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484 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Pollution can result when which of the
following types of agents is/are introduced
into the air, water, or soil?
1. Biological
2. Chemical
3. Physical
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Which of the following operations causes
the most pollution?
1. Industrial
2. Municipal
3. Transportation
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Which of the following materials is the
primary municipal pollutant?
1. Raw or inadequately treated sewage
2. Radioactive waste
3. Petroleum products
4. Acids
1. Raw or inadequately treated sewage
Which of the following modes of
transportation creates most air pollutants?
1. Trains
2. Waterborne vessels
3. Motor vehicles
4. Aircraft
3. Motor vehicles
Which, if any, of the following effects of
pollution is the most serious?
1. Psychological
2. Biological
3. Physical
4. None of the above
2. Biological
Steel erodes faster than normal when exposed
to which of the following air pollutants?
1. Pesticides
2. Herbicides
3. Zinc oxides
4. Sulfur oxides
4. Sulfur oxides
Most pesticides fall into which of the
following categories?
1. Selective
2. Nonselective
3. Preselective
4. Control selective
2. Nonselective
What is the primary pollution concern of Navy
personnel?
1. Noise pollution
2. Shore command wastes
3. Shipboard wastes
3. Shipboard wastes
Which of the following terms identifies
abatement?
1. Maintaining
2. Raising
3. Lowering
4. Containing
3. Lowering
Under the Clean Air Act, what government
body has the primary responsibility for
assuring air quality?
1. Federal government
2. Each state
3. Local municipalities
4. Department of Transportation
2. Each state
Virtually all Navy ships have some type of
sanitation device installed. Which of the
following types of systems retains sewage on
board for discharge ashore or in waters where
discharging is allowed?
1. Direct discharge
2. Positive flow
3. Marine sanitation
4. Collection, holding, and transfer
4. Collection, holding, and transfer
When operating sanitation devices in foreign
waters, Navy ships comply with which of the
following requirements?
1. Status of Forces Agreement
2. Coast Guard instructions
3. NAVFAC guidelines
4. All of the above
1. Status of Forces Agreement
Vessels may not discharge unpulped trash
within what minimum distance from the
U.S. coastline?
1. 20 nm
2. 25 nm
3. 30 nm
4. 35 nm
2. 25 nm
Submarines may discharge negatively buoyant
compacted trash not less than 12 nm from the
U.S. coastline only if the water depth is greater
than how many fathoms?
1. 1,000
2. 500
3. 100
4. 50
1. 1,000
The Navy’s land management program
involves which of the following efforts?
1. Migratory bird management
2. Production and sale of forest products
3. Soil and water conservation
4. Use of off-road vehicles
3. Soil and water conservation
From what part of the world does the U.S.
import most of its crude oil?
1. Southeast Asia
2. Central Europe
3. South America
4. Middle East
4. Middle East
What program provides information and
support for Navy personnel who are guests
in foreign lands?
1. Navy Sponsor Program
2. Overseas Duty Support Program
3. Navy Assistance Program
4. Navy Relocation Program
2. Overseas Duty Support Program
The Military Cash Awards Program
(MILCAP) provides monetary recognition
of up to what maximum amount?
1. $ 5,000
2. $10,000
3. $20,000
4. $25,000
4. $25,000
The Navy’s Health and Physical Readiness
Program promotes health and fitness at the
command level. As part of this program, naval
personnel are required to undergo fitness
testing at what interval?
1. Biennially
2. Annually
3. Semiannually
4. Quarterly
3. Semiannually
“Informing the public and members of the
naval service about Navy operations and
programs” is the mission of
1. BUPERS
2. CNO
3. PAO
4. SECNAV
3. PAO
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 21 THROUGH 23,
SELECT THE TERM USED TO DEFINE THE
QUESTION.
Extravagant, careless, or needless expenditure
of government resources.
1. Fraud
2. Waste
3. Abuse
4. Mismanagement
2. Waste
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 21 THROUGH 23,
SELECT THE TERM USED TO DEFINE THE
QUESTION.
Intentional misleading or deceitful conduct
that deprives the government of its resources
or rights.
1. Fraud
2. Waste
3. Abuse
4. Mismanagement
1. Fraud
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 21 THROUGH 23,
SELECT THE TERM USED TO DEFINE THE
QUESTION.
Intentional wrongful or improper use of
government resources.
1. Fraud
2. Waste
3. Abuse
4. Mismanagement
3. Abuse
You can report fraud, waste, abuse, and
mismanagement to which of the following
offices?
1. The Navy hotline
2. The chain of command
3. The Naval Criminal Investigative Service
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
To maintain public confidence in its integrity,
all naval personnel must comply with the
Standards of Conduct and Professional Ethics.
1. True
2. False
1. True
If you disclose information about a person to
unauthorized personnel, you could be fined up
to what maximum amount?
1. $5,000
2. $3,000
3. $2,000
4. $1,000
1. $5,000
The guidance and policy for making sure
that equal opportunity works rests with
what office?
1. Command master chief
2. Commanding officer
3. Chief of Naval Operations
4. Secretary of the Navy
3. Chief of Naval Operations
Which of the following persons is responsible
for making equal opportunity a reality with a
command?
1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. Operations officer
4. Command master chie
1. Commanding officer
Your performance evaluation does not reflect
your attitude toward and your conduct in
support of the Navy’s equal opportunity
program.
1. True
2. False
2. False
If a Sailor takes part in insensitive practices,
he/she receives counseling on treating people
equally. If counseling isn’t effective, what
action, if any, may take place?
1. Administrative action only
2. Disciplinary action only
3. Administrative or disciplinary action
4. None
3. Administrative or disciplinary action
On what basis should supervisors assign
duties such as food service and compartment
cleaning?
1. Skills and abilities
2. Seniority
3. A fair, rotational basis
4. Time in service
3. A fair, rotational basis
The Department of the Navy sets the
requirements for advancement for paygrades
E-1 through E-9. Which of the following is
the determining factor in advancement?
1. A vacancy
2. Having a high multiple
3. Passing the advancement-in-rate exam
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Navy personnel are prohibited from taking
part in a civil rights demonstration under
which of the following circumstances?
1. When the demonstration occurs during
duty hours
2. While they are in uniform
3. When the demonstration occurs
on a military reservation
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
If you cannot resolve a complaint among the
personnel involved, you can attach a written
complaint to a special request chit and forward
it through the chain of command. You must do
this within 5 days?
1. True
2. False
2. False
Which of the following personnel can be
victims of sexual harassment?
1. Men only
2. Women only
3. Both 1 and 2 above
3. Both 1 and 2 above
Which of the following phrases describes
sexual harassment?
1. Unwelcome sexual advances
2. Requests for sexual favors
3. Verbal or physical conduct that is sexual
in nature
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
Someone in a command position makes
sexual advances towards you, making it
impossible to do your job. You are being
sexually harassed.
1. True
2. False
1. True
Which of the following is a criteria for a
person’s behavior to be considered sexual
harassment?
1. Unwelcome
2. Sexual in nature
3. Occur or impact your work
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Green
Figure A
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 39 AND 40,
REFER TO FIGURE A AND SELECT THE ZONE
USED TO DESCRIBE THE QUESTION.
Sexually explicit pictures.
1. A
2. C
3. B
1. A
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Green
Figure A
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 39 AND 40,
REFER TO FIGURE A AND SELECT THE ZONE
USED TO DESCRIBE THE QUESTION.
Suggestive posters, calendars, and off-color
jokes.
1. A
2. C
3. B
3. B
What person has the responsibility of
appointing the command ombudsman?
1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. Division officer
4. Command master chief
1. Commanding officer
What person determines the content and
priorities of the command ombudsman
program?
1. Commanding officer
2. Executive officer
3. Division officer
4. Command master chief
1. Commanding officer
Which of the following statements is a
purpose of the Reenlistment Quality Control
Program?
1. To provide a personnel management
program to control rating manning
2. To issue reenlistment criteria
3. To establish standardized professional
growth points
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
All first-term Sailors in paygrades E-1 through
E-6 requesting reenlistment must be approved
for reenlistment through what program?
1. CREO
2. ENCORE
3. HYT
4. EEO
1. CREO
What person directs and supervises the Navy’s
voting program?
1. Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff
2. Chief of Naval Operations
3. Chief of Naval Personnel
4. Chief of Naval Information
3. Chief of Naval Personnel
Which of the following are sources that set
forth the basic disciplinary laws for the U.S.
Navy?
1. U.S. Navy Regulations
2. Standard Organization and Regulations
of the U.S. Navy
3. Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
Which of the following characteristics are
traits of a good Sailor?
