (less than or great than)

Back 120

Less than ( < )

Front 121

In the United States, the primary cause of portal hypertension is

Back 121

Cirrhosis

Front 122

The most common form of fibromuscular dysplasia that involves the carotid and renal arteries is

Back 122

Medial Fibroplasias

Front 123

Sonographic signs of portal hypertension

Back 123

Portal vein diameter > 13 mm

Hepatofugal portal vein flow

Dilated para umbilical vein

Front 124

Flow through portosystemic shunts is typically

Back 124

Turbulent & high velocity

Front 125

Cavernous transformation occurs in patients with

Back 125

Portal vein thrombosis

Front 126

The etiology of Budd Chiari syndrome is

Back 126

Hepatic vein obstructiob

Front 127

The indirect method of evaluating renal artery stenosis (RAS) requires

Back 127

Acceleration time measurement of segmental or interlobular arteries

Look for ESP

RI measurement of segmental renal arteries

Front 128

A patient is evaluated for potential renal transplant rejection. The PI = 1.8 & the RI = 1.0

These findings suggest

Back 128

Acute rejection

Front 129

The normal IMA sonographic and Doppler findings include

Back 129

High resistance waveform

PSV < 155 cm/s

Arises anteriorly of AO at level of 4th lumbar vertebra

Front 130

A non-atherosclerotic obstruction of the celiac artery is referred to as

Back 130

Median Arcuate Ligament Syndrome

Front 131

Peri-portal collateral channels occurs in patients with chronic portal vein obstruction. This is called

Back 131

Caput Medusa sign

Front 132

Things routinely confirmed by arteriography

Back 132

Chronic mesenteric ischemia

Non-occlusive mesenteric ischemia

Front 133

The Doppler characteristics obtained from the abdominal aorta above the level of the SMA normally reveal

Back 133

Sharp rise to systole

Rapid deceleration

With small amount of diastolic flow

Front 134

The etiology of aortic dissection

Back 134

Hypertension

Trauma

Marfan's Disease

Front 135

The celiac and hepatic arteries normally exhibit a ______ resistance waveform pattern (low or high)

Back 135

Low

Front 136

Complications associated with iliac artery anuerysm include

Back 136

Increased risk of rupture

Iliac vein thrombosis

Hydronephrosis

Front 137

The vessel located between the first portion of the duodenum and the anterior surface of the pancreatic head is called

Back 137

Gastroduodenal artery

Front 138

The SMA in the post-prandial patient normally reveals a ____ resistance waveform pattern. (high or low)

Back 138

Low

Front 139

The SMA in the fasting patient normally exhibits a _____ resistance waveform pattern (high or low)

Back 139

High

Front 140

A patient presents with weight loss and pain after eating. Velocity calculations in both the celiac and superior mesenteric arteries are > 300 cm/s. This suggests

Back 140

> 70% stenosis

Front 141

Evaluation of mesenteric ischemia should include Doppler interrogation of what vessels

Back 141

Celiac

Common hepatic artery

SMA

Inferior mesenteric artery

Front 142

Renal transplant evaluation should be performed using a ____ transducer

Back 142

7.5 to 12 MHz

Front 143

Renovascular hypertension is considered in patients who consistently have a diastolic blood pressure greater than _____ mm/hg without medication

Back 143

105

Front 144

The normal renal arterty should exhibit a ____ resistance waveform pattern. (high or low)

Back 144

Low

Front 145

The normal renal to arotic ratio should be ____ 3.5 (greater or lesser)

Back 145

Less than

Front 146

In the United States, the primary cause of portal hypertension is

Back 146

Cirrhosis

Front 147

The most common form of fibromuscular dysplasia that involves the carotid and renal arteries is

Back 147

Medial fibroplasias

Front 148

Sonographic signs of portal hypertension

Back 148

Portal vein diameter > 13 mm

Hepatofugal portal vein flow

Dilated para umbilical vein

Front 149

Flow through portosystemic shunts is typically

Back 149

Turbulent & high velocity

Front 150

Cavernous transformation occurs in patients with

Back 150

Portal vein thrombosis

Front 151

The etiology of Budd Chiari syndrome is

Back 151

Hepatic vein obstruction

Front 152

The indirect method of evaluating renal artery stenosis requires:

Back 152

Acceleration time measurement of segmental or interlobular arteries

Look for ESP

RI measurement of segmental renal arteries

Front 153

A patient is evaluated for potential renal transplant rejection. The PI = 1.8 and the RI = 1.0. These findings suggest

Back 153

Acute rejection

Front 154

The normal IMA sonographic & doppler findings

Back 154

High resistance waveform

PSV < 155 cm/s

Arises anteriorly off the aorta at the level of the 4th lumbar vertebrae

Front 155

A non-atherosclerotic obstruction of the celiac artery is referred to as

Back 155

Median arcuate ligament syndrome

Front 156

Peri-portal collateral channels occurs in patients with chronic portal vein obstruction. This is called

Back 156

Cavernous transformation

Front 157

Conditions routinely confirmed by arteriography

Back 157

Chronic mesenteric ischemia

Non-occlusive mesenteric ischemia