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93 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Aplasia vs. atrophy
Aplasia- never grew
Atrophy- shrunk... from: dec blood supply, disuse, dec hormone stim, denervation.
Psoriasis: Hypertrophy or hyperplasia?
hyperplasia
Hyperplasia predisposes you to:
(what is the one exception)
Cancer; BPH
Why are AIDS pts often w/ methemoglobinemia?
They are TMP-Sulfa prophylaxis for PCP.
Which drugs can precipitate hemolytic anemia with G6PD- deficiency? WHY?
fava-beans, TMP-sulfa, primaquin (anti-malarial drugs), dapsone (leprosy tx), nitro drugs, sulfa drugs. TB drugs.

These drugs increase H202 (peroxide);
With G6PD-def., there is less NADPH; thus dec reduced glutathione, thus less ability to detox free rads and peroxides. The peroxides damage Hb giving met-hemoglobin; so Hb clumps up, the RBC membrane gets screwed up and intravascular hemolysis occurs.
What will you see on a blood smear for G6PD def?
WHY?
Heinz bodies- clumped Hb b/c it's met-hemoglobin from getting oxidatively damaged from peroxide that can't be cleared b/c decreased reduced glutathione b/c not enough NADPH because no G6PD.

Bite cells: from phagocytic removal of Heinz bodies from macrophages.
Does giving oxygen help for a pt with G6PD def?
No, because the Hb is met-hemoglobin and won't bind it; doesn't matter if there is tons of it around or not.
Compare the treatment of CO poisoning with G6PD def.
CO poison= 100% O2
G6PD= transfusion only... 100% O2 doesn't help b/c the Hb is met-hemoglobin and won't bind O2.
What is the number one symptom of CO poisoning?
HA
Explain the mech of CO poisoning
The CO binds the heme instead of O2.
Treatment= 100% O2.
Contrast aplasia with hypoplasia with atrophy. Give examples
Aplasia- NO development. renal agenesis.
hypoplasia- DEC development. gonads in klinefelter.
atrophy- DEC of size (post normal dev.). muscle loss post having a cast on.
Hypoxia vs. hypoxemia
Hypoxia- decreased O2 supply
Hypoxemia- dec O2 concentration in arterial blood
Five causes of hypoxia:
1. ischemia (blood flow obstruction)
2. anemia
3. CO poison
4. Dec. blood flow (dec perfusion)
5. Hypoxemia (i.e. from pulm dz).
Describe early characteristics (reversible) of hypoxic cell injury:
-Decreased oxidative phosphorylation in the MITOCHONDRIA.
So dec ATP.
Failure of Na/K-ATPase mem pump.
inc intracell Na so cell swelling/organelle swelling (hyropic change, vacuoles in cytoplasm, swelling of ER and mitochondria).
-Ribosome disaggregation (b/c mem changes).
-stimulation of phosphofructokinase: inc glycolysis so inc lactate, dec intracell pH.
-End of early stage= myelin figures (whorl like from mem damage), cell blebs (bad cytoskeleton).
Describe late characteristic of hypoxic cell injury:
Point of no return:
Calcium influx from membrane damage. (Ca++ATPase pump disrupted so Ca++ goes in and activates everything giving cell death)
calcification of mitochondria.
intracell enzyme/protein release.
(ex. AST, LDH, CK, CK-MB, amylase)
Describe the relative vulnerability of the following cells to hypoxia:
neurons, myocytes, skeletal muscle cells
neurons die 3-5 min,
myocardial cells (and hepatocytes) die 1-2 hours
skel muscle cells die after many hours.
What controls the development of external genital differentiation?
Adrenal androgens
What occurs with complete androgen insensitivty in a XY karyotype?
external female genitalia but internal male genitalia. They appear as females.
What occurs with 5-alpha reductase deficiency in a XY karyotype?
dec conversion of testosterone to 5-DHT. Thus underdeveloped external male genitalia and prostate. Normal epididymus, ductus deferens, etc.
Where does the corticospinal tract cross?