1. Puts the good of the ship and the Navy
above personal likes and dislikes
2. Obeys the rules of military courtesy
and etiquette
3. Demonstrates loyalty, self-control,
honesty, and truthfulness
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
In what year was the Code of Conduct first
prescribed?
1. 1965
2. 1955
3. 1945
4. 1935
2. 1955
The Code of Conduct was adopted to provide
guidance for service personnel in which of the
following circumstances?
1. When stationed on foreign soil
2. When traveling at home and abroad
3. When facing the enemy as prisoners of war
4. All of the above
3. When facing the enemy as prisoners of war
In what year was Executive Order 12633
issued amending the Code of Conduct to
use neutral-gender language?
1. 1987
2. 1988
3. 1989
4. 1990
2. 1988
How many articles make up the Code of
Conduct?
1. Two
2. Four
3. Six
4. Eight
3. Six
When, if ever, may you voluntarily surrender
to the enemy?
1. If alone and completely isolated from
friendly troops
2. If no longer able to inflict casualties on
the enemy
3. If able to detain the enemy and let others
escape capture
4. Never
4. Never
Who may be assigned shore patrol duties?
1. Officers only
2. Petty officers only
3. Officers and petty officers
4. All Navy personnel
3. Officers and petty officers
In areas where different armed services are
located, the military police from each service
may be combined to form one unit. What term
identifies this unit?
1. Armed Forces Police Department
2. Armed Forces Police Detachment
3. Armed Forces Police Service
4. Armed Forces Police Group
2. Armed Forces Police Detachment
Aboard ship, the master-at-arms (MAA)
force is headed by the chief master-at-arms
(CMAA). The CMAA works directly for
which of the following officers?
1. Weapons officer
2. Security officer
3. Executive officer
4. Administrative officer
3. Executive officer
Discipline training develops which of the
following personal traits?
1. Character
2. Efficiency
3. Self-control
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Discipline is important to the Navy for which
of the following reasons?
1. To instill fear of punishment
2. To decrease command responsibility
3. To provide punishment for wrongdoers
4. To enable personnel to function as a unit
with a high degree of efficiency
4. To enable personnel to function as a unit
with a high degree of efficiency
Punishment is administered in the Navy for
which of the following reasons?
1. To serve as an object lesson to the
wrongdoer and others
2. To pacify those who have suffered a wrong
3. To correct a wrong
4. To avenge a wrong
1. To serve as an object lesson to the
wrongdoer and others
What chapter of the United States Navy
Regulations describes the rights and
responsibilities of all Navy members?
1. 12
2. 11
3. 10
4. 9
2. 11
What person is responsible for making sure
that the Navy Regs conforms to the current
needs of the Department of the Navy?
1. The Secretary of the Navy
2. The Judge Advocate General
3. The Chief of Naval Operations
4. The Commandant of the Marine Corps
1. The Secretary of the Navy
Failure to obey any regulation subjects the
offender to charges under what UCMJ article?
1. 91
2. 92
3. 93
4. 94
2. 92
What article of the Navy Regs lists the
publications that must be made available
upon request by any active-duty person?
1. 1020
2. 1010
3. 0917
4. 0818
4. 0818
What article of the Navy Regs gives officers
the authority necessary to perform their
duties?
1. 1021
2. 1023
3. 1025
4. 1033
1. 1021
Navy Regs, article 1033, Authority in a Boat,
provides which of the following officers the
authority and responsibility over all persons
embarked?
1. The senior line officer eligible for
command at sea
2. The junior line officer eligible for
command at sea
3. The senior staff officer
4. The junior staff officer
1. The senior line officer eligible for
command at sea
Which of the following Navy Regulations
articles outlines the authority of a sentry?
1. 1037
2. 1038
3. 1052
4. 1053
2. 1038
You may not be ordered to active duty without
the permission of which of the following
persons?
1. Commandant of the Marine Corps
2. Commandant of the Coast Guard
3. Chief of Naval Operations
4. Chief of Naval Personnel
3. Chief of Naval Operations
Navy Regulations, article 1104, Treatment and
Release of Prisoners, prohibits cruel and/or
unusual treatment. According to this article,
prisoners must be checked on at what
minimum interval?
1. 10 hours
2. 8 hours
3. 6 hours
4. 4 hours
4. 4 hours
During a Saturday duty day, one of your
shipmates asks you to change watches with
him/her. You agree but fail to get permission
from proper authority. Under what article of
Navy Regs could you be charged?
1. 1138
2. 1134
3. 1133
4. 1129
2. 1134
Sexual harassment is offensive and illegal.
Under what article of Navy Regs may a person
be charged with sexual harassment?
1. 1166
2. 1164
3. 1162
4. 1160
1. 1166
A ship maintains a watch for which of the
following reasons?
1. Communications
2. Security
3. Safety
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
A ship’s plan for action is contained in what
type of bill?
1. Battle bill
2. Admin bill
3. Organization bill
4. Watch, quarter, and station bill
1. Battle bill
Qualified personnel are assigned to stations
by which of the following persons?
1. Division officer and division chief
2. Leading petty officer
3. Leading chief petty officer
4. Executive officer
1. Division officer and division chief
A. CONDITION I
B. CONDITION II
C. CONDITION III
Figure A
INANSWERINGQUESTIONS4AND5, REFER
TO FIGUREAAND SELECT THE CONDITION
USED TO DEFINE THE QUESTION.
4. General quarters—all battle stations are
manned.
1. A
2. B
3. C
1. A
A. CONDITION I
B. CONDITION II
C. CONDITION III
Figure A
Normal wartime cruising watch—4 hours on,
8 hours off.
1. A
2. B
3. C
3. C
If you are scheduled to stand the second
dog watch, you should report at which of
the following times?
1. 1745
2. 1750
3. 1755
4. 1800
1. 1745
If you are told to report to your duty station
at 0745 (24-hour clock), you should arrive
at what time?
1. 6:45 am
2. 7:45 am
3. 6:45 pm
4. 7:45 pm
2. 7:45 am
What watch are you standing between
2000 and 2400 hours?
1. Midwatch
2. Forenoon watch
3. First dog watch
4. Evening watch
4. Evening watch
Watches are split into port and starboard
for what reason?
1. For convenience
2. For security
3. To rotate personnel
4. To allow extra liberty
2. For security
What type of watch do most Sailors stand?
1. Phone
2. Security
3. Admin
4. Division
2. Security
Which of the following is a type of a security
watch?
1. Sentry duty
2. Barracks watch
3. Fire watch
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
Which of the following is a key assignment
for officers in the watch organization?
1. CDO
2. OOD
3. JOOD
4. Each of the above
1. CDO
Which of the following is a duty of the
QMOW?
1. To maintain the ship’s deck log
2. To make sure all bells are correctly
answered
3. To stand watch in the bridge and deliver
messages
4. To line up and operate the steering engines
1. To maintain the ship’s deck log
What person makes sure all deck watch
stations are manned with qualified personnel
and all watch standers from previous watches
are relieved?
1. BMOW
2. QMOW
3. JOOW
4. JOOD
1. BMOW
Where is the fog lookout watch usually stood?
1. Helm
2. Aftermast
3. In the bow where approaching ships
can be heard
4. CIC
3. In the bow where approaching ships
can be heard
For what reason does the fog lookout watch
normally consist of two Sailors?
1. In case there is a man overboard
2. To allow the lookout to work without
having his/her hearing impaired by
wearing sound-powered phones
3. The two-man security rule
4. To verify visual and sound contact
2. To allow the lookout to work without
having his/her hearing impaired by
wearing sound-powered phones
What type of watch is set when positive
steering control must be maintained?
1. Helmsman
2. Lee helmsman
3. After steering
4. QMOW
4. QMOW
What is the purpose of the security watch?
1. To minimize damage to equipment
2. To control contact with the CIC
3. To increase the physical security
of the ship
3. To increase the physical security
of the ship
Which of the following is a duty of security
watches and patrols?
1. To be alert for fire hazards
2. To check the security of weapons
magazines
3. To inspect damage control closures
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
You are a member of a security patrol, and
you detect a fire hazard that affects the safety
of the ship. What action should you take?
1. Note it on the security log
2. Inform your LCPO
3. Investigate it
4. Report it to the OOD immediately
4. Report it to the OOD immediately
What is the purpose of a shipboard fire watch?
1. To immediately extinguish fires caused
by welding or burning operations
2. To make sure the welder strikes the
welding surface
3. To relay messages from the work site
4. To make sure there is a controlled burn
of material at the work site
1. To immediately extinguish fires caused
by welding or burning operations
When standing a barracks security watch, you
have which of the following responsibilities?
1. Knowing and carrying out provisions
of the fire bill
2. Knowing and carrying out provisions
of the emergency bill
3. Knowing barracks regulations
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
When standing a barracks security watch,
which of the following is the first action to
take if there is a fire?
