• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/117

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

117 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
discontinuous voluntary contraction, multinuclear striated unbranched fibers, actin and myosin overlapping for banding patter, TRIADIC t tubules, troponin and desmin as Z disc intermediate filament
sk mm
continuous involuntary contraction, uninuclear striated branched fibers, actin and myosin overlapping for banding pattern, DYADIC T tubules, interacalated discs, troponin and desmin as a Z disc intermediate filament
cardiac mm
involuntary contraction; uninuclear nontriated fibers, actin and myosin not forming banding pattern; lack of T tubules, gap junctions, and calmodulin
sm mm
what segment of the sm intestine is associated w/ Brunner's glands
duodenum
who is responsible for passing on mito DNA genetic disorders
mom
what part of a neuron receives info
dendrite
what type of collagen is assoc w/ basement membrane
IV
what is the epithelial lining of the prostatic portion of the urethra
transitional epithelium
the distal portion of the penile urethra has stratified epithelium
what cell of the nephron is responsible for renin production and secretion
JG cell
what cell surface modification of ependymal cells and respiratory epithelium has a 9+2 microtubular configuration and mov't as its function
cilia
T or F
the following are functions of hepatocytes: protein production, bile secretion, detoxification, conjugation, and lipid storage
t
what substance found in eosinophils is toxic to parastic worms
major basic protein
after fertilization, what cells of the corpus luteum...
1. secrete progesterone
2. secrete estrogen
1. granulosa cells (form from follicular cells)
2. theca cells (form from theca interna)
what is the largest organ in the body
integument
on what layer of the epidermis does all mitosis occur
malpighian layer (stratum basale and stratum spinosum)
what ribosomal subunit binds first to the mRNA strand
sm subunit (40)
what is the T cell area of the spleen
PALS
what element is needed for the proper alignment of tropocollagen molecules
copper
what type of cell surface projection lies on the lateral surface of cells closest to the apex and acts to seal off the outside environment from the rest of the body
zonula occludens (tight junctions)
what organelle is responsible for ribosome assembly and ribosomal RNA synthesis
nucleolus
what sweat gland type is assoc w/ odor production and hair follicles and is found in the axilla
APocrinE glands (APEs)
Axilla, Areolar, and Anus all begin w/ A. Apes are hairy (assoc w/ hair follicles). They smell poor (odor production) and if confronted by an APE, your Adrenergic nervous system would be firing (innervation)
what papillae send their senses via chora tympani of CN VII
fungiform papillae
t or f
the portal tract of the liver lobule is the first area to be oxygenated in the liver
t
name the chromosome and haploid number
1. spermatogonia (type A)
2. spermatogonia (type B)
3. primary spermatocyte
4. secondary spermatocyte
5. spermatid
1. 46/2n divide meiotically
2. 46/2n divide mitotically
3. 46/4n
4. 23/2n
5. 23/1n
what are the four functions of SER
steroid synthesis
drug detox
triglyceride resynthesis
Ca handling
which Ig is secreted by the plasma cells in the GI tract
IgA
what area of the lymph node is considered the thymic-dependent area
inner cortex (paracortex) contains the T cells, so it is considered the thypic dependent area
what type of chromatin is transcriptionally inactive
heterochromatin (the light stuff)
both submandibular and sublingual glands are innervated by VII and produce mucus and serous secretions. Which one mainly produces serous secretions
submandibular gland
what is the only neuroglial cell of mesodermal origin
microglia
(all others are neuroectoderm)
where is tropocollagen aggregated to form a collagen fibril
outside the cell
what are the four posttranslational modifications done by Golgi apparatus
1. phosph mannose (lysosomes)
2. remove mannose
3. form glycosylate proteins
4. phosphoryate sulfate aa's
what is the epithelial cell lining the nasopharynx
stratified sq nonkeratinized has cilia that beat toward the oropharynx
what are the three epidermal derivates
nail
hair
sweat glands
what are the long microvilli in the inner ear and male reproductive tract called
stereocilia
t or f
the central vein of the liver lobule is the first area affected during hypoxia
t
blood flows from the portal tracts (distal) to the central vein (proximal)
what cell of the male repro system produces testosterone
leydic cells (from LH)
myelin is produced by which cells in the PNS?
in the CNS?
