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33 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what are the characteristics of myotonic muscular dystrophy (MMD)?
2nd mc muscular dystrophy in the US
auto dominant
all muscle types (skel/smooth/card)
progressive muscle wasting
*delayed muscle relaxation
how do you treat infant botulism?
supportive care
or
human-derived botulinum antitoxin
(not equine-derived)
what are the characteristics of Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)?
pseudohypertrophy of the calves
(+) Gower's sign (prox muscle weakness)
X-linked recessive
how do you screen for/diagnose Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)?
screen with serum CK
diagnose with muscle biopsy
hand-foot syndrome/dactylitis is the earliest manifestation of _____
vaso-occlusive disease in sickle cell anemia
what needs to be done with a pt with pyloric stenosis prior to surgery?
stabilize hydration status and electrolytes
what are the features of a pt with Prader-Willi syndrome (obesity hypogonadism syndrome)? (5)
hypotonia
hypogonadism
obesity
mental retardation
craniofacial features:
- narrow bifrontal diameter
- diamond-shaped eyes
- small, down-turned mouth
what are common features of a newborn with trisomy 18 (Edward's syndrome)?
low birth weight
closed fists (overlapping digits)
rocker-bottom feet
microcephaly
cardiac/renal malformations
mental retardation
what are common features of a newborn with trisomy 13 (Patau's syndrome)?
cleft lip/palate
polydactyly
ocular hypotelorism
low-set malformed ears
microephaly
what should you do with a pt with acute alkali ingestion?
upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
(don't try to neutralize with vinegar or lavage)
vesicoureteral reflex (VUR) is a risk factor for _____ and can lead to _____ in children
UTS, with chronically can lead to renal scarring and end stage renal disease/HRN in children
what is the best way to diagnose vesicoureteral reflux (VUR)? (2)
with a voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG) or radionuclide cystogram (RNC)

(AAP recommends that all children 2-24 mo with a UTE should get one)
what are the classical symptoms of the measles?
four day fever
"3 C's":
- cough
- coryza (runny nose)
- conjunctivits (red eyes)
Koplik's spots
what is a common hemotologic problem with measles?

what txt reduces the assd morbidity and mortality?
leukopenia (T-cell cytopenia)
thrombocytopenia

txt: Vitamin A
how does iron poisoning present?
nausea/vomiting/diarrhea
GI bleeding
metabolic acidosis

(tablets can be seen on x-ray)
how do you diagnose/treat iron poisoning?
diagnosis: confirmed w/ a serum iron

txt: IV deferoxamine (iron chelator)
what are the features of a child with congenital hypothyroidism?
nl at birth
apathy/weakness/hypotonia
large tongue
abdominal bloating
umbilical hernia
clinical features of a pt with Turner syndrome?

what cardiovascular abnormality?
short stature
short webbed neck
low posterior hairline
broad chest (wide nipples)

coarctation of the aorta
what patient population typically gets tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?
pts w/ Down syndrome
what is the test of choice for pyloric stenosis diagnosis?
abdominal ultrasound
if a child develops any complication (anaphylactic/encephalopathy/CNS) <7 days post DTap, for the next vaccination _____
DT should be given since pertussis is typically the cause of the adverse reaction
what is the classical presentation of neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)?
preterm/low birth weight infant
fever
vomiting
abdominal distension
pneumatosis intestinalis (gas in bowel wall on x-ray)
a pt with whooping cough severe enough to cause rectal prolapse and pneumothoraces likely has _____
Bordetella pertussis
a neonate with bloody diarrhea, eosinophils in the stool and family history of atopy may have _____
milk protein intolerance
what is normal testicular size in prepubertal males?
2 cm in length
3 mL in volume
what are the (2) tests used in the diagnosis of syphilis?
FTA (Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody) test - most specific
VDRL (Veneral Disease Research Laboratory) test
RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin) test

[false-positive RPR assd with lupus (SLE)]
what tests are specific and confirmatory for the diagnosis for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
(+) anti-Smith antibodies
anti-double stranded DNA antibodies
what are the clinical diagnostic criteria for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
"SOAP BRAIN MD" - 4 out of 11
(S)erositis - pleuritis/pericarditis
(O)ral ulcers
(A)rthritis
(P)hotosensitivity
(B)lood disorder - anemia/leukopenia/lymphopenia/thrombocytopenia
(R)enal disorder - proteinuria/cellular casts
(A)nti-nuclear antibody (+)
(I)mmunologic disorder - (+) anti-Smith/anti-ds DNA/antiphospholipid ab/syphilis (false)
(N)eurologic disorder - psychosis/seizures
(M)alar rash (butterfly face)
(D)iscoid rash (red/scaly)
what are typical features of a pt with osteogenesis imperfecta?
blue sclera
recurrent fractures
hearing loss
joint laxity
short/scoliosis

(mutation in type 1 collagen)
what is hemorrhagic disease of the newborn (HDN)?
due to Vitamin K deficiency
decr clotting factors (2, 7, 9, 10)
prolonged PT (>15 sec)
bedwetting is normal until the age of __
5 years old
what are epicanthal folds?
a skin fold of the upper eyelid (from nose to inner side of the eyebrow) covering the inner corner of the eye

(common in fetal alcohol syndrome)
what are 2 common causes of not passing meconium?
1) Hirschprung dz
2) cystic fibrosis