1. Report the fire
2. Spread the alarm
3. Close doors and windows
4. Fight the fire, if possible, if you have
the proper equipment
1. Report the fire
Sentries are governed by what two types
of orders?
1. Understood and general
2. Special and verbal
3. General and special
4. General and verbal
3. General and special
You are required to know the general orders of
a sentry. How many general orders are there?
1. 11
2. 14
3. 16
4. 18
1. 11
When aboard ship, you should refer to what
publication for the procedures used to relieve
an armed watch?
1. SOP
2. FOD
3. Watch bill
4. Battle bill
1. SOP
Which of the following is a precaution to follow
when standing an armed watch with a pistol?
1. When relieved, unload the pistol
in a safe area
2. Don’t surrender the pistol to an
unauthorized person
3. Keep the pistol (which is loaded with
one round in the chamber) in its holster
unless you have to use it
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
Why is a lookout posted?
1. To prevent blind spots caused by metal
objects
2. To search for objects radar can’t detect
3. To detect objects low in the water
4. To search for air attacks
2. To search for objects radar can’t detect
The peacetime lookout organization has how
many Sailors in each watch station?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
Which of the following is/are types of bearings?
1. Relative only
2. True only
3. Magnetic only
4. Relative, true, and magnetic
4. Relative, true, and magnetic
Which of the following is Navy phraseology
for reporting a bearing of 038º?
1. O, three, eight
2. O, three, ate
3. Zero, tree, ate
4. Zero, tree, eight
3. Zero, tree, ate
Lookouts report what type of bearing?
1. Magnetic
2. Relative
3. True
2. Relative
Which of the following statements describes
a target angle?
1. The magnetic north pole is used as
the reference point
2. True north is used as the reference point
3. An object in the sky
4. The relative bearing of your ship from
another ship
4. The relative bearing of your ship from
another ship
A position angle can never be more than
what number of degrees?
1. 0º
2. 45º
3. 90º
4. 180º
3. 90º
How are position angles reported?
1. Three digits, spoken digit by digit
2. Two digits, spoken digit by digit
3. Three digits, spoken as a whole
4. Two digits, spoken as a whole
4. Two digits, spoken as a whole
How should you report objects that are
low in the water?
1. By feet above the surface
2. By the object’s approximate distance
3. In feet from the ship
4. From the object to the horizon
2. By the object’s approximate distance
Ranges are reported in what unit of
measurement?
1. Feet
2. Yards
3. Rods
4. Miles
2. Yards
When using binoculars, what adjustments
should you make?
1. One for focus
2. Two for focus and one for proper
distance between the lenses
3. One for proper distance between
the lenses
4. Two for eyepiece and lens
2. Two for focus and one for proper
distance between the lenses
When should you use binoculars?
1. In foggy and rainy conditions
2. When identifying objects at night
3. When scanning sectors in the daytime
4. Both 2 and 3 above
2. When identifying objects at night
How long does it take for you to reach your
best night vision?
1. 10 minutes
2. 15 minutes
3. 25 minutes
4. 30 minutes
4. 30 minutes
What is meant by the term dark adaptation?
1. The improvement of vision in dim light
2. The inability to see in bright light
3. The red light requirement
4. Shadows that can’t be seen clearly
1. The improvement of vision in dim light
When should you use “off-center vision”?
1. Below decks
2. When wearing glasses
3. When it’s dark
4. In broad daylight
3. When it’s dark
What information is contained in an initial
report?
1. The object only
2. The object’s bearing from the ship only
3. The object and its bearing from the ship
4. What the object might be
3. The object and its bearing from the ship
To report serial number 23NCI16 over the
sound-powered telephone circuit, you would
report the serial number in what way?
1. Too, three, november, charlie, india,
wun, six
2. Too, tree, november, charlie, india,
wun, six
3. Two, tree, november, charlie, india,
wun, six
4. Two, tree, november, charlie, india,
wun, sics
2. Too, tree, november, charlie, india,
wun, six
It’s important for you to remember that the
mouthpiece and earpiece of sound-powered
telephones are interchangeable for which of
the following reasons?
1. Two people can talk at once
2. They can be interchanged if a piece breaks
3. Undesirable noises can be fed into the
system
4. Both 2 and 3 above
2. They can be interchanged if a piece breaks
The headset of sound-powered telephones is
picked up as a unit for which of the following
reasons?
1. To make sure you have all the parts
2. To avoid breaking them
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4 In case the earpiece is missing
3. Both 1 and 2 above
When using the mouthpiece of a
sound-powered phone set to report contacts,
how far from your mouth should you position
the mouthpiece?
1. 1/2 to 1 inch
2. 1 to 2 inches
3. 2 to 3 inches
4. 3 to 4 inches
1. 1/2 to 1 inch
Why should you unplug a phone’s headset
when it’s not in use?
1. To keep the user costs down
2. Earpieces will pick up noise and transmit
it over the circuit
3. Carbon will build up at the connectors
4. Calls from other circuits won’t go through
2. Earpieces will pick up noise and transmit
it over the circuit
Aboard ship, there are how many categories
of shipboard sound-powered phone circuits?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
What category of shipboard telephone circuits
is designed to maintain vital communications
and are preceded by the letter X?
1. Primary system
2. Auxiliary system
3. Supplementary system
4. Command circuit
2. Auxiliary system
Which of the following sound-powered phone
circuits is used as the CO’s battle circuit?
1. JA
2. JC
3. JL
4. 1JV
1. JA
To keep the meaning of a message intact when
standing duty as a telephone talker, what
action should you take?
1. Speak loudly
2. Repeat the message word for word
3. Paraphrase what you hear
4. Speak rapidly to transmit the message
quickly
2. Repeat the message word for word
Which of the following statements is a rule for
circuit discipline?
1. Transmit only official messages
2. Keep the button in the OFF position when
not transmitting
3. Use only standard words and phrases
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Which of the following elements is included
when taking a message?
1. Name of caller
2. Message
3. Time and date
4. Each of the above
2. Message
The IVCS has which of the following
components?
1. Terminals
2. Accessories
3. ICSCs
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Within the IVCS, what is the purpose of the
ICSCs?
1. To perform switching actions
2. To keep lines clear
3. To give multi-access to lines
4. To ensure automatic cutoff for
security purposes
1. To perform switching actions
Which of the following shipboard announcing
systems is called the general announcing
system?
1. 1MC
2. 2MC
3. 3MC
4. 4MC
1. 1MC
Which of the following shipboard announcing
systems is used for intership communications?
1. 5MC
2. 6MC
3. 7MC
4. 8MC
2. 6MC
Which of the following shipboard announcing
systems is used for hangar deck damage
control?
1. 39MC
2. 51MC
3. 53MC
4. 58MC
4. 58MC
Which of the following persons is authorized
to pass calls over the 1MC?
1. OOD
2. XO
3. CO
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
What is the purpose of the 20MC announcing
system?
1. Radio room announcing system
2. Flag officer’s command announcing
system
3. Combat information announcing system
4. Captain’s command announcing system
3. Combat information announcing system
Which of the following types of flags and
pennants is/are used by the Navy?
1. Substitute flags
2. Numeral pennants
3. International alphabet flags
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Aboard ship, a man overboard is indicated
by what emergency/warning flag?
1. Code Alfa
2. Oscar
3. November Charlie
4. Bravo
2. Oscar
What administrative flag is used to recall
all personnel to the ship?
1. Hotel
2. Juliett
3. Romeo
4. Papa
4. Papa
What administrative flag is flown in port to
indicate the ship has ready duty?
1. Hotel
2. India
3. Romeo
4. Quebec
3. Romeo
When under way, the national ensign is
normally flown from what location?
1. The gaff
2. The aftermast
3. The flagstaff
4. The jackstaff
1. The gaff
Which of the following statements defines
the term “colors”?
1. Colors give recognition of codes
2. Colors consist of our national ensign
along with the union jack
3. Colors are lights on the flagstaff
4. Colors are the flags of foreign ships
2. Colors consist of our national ensign
along with the union jack
When a naval ship is in port or at anchor, the
union jack is flown from what location?
1. The gaff
2. The jackstaff
3. The aftermast
4. The flagstaff
2. The jackstaff
The U.S. Navy flag is flown in which of the
following situations?
1. At official ceremonies or official public
gatherings when the Navy is officially a
participant
2 In parades
3. In official Navy occasions
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
Which of the following flags are half-masted
at the death of the CO?
1. National ensign
2. Union jack
3. Commission pennant
4. Each of the above
3. Commission pennant
On small ships, personnel from what watch
are responsible for hoisting and hauling down
absentee pennants?