Caudal medulla (pyramidal decussation)
If you aspirate a peanut while upright it will go where?
lower portion of right inferior lobe
If you aspirate a peanut while supine where will it go?
Superior portion of right inferior lobe
What bugs secrete IgA protease?
S. pnuemo, H. flu, Neisseria
What does IgA protease do?
Cleavces IgA, leaving the Fc parts to coat the bacterium. Then the bacterium can bind the Fc receptors on various mucosal celss.
What does Protein A do?
Binds Fc portion of Ig. Screws up opsonization and phagocytosis.
What bacterium has Protein A?
Staph A
What does M protein do?
Helps prevent phagocytosis.
What bug has M protein?
Strep pyogenes (group A strep)
What drug is used to stop M protein?
Clindamycin
What type of nerve block is used in the second stage of labor?
PUDENDAL nerve block which innervates the muscle and skin of perianal area.
What landmark is used for a pudendal block?
ischial spine
What landmark is used for a lumbar puncture?
iliac crest
Describe what layers are pierced (in order) for a lumbar puncture
Skin
Superficial fascia
Deep fascia
Supraspinous ligament
Interspinous ligament
Ligamentum flavum
Interlaminar space (only present in lumbar region)
Epidural space
Dura
Arachnoid
Subarachnoid space (CSF)

** Pia is not Pierced!!!
What spinal level is a lumbar puncture at?
L4/L5
An infarct to what artery causes locked in syndrome?
Basilar
What does a lesion to the ventral pons result in?
Locked-in syndrome: quadriplegia and inability to speak;
patient is aware, awake, and can communicate w/ vertical eye movements and blinks.
What is the mechanism of nystatin?
Complexes w/ ergosterol and causes cell membrane leakage
What other drug has the same mechanism as nystatin?
amphotericin B
What anti-fungal blocks ergosterol synthesis?
Terbinafine
What anti-fungal inhibits beta-glucan?
Echinocandins (e.g. caspofungin)
What anti-fungal messes up mitotic spindle formation?
Griseofulvan
What is the mechanism of flucytosine?
Interferes w/ thymidilate synthetase
Define prosopagnosia
Inability to recognize faces
In severe anemia describe what occurs with the pulse pressure, cardiac output, heart rate and stroke volume
They all increase!
Describe the changes in LV volumes (diastolic and systolic) after nitroglycerin admin
they both will decrease (dec. venous return, dec. TPR)
What diseases occur in a HIV pt w/ CD4+ from 200-400
Oral thrush, tinea pedic, VZV reactivation, TB reactivation, bacterial infections (h flu, s pneumo, salmonella)
What diseases occur in a HIV pt w/ CD4+ from 100-200
HSV reactivation, cryptosporidium, isospora, dissem coccidioidomycosis, PCP.
What diseases occur in a HIV pt w/ CD4+ from 50-100
Candida esophagitis, toxoplasmosis, histoplasmosis
What diseases occur in a HIV pt w/ CD4+ from 0-50
CMV retinitis/esophagitis, dissem MAC, cryptococcal meningoencephalitis.
Where in the brain will herpes simplex encephalitis affect?
Frontal and temporal lobes (think that the herpes lesions on the face spread via the nasopharynx)
Polyarteritis nodosa is associated with which hepatitis strain?
Hep B
What hepatitis is associated with essential mixed cryoglobulinemia?
Hep C
Which two hepatitis viruses can give you a form of vasculitis?
Hep B and Hep C
SE of Digoxin
PSVT, AV node block
Is prostatic fluid acidic or basic?
acidic
What is a marker for prostate gland function?
Acid phosphatase in the seminal fluid
Compare the viscosity of fluid secreted by the prostate versus the seminal vesicles
Seminal vesicles= viscous;
prostate= thin, watery.
What is the role of zinc in sperm? Where does it come from?
role= stablizes nuclear condensation (i.e. sperm chromatin)
source= prostate gland.
Cowpers glands (aka, bulbourethral glands) serve what function?
Aid neutralization of seminal fluid-- w/ thick alkaline mucus.