Schwann cells
oligodendrocytes
what cell type of epidermis functions as antigen-presenting cell
langerhans (in stratum spinosum)
what cell type is found in the peripheral white pulp of the spleen
B cells
what area of the female repro tract is lined by stratified sq epi rich in glycogen
vagina
what encapsulated lymphoid organ is characterized by presence of Hassall's corpuscles, and absence of germinal centers an dB cells
thymus
what cell transports IgA, is secreted by plasma cells, and is in Peyer's patches to the GI lumen
M-cells
what are the cells of the parathyroid gland that produce PTH
chief cells
what skin type on the palms and soles is characterized by the absence of hair follicles and presence of stratum lucidum
thick-skin
what is the name of the hydrophilic pores that allow the diret passage of ions and particles between two adjacent cells
gap junctions
what type of lysosome is formed when lysosome fuses with a substrate for breakdown
secondary lysosome (active)
what cell membrane structure increases the surface area of a cell and has actin randomly assorted within its structure
microvillus
what are the four components of the basement membrane
1. laminin
2. heparan sulfate
3. fibronectin
4. type IV collagen
what organelle synthesizes proteins that are intended to stay within the cell
free polysomes- membrane associated polysomes are the site of protein synthesis destined to leave the cell
what cell type of the body or fundus of the stomach secretes IF and HCl
parietal cells
what cell type of the body or fundus of the stomach secretes pepsinogen
cief cells
what hormone, produced by the granulosa cell, stimulates the endometrium to enter the proliferative phase
estrogen (1-14)
what cells of the nephron function as sodium conc sensors of the tubular fluid
macula densa
what type of chromatin is transcriptionally active
euchromatin (dark stuff)
what cells of the thyroid gland secrete calcitonin
parafollicular cells
t or f
the nucleus is the site of transcription
true
how many days after LH surge is ovulation
one day
in what layer of ht epidermis is melanin transferred from melanocytes to keratinocytes
stratum spinosum
what cells of the epidermis, derived from the neural crest, act as mechanoreceptors
merkel cells (merkel's tactile cells)
what substance do the JG cells of the kidney secrete in response to low blood pressure
renin
what is the rule of one-third regarding mm type of the esophagus
upper third - sk mm
middle third- mixed
lower third - sm mm
what papillae are responsible for sweet taste
circumvellate papillae
what area of the lymph node contains germinal centers
outer cortex
t or f
the gallbladder functions to produce bile
false- it concentrates bile via active sodium transport, water follows
t or f
depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane excites the neuron
t
in the alveoli, what cell type is...