1. Security watch
2. Quarterdeck watch
3. Roving watch
4. DC central watch
2. Quarterdeck watch
On large ships, what person is responsible for
making sure that special flags or pennants are
displayed to indicate changing events aboard
ship?
1. Boatswain’s mate
2. Quarterdeck watch
3. Duty signalman
4. Topside watch
3. Duty signalman
Where is a list of special flags and pennants
normally posted as a ready reference for watch
standers?
1. Combat information center (CIC)
2. After deck
3. Quarterdeck area
4. Half deck
3. Quarterdeck area
An officer in command entitled to a personal
flag is embarked in a boat on an official
mission. Where should the pennant be flown?
1. Amid ship
2. In the bow
3. In the stern
4. Yardarm, port
2. In the bow
What date commemorates the birthday
of the United States Navy?
1. 5 Sep 1774
2. 13 Oct 1775
3. 4 Jul 1776
4. 14 Feb 1778
2. 13 Oct 1775
The Second Continental Congress approved
the purchase of how many vessels?
1. Eight
2. Six
3. Four
4. Two
4. Two
Which of the following were naval vessels
in the early 19th century?
1. Frigates
2. Sloops of war
3. Ships of the line
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
What category of ship carried the largest
number of guns?
1. Ships of the line
2. Sloops of war
3. Schooners
4. Frigates
1. Ships of the line
What type of ships did privateers typically sail?
1. Ships of the line
2. Sloops of war
3. Schooners
4. Frigates
3. Schooners
What ship was the first warfare submarine?
1. Turtle
2. Hornet
3. Alfred
4. Wasp
1. Turtle
Which of the following ships has the
distinction of being the U.S. Navy’s first
flagship?
1. Providence
2. Hornet
3. Alfred
4. Wasp
3. Alfred
What country was the first to recognize
the “Stars and Stripes”?
1. Germany
2. France
3. Spain
4. Portugal
2. France
John Paul Jones is often referred to as the
“father of our highest naval traditions”
because of the example he set as an officer
during the Revolutionary War. He is also
famous because of which of the following
accomplishments?
1. His appointment as the first U.S. Navy
admiral
2. His selection as the first commander in
chief
3. His victory over the HMS Serapis
4. His capture of the HMS Nancy
3. His victory over the HMS Serapis
At various times during the Revolutionary
War, the U.S. Navy had 56 vessels. What was
the peak number of vessels that were operating
at any one time?
1. 45
2. 32
3. 27
4. 15
3. 27
Approximately how many ships did the
British loose to privateers?
1. 1,000
2. 1,500
3. 2,000
4. 2,500
3. 2,000
What is the oldest U.S. Navy ship still
in commission?
1. Lexington
2. Constitution
3. Constellation
4. Bonhomme Richard
3. Constellation
Who was president when the U.S. Navy
Department was established?
1. George Washington
2. Thomas Jefferson
3. James Madison
4. John Adams
4. John Adams
When did the expression “Millions for defense,
but not one cent for tribute” originate?
1. During the Revolutionary War
2. During the “Quasi” War
3. During the War of 1812
4. During the Barbary States War
2. During the “Quasi” War
Who led the naval forces into Tripoli Harbor
and destroyed the captured US frigate USS
Philadelphia?
1. Stephen Decatur
2. James Lawrence
3. Thomas Truxtun
4. Edward Preple
1. Stephen Decatur
The War of 1812 was caused, in part, by the
efforts to accomplish which of the following
goals?
1. Establishing a naval base in the
Mediterranean
2. Paying ransom payments to the Barbary
States
3. Stopping forced service of American
seamen in the British navy
4. Forcing France to establish trade relations
with the United States
3. Stopping forced service of American
seamen in the British navy
During the War of 1812, what ship earned
the nickname “Old Ironsides”?
1. Chesapeake
2. Constitution
3. Constellation
4. Enterprise
2. Constitution
On which of the following Great Lakes did
Captain Oliver Hazard Perry defeat a British
squadron, cutting British supply lines?
1. Lake Superior
2. Lake Michigan
3. Lake Huron
4. Lake Erie
4. Lake Erie
What ship was one of the first ships-of-the line?
1. Constitution
2. Enterprise
3. Philadelphia
4. North Carolina
4. North Carolina
The first half of the 19th century saw a
development that was to change navies all
over the world. What was that development?
1. Task forces
2. Steam power
3. Steel hulls
4. Practical submarines
2. Steam power
In 1843, what invention incorporated in the
USS Princeton paved the way for progress in
the development of propulsion systems?
1. The screw propeller
2. The diesel engine
3. The coal-fired boiler
4. The stern paddle wheel
1. The screw propeller
In 1854, Commodore Perry signed a treaty
that opened up what market to American
trade?
1. China
2. Japan
3. Russia
4. India
2. Japan
Although neither side could claim victory, the
battle between the USS Monitor and the
Virginia (Merrimack) was important for which
of the following reasons?
1. Steam engines were used in battle for the
first time
2. The Dahlgren gun was used
3. The battle began the era of the ironclads
4. The Union and Confederate navies fought
each other
3. The battle began the era of the ironclads
The first true submarine attack was conducted
against what Union ship?
1. USS New Ironsides
2. USS Housatonic
3. USS Hunley
4. USS Custis
2. USS Housatonic
During what Civil War battle was the order
“Damn the torpedoes! Full speed ahead!”
given?
1. Vicksburg
2. Mobile Bay
3. New Orleans Orleans
4. Kings Bay
2. Mobile Bay
What person defined sea power, showed the
importance of knowing naval needs, and
advocated a large, powerful Navy?
1. Commodore Perry
2. Admiral Farragut
3. Andre Foote
4. Alfred T. Mahan
4. Alfred T. Mahan
What ship has been labeled as the first modern
cruiser in the U.S. Fleet?
1. USS Boston
2. USS Atlanta
3. USS Newark
4. USS Chicago
3. USS Newark
“Remember the Maine,” referring to the USS
Maine, was the battle cry for which of the
following wars?
1. The Quasi War
2. The Civil War
3. The Spanish-American War
4. World War I
3. The Spanish-American War
In what year did the Navy accept its first
operational submarine?
1. 1895
2. 1898
3. 1900
4. 1902
3. 1900
Construction of our first destroyer began in
what year?
1. 1895
2. 1899
3. 1902
4. 1905
2. 1899
What ship was considered our first
“first-class” battleship?
1. USS Indiana
2. USS New York
3. USS Texas
4. USS California
1. USS Indiana
Who was the Navy’s first aviator?
1. Lt. Ellyson
2. Lt. Towers
3. Lt. Corry
4. CAPT Chambers
1. Lt. Ellyson
Destroyers were first used effectively for
antisubmarine warfare during what war?
1. Civil War
2. Spanish-American War
3. World War I
4. World War II
3. World War I
In what war did women first serve as members
of the Navy?
1. Civil War
2. Spanish-American War
3. World War I
4. World War II
3. World War I
In what capacity did women first serve as
members of the Navy?
1. Nurse
2. Yeoman
3. Radio operator
2. Yeoman
What was the first aircraft carrier designed
from the keel up?
1. USS Ranger
2. USS Hornet
3. USS Yorktown
4. USS Enterprise
1. USS Ranger
What was the first naval battle of World War II
in which two opposing fleets didn’t see each
other during combat?
1. The Battle of Midway
2. The Battle of Okinawa
3. The Battle of Guadalcanal
4. The Battle of the Coral Sea
4. The Battle of the Coral Sea
What was the decisive battle of World War II
that became the turning point of the war in the
Pacific?
1. The Battle of Midway
2. The Battle of Okinawa
3. The Battle of Guadalcanal
4. The Battle of the Coral Sea
1. The Battle of Midway
During World War II, the Japanese loss/losses
of what island(s) heralded the end of the war
in the Pacific?
1. Philippines
2. Solomons
3. Guadalcanal
4. Iwo Jima
4. Iwo Jima
During World War II, the Navy was heavily
involved in which of the following Atlantic
(European) actions?
1. The invasion of Normandy
2. The capture of Navaronne
3. The Battle of Britain
4. The fall of Berlin
1. The invasion of Normandy
Which of the following were types of ships
built during World War II?
1. Net tenders
2. Mine sweepers
3. Repair ships
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Which of the following combat systems came
into full use during World War II?
1. Radar
2. Sonar
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. SATNAV
3. Both 1 and 2 above
During World War II, WAVES were eligible
for how many ratings?
1. 28
2. 30
3. 34
4. 40
3. 34
In what year was the Women’s Armed
Services Integration Act passed?
1. 1942
2. 1945
3. 1948
4. 1951
3. 1948
The first extensive use of jet aircraft and
helicopters occurred during what war?
1. World War I
2. World War II
3. The Korean Conflict
4. The Vietnam Police Action
3. The Korean Conflict
The first U.S. Navy nuclear-powered vessel
was what type of ship?