What does the epididymus add to seminal fluid?
carnitine and acetylcarnitine
What accounts for giving the largest constituent of seminal fluid?
seminal vesicles.
Describe the component of fluid from the seminal vesicles
High in fructose concentration, antigens to prevent female immune response (trophoblast lymphocyte cross-reactive antigen)
Where does spermatogenesis occur?
Seminiferous tubules of testis.
What is the mechanism of colchicine?
Inhibition of MT formation, to prevent leukocyte migration and phagocytosis; thus less inflammation.
The reduviid bug is the vector for what?
Chagas dx
What is the vector for yersinia pestis? what dz does it cause?
Flea, bubonic plague
What is the vector for Rickettsia prowazeki? what dz does it cause?
Louse; epidemic typhus
What is the vector for Arboviruses? what dz does it cause?
Mosquite; West nile, st. louis encephalitis.
Name two major symptoms of Chagas dz
Myocarditis, esophageal achalasia
Deficiency of complement factors C6, C7, C8 expose a patient to what infection?
Neisseria.
Deficiency of complement factor C1q expose a patient to what infection?
SLE-like syndrome
Deficiency of complement factors C1rs, C1s, C4, C2 expose a patient to what infection?
SLE- like and glomerulonephritis
Deficiency of complement factors C3 and C5 expose a patient to what infection?
pyogenic infections
Neutrophil abnormalities will cause what diseases?
Pyogenic infections or granulomatous infections.
T-cell deficiencies will expose you to what organisms?
Opportunistic: Candida, pneumocystis or CMV
UV light induces formation of what?
Thymidine dimers.
Describe xeroderma pigmentosum
AR dz, w/ defective excisional repair for elimination of thymidine dimers formed by UV light.
Gives extreme sens to sunlight and inc predisposition to skin cancer
What are the fever and rash in scarlet fever due to?
Strep pyogenes pyrogenic exotoxin that is phage-encoded
What dz gives "strawberry tongue" and "sandpaper rash"
Scarlet fever
What bugs produce alpha toxin?
S. aureus and C. perfringens; it is a cytolysin
What bugs have Endotoxin?
gram-negs
What is the FIRST Ig produced in an immune response?
IgM (M for mother!)
Are fatty acids gluconeogenic?
NO! BUT.... "Fat" can still make some glucose; since the glycerol backbone is glycogenic: The GLYCEROL backbone gives 80% of glucose in dieting obese pts and 20% pf glucose (behind the amino acid pathways) in truly starving pts.
Describe GNG precursors for dieting fat people vs. starving pts.
FAT: 80% from glycerol backbone of TGs from fat breakdown
STARVING: After glycogen store depletion: 80% from a.a. degradation.

** the other 20% is from the opposite source.
What does purine catabolism produce?
Uric acid! (waste product- it's excreted in urine)
What vessel abnormality will give a beaded appearance of the renal arteries?
Fibromuscular dysplasia.
The principal cells of the cortical collecting duct do what to K?
Secrete it into lumun; the intercalated cells reabsorb potassium.
What is the cause of osteoarthritis?
repititive joint trauma
What benefit does celecoxib have over naproxen? why?
Dec GI irritation; Celecoxib is selective for COX-2 inhibition; thus less GI irritation and renal impairment as opposed to traditional NSAIDS that are non-sel COX-1/COX-2 inhibitors
Potter's synfroms is caused by a failure of what to develop?
Ureteric buds; which form the ureters, renal pelvis, calyces, and collecting tubules.
What do the paramesonephic ducts form?
Uterine tubes, uterus, and upper 1/3 of vag
What does the urogenital sinus form?
Urinary bladder in both sexes.
In males= prostatic urethra, prostate, membranous urethra, bulbourethral glands, penile urethra and littre's glands.
In female- most of urethra, urethral glands, paraurethral glands, vestibule of vagina and greater vestibular glands.
What does the urorectal septum form?
Partitions the cloaca into the urogenital sinus and rectum (and upper anal canal).