1. for gas exchange
2. responsible for producing surfactant
3. part of mononuclear phagocytic system
1. type I pneumocytes
2. type II pneumocytes
3. alveolar macrophages (dust cells)
which trophoblast layer of the placenta remains until the end of pregnancy
syncytiotrophoblast
what is the first epidermal layer without organelles and nuclei
stratum lucidum
what area of the sm intestine is characterized by Peyer's patches
ileum
what lymphoid organ has the following characteristics: outer and inner cortical areas, encapsulationm, germinal centers, and high endothelial venules
lymph nodes
what area of the nephron is sensitive to the effects of ADH
collecting ducts, which make them readily permeable to water reabsorption
what is the name of RER in neurons
nissle substance
what hormone causes milk letdown
oxytocin
what are the three reasons for the effectiveness of the bbb
tight junctions
capillaries w/o fenestrations
very selective pinocytosis
what cell type of the epidermis originates from the neural crest
melanocytes
if no fertilization occurs, how many days after ovulation does the corpus luteum begin to degenerate
12 days
what area of the spleen consists of splenic cords of Billroth and phagocytoses RBCS
red pulp
(Red pulp and RBCs)
what is the name of the protein coat that surrounds the nuclear envelope
vimentin
what papillae are touch receptors on the tongue and send their sensations via CN V3
filiform papillae
what is the most superficial layer of the epidermis
statum corneum
what syndrome is characterized by dynein arm abnormality resulting in chronic sinusitis, recurrent pulmonary infections, and infertility
Kartagener's syndrome
what are the functions of the zonula occludens and zonula adherens
provide attachment between contjuous cells and to maintain a semipermeable barrier
what is the name of the SER of striated mm
sarcoplasmic reticulum
where do sperm go for maturation
ductus epididymis- lined w/ pseudostratified epithelium w/ stereocilia
when is the first arrested stage of development in the femal repro cycle
prophase of meiosis I (between 12th and 22nd week in utero)
what is the longest and most convoluted segment of the nephron
PCT
what cells of the epidermis carry the pigment melanin
keratinocytes- the most numerous cells in the epidermis, carry melanin and produce keratin
what segment of the GI tract lacks villi, has crypts, and actively transports sodium out of its lumen
large intestine, water is passively removed
what two areas of the skin do not contain sebacceous glands
palms and soles of feet
which of the foloowing is not part of the conduncting portion of the respiratory system: trachea, bronchi, alveoli, or larynx
alveoli- they are part of the respiratory portion
where are the enzymes for the ETC and oxidative phosphorylation found
inner membrane of the mito (cristae)
what lymphoid organ is characterized by germinal centers, plasma cells that secrete IgA, and no encapsulation
Peyer's patch
what generate anterograde transport of information in a neuron
kinesins
dynein generates retrograde transportation of info
what is the only glycosaminoglycan (GAG) that binds to the linker portion of the proteoglycan
hyaluronic acid
what cell in bone is a part of the mononuclear phagocytic system
osteoclasts
what three factors do Sertoli cells produce for male developoment
mullerian-inhibiting factor
andrgen binding protein
inhibin
what epidermal layer's function is to release lipids to act as a sealant
stratum granulosum
what does the tunica intima of arteries have that veins do not
internal elastic lamina
do the duct or the acini cells of the pancrease secrete HCO3, electrolytes, and water
duct cells
what cell of the duodenum contains high conc of lysozymes and has phagocytic activity
paneth cells
what maintains the osmotic gradient that is critical to the concentrating ability of the kidney
vena recta
are the JG cells of the nephron a part of the afferent or efferent arteriole
afferent
what cell of the duodenum secretes CCK
EnteroEndocrine (EE) cells, they also secrete secretin
what are the proteoglycans of cartilage and bone
chondroitin sulfate and keratan sulfate
what is the term for the first 3 to 5 days of femal reproductive cycle
menses
what is the second arrested stage of development in the female reproductive cycle
metaphase of meiosis II (in the oocyte of the graafian follicle)
what ribosomal subunit sizes do eukaryotic cells have
60S and 40S. the large subunits are made in the nucleolus and the small subunits are made in the nucleus
what term describes how an action potential is propagated along an axon
saltatory conduction
what phase of the female repro cylce is 14 days long
secretory phase (progesterone dependent and 14 days long)
aka luteal phase
a single mRNA strand translated by a ribosome is termed what
polysome. Ribosomes fead from the 5' to 3' end --> synthesizing in 3' to 5'
what cell is under control of FSH and testosterone; secretes inhibin, MIF, and androgen binding protein; and phagocytizes the excess cytoplasm of the spermatid
sertoli cell
what histone binds two nucleosomes together
H1
what is the maor inorganic component of bone
hydroxyapatite
what cells of the adrenal gland are neural crest derivatives
chromaffin cells
where does veta-oxidation of very long chain fatty acids begin
peroxisome until it is 10 C long; the rest is completed in the mito
what organelles make ATP, have their own dsDNA, and can synthesize protein
mito