1. Carrier
2. Submarine
3. Merchant ship
4. Guided-missile cruiser
2. Submarine
In what year did the USS Nautilus make its
history-making transpolar voyage?
1. 1952
2. 1955
3. 1958
4. 1961
3. 1958
In what year were the first nuclear-powered
surface ships launched?
1. 1952
2. 1955
3. 1958
4. 1961
4. 1961
In what year was the first American satellite
placed in orbit?
1. 1952
2. 1955
3. 1958
4. 1961
3. 1958
America’s first suborbital flight was made
by what Navy officer?
1. Commander Conrad
2. Commander Gordan
3. Commander Shepard Jr
4. Commander Kerwin
3. Commander Shepard Jr
Which of the following warfare tactics was
used during the Vietnam Police Action?
1. Gunfire support
2. Riverine operations
3. Coastal interdiction
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
Which of the following ships was the world’s
first nuclear-powered carrier?
1. USS Nimitz
2. USS Carl Vinson
3. USS Enterprise
4. USS Abraham Lincoln
3. USS Enterprise
What moon mission was completely manned
by Navy personnel?
1. Apollo 5
2. Apollo 7
3. Apollo 11
4. Apollo 12
4. Apollo 12
In what year was the Alvin, a deep diving
vehicle, tested at 6,000-foot depths?
1. 1961
2. 1965
3. 1969
4. 1971
55. In what year was the first nuclear-powered,
deep-submergence research and
ocean-engineering vehicle launched?
1. 1961
2. 1965
3. 1969
4. 1971
2. 1965
In what year was the first nuclear-powered,
deep-submergence research and
ocean-engineering vehicle launched?
1. 1961
2. 1965
3. 1969
4. 1971
3. 1969
Which of the following is/are principle
development(s) of the Trident system?
1. A nuclear-powered fleet ballistic missile
submarine
2. A strategic weapons system
3. An integrated logistics support system
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Which of the following are the most recent
additions to the surface fleet?
1. Ticonderoga-class cruisers
2. Arleigh Burke-class destroyers
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. LHAs
3. Both 1 and 2 above
The Navy helped move approximately how
many pounds of equipment and supplies
during Dessert Shield/Desert Storm?
1. 12.4 billion tons
2. 15.8 billion tons
3. 18.3 billion tons
4. 21.6 billion tons
3. 18.3 billion tons
Which of the following is NOT a DoD
military department?
1. Army
2. Coast Guard
3. Navy
4. Air Force
2. Coast Guard
By law, what person heads the Department of
the Navy (DoN)?
1. Secretary of Defense
2. Joint Chief of Staff
3. Secretary of the Navy
3. Secretary of the Navy
Title 10 of the U.S. Code states that which of
the following actions is/are part of the Navy’s
mission?
1. Oversee construction, outfitting, and repair
of naval ships, equipment, and facilities
2. Station troops in forward positions
3. Commands U.S. forces in CONUS
4. Commander and chief of all sea commands
1. Oversee construction, outfitting, and repair
of naval ships, equipment, and facilities
What are the three principal components of
the DoN?
1. The Navy Department executive offices,
the operating forces including the Marine
Corps, and the Shore Establishment
2. The Navy Department executive offices,
the operating forces excluding the Marine
Corps, and the Shore Establishment
3. The Navy Department excluding the
executive offices, the operating forces
excluding the Marine Corps, and the Shore
Establishment
4. The Navy Department excluding the
executive offices, the operating forces
including the Marine Corps, and the fleet
commands
1. The Navy Department executive offices,
the operating forces including the Marine
Corps, and the Shore Establishment
The operating forces are under the command
of the
1. Secretary of Defense
2. Secretary of the Navy
3. Chief of Naval Operations
4. Chief of Naval Personnel
3. Chief of Naval Operations
What is the purpose of the Shore
Establishment?
1. A last line of defense
2. To provide support to the operating forces
3. To provide a supply line
4. To support the front line
2. To provide support to the operating forces
Aboard ship, what publication contains
information about the ship’s organization?
1. Standard Organization and Regulations
of the U.S. Navy only
2. Shipboard Organization and Regulations
Manual only
3. Standard Organization and Regulations of
the U.S. Navy and Shipboard Organization
and Regulations Manual
4. Uniform Code of Military Justice
2. Shipboard Organization and Regulations
Manual only
A ready source of information about the
duties, responsibilities, and authority of
personnel assigned to a ship is stated in
which of the following documents?
1. United States Navy Regulations
2. Watch, Quarter, and Station Bill
3. Standard Organization and Regulations
Manual
4. Ship’s Organization and Regulations
Manual
4. Ship’s Organization and Regulations
Manual
What are the two elements of a ship’s
organization?
1. Battle organization and damage control
organization
2. Battle organization and administrative
organization
3. Administrative organization and training
organization
4. Administrative organization and damage
control organization
2. Battle organization and administrative
organization
Each ship is organized into what minimum
number of departments?
1. Five
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
1. Five
Which of the following is a responsibility
of the operations department?
1. Piloting the ship
2. Forecasting weather
3. Conducting and analyzing intelligence
information
4. Both 2 and 3 above
4. Both 2 and 3 above
The damage control assistant is a member
of what department on a ship?
1. Deck
2. Supply
3. Operations
4. Engineering
4. Engineering
If a ship doesn’t have a deck department, what
department is responsible for inspection and
maintenance of survival equipment?
1. Supply
2. Weapons
3. Navigation
4. Engineering
2. Weapons
Which of the following officers is ultimately
responsible for the safe navigation of the ship?
1. Navigator
2. Operations officer
3. Executive officer
4. Commanding officer
4. Commanding officer
When a ship is abandoned, custom and
regulation require which of the following
actions by the commanding officer?
1. To be the first person to leave the ship
2. To be the last person to leave the ship
3. To exert every effort to destroy the ship
before it sinks
4. To inform all personnel that they are
on their own
2. To be the last person to leave the ship
What is the function of the command master
chief?
1. To take charge of and be responsible for
the training of enlisted personnel
2. To assign enlisted personnel to their duties
according to their qualification
3. To relieve the commanding officer of the
responsibility for the welfare and morale
of enlisted personnel
4. To transmit ideas and recommendations
directly to the commanding officer
3. To relieve the commanding officer of the
responsibility for the welfare and morale
of enlisted personnel
Of the following duties, which is NOT one
of the executive officer’s?
1. Assignment of personnel
2. Coordination of ship’s drills
3. Assignment of punishment to offenders
4. Coordination of policing and inspection
of the ship
3. Assignment of punishment to offenders
If the executive officer becomes incapacitated,
what person normally takes over his/her
duties?
1. The next senior line officer assigned to
the ship
2. An officer appointed by the ship’s captain
3. The next senior staff officer on board
4. The first lieutenant
1. The next senior line officer assigned to
the ship
For what reason do commanding officers and
executive officers usually have separate battle
stations aboard ship?
1. To decrease the likelihood of their being
disabled at the same time
2. To maintain a high degree of control over
personnel
3. To provide maximum coordination of
operations throughout the ship
4. To divide the areas of responsibility
between the executive officer and the
commanding officer
1. To decrease the likelihood of their being
disabled at the same time
The department head is responsible for
which of the following functions within
a department?
1. General condition of equipment
2. Administrative matters
3. Operational readiness of the department
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
The division officer has the responsibility of
carrying out which of the following duties?
1. Making frequent inspections of division
spaces, equipment, personnel, and supplies
2. Maintaining copies of division orders and
bills and displaying them conspicuously
3. Training division personnel and preparing
them for battle
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
Most of the jobs that are done by the XO’s
assistants aboard ship are the responsibility
of what department in an aircraft squadron?
1. Administrative department
2. Maintenance department
3. Operations department
4. Safety department
1. Administrative department
Which of the following is a responsibility
of the operations department of an aircraft
squadron?
1. Overall maintenance of the ship’s aircraft
2. Operational readiness and tactical
efficiency
3. Squadron safety program
4. All of the above
2. Operational readiness and tactical
efficiency
Which of the following is the definition of
the term job accountability?
1. Taking command under duress
2. Accepting credit for your job
3. Answering to seniors in the chain of
command for the way you do your job
4. Answering only for personal mistakes
3. Answering to seniors in the chain of
command for the way you do your job
What is meant by effective communications
in the chain of command?
1. The ability to speak clearly
2. The use of proper terminology
3. The proper use of reports, messages,
and other types of correspondence
4. The action of seniors informing juniors
about matters that affect the juniors, and
the action of juniors informing seniors of
existing problems
4. The action of seniors informing juniors
about matters that affect the juniors, and
the action of juniors informing seniors of
existing problems
You need help in solving a work-related
problem. Which of the following personnel
should contact first?
1. Your supervisor
2. Your department head
3. Your division officer
4. Your executive officer
1. Your supervisor
A. DECK SEAMANSHIP
B. BOAT SEAMANSHIP
C. MARLINESPIKE SEAMANSHIP
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 27 THROUGH 30,
REFER TO FIGURE A AND SELECT THE TERM
USED TO DEFINE THE QUESTION.
General boat handling.
1. A
2. B
3. C
2. B
A. DECK SEAMANSHIP
B. BOAT SEAMANSHIP
C. MARLINESPIKE SEAMANSHIP
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 27 THROUGH 30,
REFER TO FIGURE A AND SELECT THE TERM
USED TO DEFINE THE QUESTION.
The general work on the ship’s deck and
the equipment used.
1. A
2. B
3. C
1. A
A. DECK SEAMANSHIP
B. BOAT SEAMANSHIP
C. MARLINESPIKE SEAMANSHIP
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 27 THROUGH 30,
REFER TO FIGURE A AND SELECT THE TERM
USED TO DEFINE THE QUESTION.
Anchoring, mooring, cargo handling,
and towing are examples of this type
of seamanship.
1. A
2. B
3. C
1. A
A. DECK SEAMANSHIP
B. BOAT SEAMANSHIP
C. MARLINESPIKE SEAMANSHIP
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 27 THROUGH 30,
REFER TO FIGURE A AND SELECT THE TERM
USED TO DEFINE THE QUESTION.
Care and use of line.
1. A
2. B
3. C
3. C
It is important for you to know shipboard
equipment terminology for which of the
following reasons?
1. Equipment changes all the time
2. You will have to inventory the equipment
once each month
3. You will probably assist the deck force
in various seamanship evolutions
4. There are different names for the same
equipment
3. You will probably assist the deck force
in various seamanship evolutions
What is ground tackle?
1. Equipment bolted to the deck
2. Equipment used to anchor and moor
with anchors
3. Equipment electrically connected to
ground
4. Equipment used to refuel the ship
2. Equipment used to anchor and moor
with anchors
Which of the following is/are the most
commonly used anchors aboard Navy ships?
1. Lightweight
2. Stockless
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Locking pin
2. Stockless
How long is a standard shot of anchor chain?
1. 15 fathoms
2. 20 fathoms
3. 25 fathoms
4. 30 fathoms
1. 15 fathoms
What device is used to secure shots of anchor
chain together?
1. Link pins
2. Bending shackles
3. Detachable links
4. Securing shackles
3. Detachable links
What types of anchor windlasses are used
for lifting the ship’s anchor?
1. Vertical shaft type only
2. Horizontal shaft type only
3. Vertical shaft and horizontal shaft types
4. Lateral shaft type
3. Vertical shaft and horizontal shaft types
What device engages the chain links when
hauling anchors on board ship?
1. Wildcat
2. Capstan
3. Gypsy heads
4. Bending shackles
1. Wildcat
Which of the following platforms is/are used
in the construction of an accommodation
ladder?
1. Middle platform
2. Upper platform
3. Lower platform
4. Both 2 and 3 above
4. Both 2 and 3 above
What is the Navy term for gangplank?
1. Brow
2. Ramp
3. Platform
4. Accommodation ladder
1. Brow
What lines are used to prevent the ship from
drifting forward or aft?
1. The bowline and the forward spring lines
2. The stern line and after spring lines
3. The forward and after spring lines
4. The bow and stern lines
3. The forward and after spring lines
What means are used to protect the sides
of a ship when it is alongside a pier?
1. Doubled lines
2. Camels only
3. Fenders only
4. Camels and fenders
4. Camels and fenders
What is the main purpose for deck fittings
aboard ship?
1. To secure mooring lines
2. To connect electrical power
3. To replace stanchions
4. To secure the anchor
1. To secure mooring lines
Which of the following is NOT a deck fitting
found aboard ships?
1. Bitts
2. Cleats
3. Bollards
4. Pad eyes
3. Bollards
Which of the following is the purpose of boat
booms when ships are at anchor or moored to
a buoy?
1. To raise and lower supplies
2. To moor their boats well clear of the side
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. To raise and lower personnel
2. To moor their boats well clear of the side
Which of the following is/are types of boats
used by the Navy?
1. Service craft
2. Combatant craft
3. Boats in general
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
A boat is defined as a non-commissioned
waterborne vessel that isn’t designated as a
service craft. According to this definition,
which of the following are types of boats?
1. Personnel boats
2. Motor whaleboats
3. Utility boats
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Which of the following is a type of service
craft?
1. Riverine craft
2. Patrol craft
3. Ship’s boats
4. Harbor tugs
4. Harbor tugs
Which of the following is a type of combatant
craft?
1. Patrol craft
2. Ship’s boats
3. Ferryboats
1. Patrol craft
A. AFTER END
B. AMIDSHIP
C. FORWARD END
D. OUTBOARD
E. STARBOARD
F. PORT
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 49 THROUGH 53,
REFER TO FIGURE B AND SELECT THE TERM
DESCRIBED BY THE QUESTION.
When facing forward of the boat, your
right-hand side is in this direction.
1. C
2. D
3. E
4. F
3. E
A. AFTER END
B. AMIDSHIP
C. FORWARD END
D. OUTBOARD
E. STARBOARD
F. PORT
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 49 THROUGH 53,
REFER TO FIGURE B AND SELECT THE TERM
DESCRIBED BY THE QUESTION.
The stern of the boat.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
1. A
A. AFTER END
B. AMIDSHIP
C. FORWARD END
D. OUTBOARD
E. STARBOARD
F. PORT
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 49 THROUGH 53,
REFER TO FIGURE B AND SELECT THE TERM
DESCRIBED BY THE QUESTION.
The area furthermost from the boat’s
centerline.
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. E
3. D
A. AFTER END
B. AMIDSHIP
C. FORWARD END
D. OUTBOARD
E. STARBOARD
F. PORT
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 49 THROUGH 53,
REFER TO FIGURE B AND SELECT THE TERM
DESCRIBED BY THE QUESTION.
When facing forward of the boat, your
left-hand side is facing this direction.
1. A
2. B
3. E
4. F
4. F
A. AFTER END
B. AMIDSHIP
C. FORWARD END
D. OUTBOARD
E. STARBOARD
F. PORT
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 49 THROUGH 53,
REFER TO FIGURE B AND SELECT THE TERM
DESCRIBED BY THE QUESTION.
The bow of the boat.
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. F
2. C
Nylon line is about how many times stronger
than manila line of the same size?
1. 1 1/2
2. 2 1/2
3. 3 1/2
4. 4 1/2
2. 2 1/2
How is line termed small stuff identified?
1. By the length of the line
2. By the number of threads in the line
3. By the number of strands in the line
4. By the number of cables twisted together
2. By the number of threads in the line
Under safe working conditions, nylon line will
stretch what maximum fraction of its length?
1. 1/4
2. 1/3
3. 1/2
4. 2/3
2. 1/3
Nylon line will stretch what maximum
percentage of its length before it will break?
1. 20%
2. 33%
3. 50%
4. 66%
3. 50%
A wire rope designated as 5 by 12 has (a) what
number of strands and (b) what number of
wires per strand?
1. (a) 5 (b) 12
2. (a) 12 (b) 12
3. (a) 12 (b) 5
4. (a) 5 (b) 5
1. (a) 5 (b) 12
The most secure line whipping is made with
which of the following pieces of equipment?
1. Small needle and palm
2. Wire cutters
3. Hammer
4. Pliers
1. Small needle and palm
A. KNOTS
B. HITCHES
C. BENDS
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 60 AND 61, REFER
TO FIGURE C AND SELECT THE TERM
DESCRIBED BY THE QUESTION.
60. Used to bend a line to or around an object.
1. A
2. B
3. C
2. B
A. KNOTS
B. HITCHES
C. BENDS
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 60 AND 61, REFER
TO FIGURE C AND SELECT THE TERM
DESCRIBED BY THE QUESTION.
Used to form eyes or to secure a cord or line
around an object.
1. A
2. B
3. C
1. A
The square knot is also known as a
1. granny knot
2. seaman’s knot
3. reef knot
4. top knot
3. reef knot
The bowline can be used for which of the
following purposes?
1. To form an eye
2. To bend two lines together
3. To secure a line to a pad eye
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
The main value of the becket bend is that it
can be used to bend together two lines of
different sizes.
1. True
2. False
1. True
If there is a great strain on a line, what type
of bend should be used?
1. Becket bend
2. Double becket bend
3. Bowline
4. Double bowline
2. Double becket bend
What type of hitch will hold as long as
there’s a strain on it?
1. Two half hitches
2. Two underhanded loops
3. Round and turn and two half hitches
4. Clove hitch
4. Clove hitch
Which of the following actions would you
perform to “coil down” a line?
1. Lay line in successive circles with the
bitter end in the center
2. Lay line in circles, one on top of the other
3. Lay line in long, flat bights
4. Lay line out in full
2. Lay line in circles, one on top of the other
Which of the following actions would you
take to “flemish down” a line?
1. Lay line in successive circles with the
bitter end in the center
2. Lay line in circles, one on top of the other
3. Lay line in long, flat bights
4. Lay line out in full
1. Lay line in successive circles with the
bitter end in the center
When making an eye splice, you should unlay
what number of line strands?
1. 2 to 4
2. 4 to 6
3. 6 to 8
4. 8 to 10
4. 8 to 10
Which of the following procedures is used to
prevent the strands of synthetic line from
frazzling after a splice has been made?
1. They are whipped
2. They are melted together
3. They are cut off even with the standing
part
4. Each of the above
2. They are melted together
Which of the following is the purpose of using
a short splice?
1. To temporarily join two lines together
2. To permanently join two lines together
3. To form an eye
4. Each of the above
2. To permanently join two lines together
Which of the following structural components
is the backbone of a ship?
1. Stringer
2. Prow
3. Stem
4. Keel
4. Keel
Which of the following structural components
divides the interior of a ship into
compartments?
1. Longitudinals
2. Bulkheads
3. Strakes
4. Gunwales
2. Bulkheads
Which of the following structural components
form the ship’s hull?
1. Longitudinals
2. Bulkheads
3. Strakes
4. Gunwales
3. Strakes
The vertical distance fromthe bottomof the keel
to the waterline of the ship is identified by what
nautical term?
1. Freeboard
2. Strake
3. Draft
4. Void
3. Draft
Which of the following structural components
support decks?
1. Athwartships deck beams
2. Fore-and-aft deck girders
3. Stanchions
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
The freeing ports that let water run off during
heavy weather are identified by which of the
following terms?
1. Companionways
2. Bulwarks
3. Scuppers
4. Flats
3. Scuppers
Which of the following terms defines the
first complete deck below the main deck?
1. First deck
2. Second deck
3. Third deck
4. Fourth deck
2. Second deck
The device that bears up tight on wedges and
holds watertight doors closed is identified
by which of the following terms?
1. Dogs
2. Scuttle
3. Coamings
4. Belaying pins
1. Dogs
Which of the following terms defines the
horizontal openings for access through decks?
1. Hatches
2. Doors
3. Manholes
4. Scuttles
1. Hatches
Which of the following terms defines the
solid part of a ship above the main deck?
1. Superstructure
2. Upper deck
3. Forecastle
1. Superstructure
Which of the following is a type of mast?
1. Mizzenmast
2. Mainmast
3. Foremast
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
What is the purpose of running rigging?
1. For stays and shroud support
2. To support stacks
3. To hoist, lower, or control booms or boats
4. To support the mast
3. To hoist, lower, or control booms or boats
Commissioned ships of the U.S. Navy fly a
commission pennant that is secured to what
point?
1. The forecastle
2. Aft of the fantail
3. To a pigstick and hoisted to a truck
4. Level adjacent to the bridge
3. To a pigstick and hoisted to a truck
What term identifies the port and starboard
halves of a yard?
1. Yardarms
2. Pigstick
3. Gaff
4. Peak
1. Yardarms
The national ensign is flown from what part of a
ship when it is anchored or moored?
1. Jackstaff
2. Flagstaff
3. Pigstick
4. Peak
2. Flagstaff
What is the additional ship control space used
by the squadron commander or admiral
called?
1. Signal bridge
2. Main control
3. Flag bridge
4. Bridge wind
3. Flag bridge
Ships of the U.S. Navy are divided into how
many categories?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
4. Four
How many types of ships are included in the
warship category?
1. Five
2. Six
3. Seven
4. Eight
2. Six
What type of ship is the center of a modern
naval task force or task group?
1. Aircraft carrier
2. Destroyer
3. Cruiser
4. Submarine
1. Aircraft carrier
Approximately how many aircraft are
embarked on Nimitz class CVs?
1. 70
2. 75
3. 80
4. 85
4. 85
What class of cruiser is designated as battle
force capable?
1. Ticonderoga
2. Spruance
3. Arleigh Burke
1. Ticonderoga
Which of the following is a principle mission
of a destroyer?
1. Operate offensively against submarines
and surface ships
2. Operate defensively against submarines
and surface ships
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Operate short-range attack against all
aircraft
3. Both 1 and 2 above
What class destroyer represents a return to
all-steel construction?
1. Kidd class
2. Spruance class
3. Arleigh Burke class
3. Arleigh Burke class
Which of the following is the mission of
frigates?
1. Protective screens
2. Open ocean escort and patrol
3. Defensive operations against surface ships
4. Offensive operations against subsurface
ships
2. Open ocean escort and patrol
What class of submarines has the quietest
operation?
1. Sturgeon
2. Ohio
3. Seawolf
3. Seawolf
The Ohio class ballistic submarine has how
many Trident missile tubes?
1. 16
2. 20
3. 24
4. 26
3. 24
The LHA carries what means of defense
against surface and air attack?
1. 5-inch guns only
2. Mk 38 machine guns only
3. 5-inch guns and Mk 38 machine guns
3. 5-inch guns and Mk 38 machine guns
How many troops can be embarked in,
transported by, and landed by the Wasp class
LHDs?
1. 1,500
2. 2,000
3. 2,500
4. 3,000
2. 2,000
What is the purpose of dock landing ships?
1. To transport amphibious craft only
2. To transport vehicles only
3. To transport troops only
4. To transport a variety of amphibious craft
and vehicles with embarked crews and
troops
4. To transport a variety of amphibious craft
and vehicles with embarked crews and
troops
Which of the following means is/are used by
Avenger class MCMs to find, classify, and
destroy moored and bottom mines?
1. Sonar and video systems
2. Cable cutters
3. A mine-detonating device
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 32 THROUGH 34,
SELECT THE TYPE OF AUXILIARY SHIP
DEFINED BY THE QUESTION.
An ammunition supply ship.
1. AOE
2. ASR
3. AE
4. AO
3. AE
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 32 THROUGH 34,
SELECT THE TYPE OF AUXILIARY SHIP
DEFINED BY THE QUESTION.
Supply dry and refrigerated stores.
1. AOE
2. ASR
3. AE
4. AO
1. AOE
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 32 THROUGH 34,
SELECT THE TYPE OF AUXILIARY SHIP
DEFINED BY THE QUESTION.
Combat support ship
1. AOE
2. ASR
3. AE
4. AO
1. AOE
Which of the following terms applies to the
transfer of fuel, munitions, supplies, and
personnel from one vessel to another while
ships are under way?
1. Vertical replenishment
2. Horizontal replenishment
3. Replenishment at sea
4. Replenishment while under way
3. Replenishment at sea
A separation of what approximate distance is
maintained between the replenishment ship
and the ship it’s replenishing?
1. 50 feet
2. 75 feet
3. 100 feet
4. 125 feet
3. 100 feet
The AOE is designed to operate at what
approximate distance between itself and the
ship it’s replenishing?
1. 150 feet
2. 175 feet
3. 200 feet
4. 225 feet
3. 200 feet
Most fleet tugs are operated by which of the
following organizations?
1. U.S. Navy
2. U.S. Coast Guard
3. Army Corps of Engineers
4. Military Sealift Command
4. Military Sealift Command
Combatant craft usually operate in what areas?
1. In open waters
2. In coastal waters
3. In intercontinental waters
4. In the deep sea
2. In coastal waters
Support craft designations start with what
letter?
1. S
2. T
3. Y
4. Z
3. Y
Fixed-wing aircraft are divided into how many
basic parts?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
What is the primary lifting device of an
aircraft?
1. Tail
2. Wings
3. Ailerons
4. Fuselage
2. Wings
What are the three main parts of a helicopter?
1. Tail, rotors, and empennage
2. Tail, rotors, and fuselage
3. Main rotor, fuselage, and tail rotor
4. Main rotor, empennage, and tail rotor
3. Main rotor, fuselage, and tail rotor
Attack class planes are used in which of the
following roles?
1. Nuclear strikes
2. Ground support
3. Low-level bombing
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
What class of aircraft is generally used to gain
air superiority?
1. Attack
2. Fighter
3. Patrol
4. Warning
2. Fighter
What helicopter operates and tows mine
countermeasures devices?
1. CH-46 Sea Knight
2. SH-60B Seahawk
3. CH-53D Sea Stallion
3. CH-53D Sea Stallion
Which of the following characteristics define
a custom?
1. An act that is continued consistently over
a long period of time
2. A well-defined and uniformly followed act
3. A generally accepted act not opposed to
a statute, lawful regulation, or order
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Of the following salutes, which one is the
most common?
1. Gun
2. Hand
3. Rifle
4. Ruffles and flourishes
2. Hand
When in uniform, Navy personnel are
required to salute when which of the
following situations occurs?
1. Meeting officers
2. Hearing the national anthem
3. Approaching the national ensign
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
In a normal situation, how many paces from
the person being saluted should the hand
salute be rendered?
1. Two
2. Four
3. Six
4. Eight
3. Six
You may salute with your left hand when
which of the following situations occurs?
1. When in civilian dress
2. When in uniform but uncovered
3. When in complete uniform and
your right hand is injured
4. Each of the above
3. When in complete uniform and
your right hand is injured
Salutes are rendered to all officers of the U.S.
and foreign armed services. Officers belonging
to which of the following organizations are
also entitled to salutes?
1. Local police departments
2. National Oceanic and Atmospheric
Administration
3. Public Health Service
4. Both 2 and 3 above
4. Both 2 and 3 above
When going aboard ship that’s flying the
national ensign, you must stop on the upper
platform on the accommodation ladder or the
shipboard end of the brow and take which of
the following actions first?
1. Face the national ensign and salute
2. Face the brow of the ship and salute
3. Face the officer of the deck and salute
4. Face the petty officer of the watch and
salute
1. Face the national ensign and salute
While standing a sentry box, you are
approached by an officer. What type
of rifle salute should you render?
1. Present arms
2. At order arms
3. At shoulder arms
1. Present arms
You are not required to salute in which
of the following situations?
1. When standing and talking with an officer
and a senior officer approaches
2. When guarding prisoners and an officer
passes within saluting distance
3. When standing at a bus stop and a car
passes carrying officers
4. When walking and passing an officer
going in the same direction
2. When guarding prisoners and an officer
passes within saluting distance
The term honors is defined by which of the
following statements?
1. Formal acts performed on public occasions
2. Hand salutes rendered to high-ranking
officials
3. Forms of recognition and respect from one
person to another
4. Salutes rendered by a ship, unit, post,
station, or an individual to high-ranking
individuals, other ships, or nations
4. Salutes rendered by a ship, unit, post,
station, or an individual to high-ranking
individuals, other ships, or nations
Passing honors for ships are exchanged when
ships pass within what distance?
1. 200 yards
2. 400 yards
3. 600 yards
4. 800 yards
3. 600 yards
Passing honors for boats are exchanged
when boats pass within what distance?
1. 200 yards
2. 400 yards
3. 600 yards
4. 800 yards
2. 400 yards
Your ship is about to render honors to another
ship passing close aboard to starboard. In what
order are the appropriate whistle signals
given?
1. One blast, one blast, two blasts, three
blasts
2. One blast, one blast, three blasts, one blast
3. Two blasts, two blasts, two blasts, three
blasts
4. Two blasts, two blasts, three blasts, three
blasts
1. One blast, one blast, two blasts, three
blasts
A crew is paraded at quarters on which of the
following occasions?
1. When the ship is entering a U.S. port for
an operational visit
2. When the ship is returning from an
extended deployment
3. When the ship is entering home port from
a local operation
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
Gun salutes are normally fired at what time
interval?
1. 5 seconds
2. 10 seconds
3. 15 seconds
4. 20 seconds
1. 5 seconds
On which of the following special occasions
is a 21-gun salute fired at 1-minute intervals?
1. Memorial Day
2. President’s Day
3. Independence Day
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
Which of the following phrases defines
the term ceremony?
1. A regular, expected action
2. A way of acting
3. A formal act performed on a public
occasion
4. Each of the above
3. A formal act performed on a public
occasion
Aboard ship, how many minutes before
morning and evening colors is the PREP
pennant hoisted?
1. 1 minute
2. 3 minutes
3. 5 minutes
4. 7 minutes
3. 5 minutes
On Navy ships not under way, where is
the union jack displayed?
1. The highest possible point
2. The flagstaff on the stern
3. The jack staff on the bow
4. The gaff
3. The jack staff on the bow
A commissioning or command pennant is
half-masted only under which, if any, of
the following conditions?
1. When passing Washington’s tomb
between sunrise and sunset
2. When passing the Arizona Memorial
3. When the commanding officer or unit
commander dies
4. None of the above
3. When the commanding officer or unit
commander dies
Which of the following naval customs is
observed in the U.S. Navy by ships that are
under way?
1. Only the union jack is flown
2. The national ensign is flown day and night
3. Morning and evening colors are held each
day
4. Both the national ensign and the union
jack are flown
2. The national ensign is flown day and night
The national ensign is hoisted and lowered
in which of the following ways?
1. Hoisted ceremoniously, lowered
ceremoniously
2. Hoisted ceremoniously, lowered smartly
3. Hoisted smartly, lowered smartly
4. Hoisted smartly, lowered ceremoniously
4. Hoisted smartly, lowered ceremoniously
If you are in uniform and covered, how do you
render honors when the national anthem is
played indoors but the flag is not displayed?
1. Face the music and uncover
2. Stand at attention while facing the music
3. Hand salute at attention while facing the
music
4. Face the music and hold your hat next to
your left shoulder
3. Hand salute at attention while facing the
music
When the national anthem is being played,
Sailors in a boat must adhere to which of the
following rules?
1. All persons remain seated or standing and
salute
2. Only the coxswain salutes; all others
remain seated but uncovered
3. All persons standing salute; all others
remain seated at attention
4. Only the boat officer (or, if absent, the
coxswain) salutes; all others remain seated
at attention
4. Only the boat officer (or, if absent, the
coxswain) salutes; all others remain seated
at attention
What march does the Navy band play to honor
the President of the United States?
1. “Hail, Columbia!”
2. “Admiral’s March”
3. “Hail to the Chief”
4. “Stars and Stripes Forever”
3. “Hail to the Chief”
Upon entering an area where Christian divine
services are being held, you, as messenger of
the watch, should take which of the following
actions?
1. Uncover only
2. Remove you duty belt only
3. Remove you duty belt and uncover
4. Request permission from the chaplain
to enter
1. Uncover only
An enlisted person and two officers are about
to board a boat. Which of the following
procedures should the enlisted person follow
in entering the boat?
1. Board first and sit aft
2. Make way for the officers to board, then
board and sit in the stern of the boat
3. Make way for the officers to board, then
board and sit in the bow of the boat
4. Board first and sit forward, leaving room
aft for the officers
1. Board first and sit aft
The neckerchief is made from which of the
following materials?
1. Black silk
2. Black acetate
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Black cotton
3. Both 1 and 2 above
What kind of knot is used to tie a neckerchief?
1. Granny knot
2. Square knot
3. Sheep shank
4. Bowline
2. Square knot
What material is used to make
government-issue dress blue jumpers
and trousers?
1. Navy twill
2. Wool serge
3. Nylon
4. Rayon
2. Wool serge
What material is used to make governmentissue
dress white jumpers and trousers?
1. Navy twill
2. Wool serge
3. Nylon
4. Rayon
1. Navy twill
Which of the following uniforms is/are
considered working uniforms?
1. Dungarees
2. Winter blues
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Navy twill
3. Both 1 and 2 above
When large medals are prescribed for wear
with the dress blue uniform, the uniform is
known as
1. mess dress
2. full dress
3. field dress
4. service dress
2. full dress
Which of the following uniforms is/are
considered the working uniforms for female
Sailors?
1. Belted blue slacks and blue winter shirt
2. Belted blue skirt and blue winter shirt
3. Dungarees
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
Enlisted Sailors, E-6 and below, are authorized
to wear command or Navy ball caps with what
type of uniform?
1. Dungaree
2. Navy twill
3. Wool serge
1. Dungaree
Where can you find information on what
is the prescribed uniform of the day?
1. Plan of the Day (POD) only
2. Plan of the Week (POW) only
3. POD or POW
4. Pass down log
3. POD or POW
Division officers are required to inspect the
uniforms of nonrated personnel at regular
intervals for what reason?
1. As a part of PQS
2. To justify clothing allowance
3. To see if enlisted personnel know
what uniforms are prescribed
4. To make sure that each person has
the prescribed uniform
4. To make sure that each person has
the prescribed uniform
Which of the following information is
marked on uniforms?
1. Name
2. Social security number
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Rank
3. Both 1 and 2 above
What is the largest size stencil authorized
for marking clothing?
1. 1/2 inch
2. 1 inch
3. 1 1/2 inches
4. 2 inches
2. 1 inch
The transfer or exchange of enlisted personnel
uniform items must be authorized by which of
the following persons?
1. Chief master-at-arms
2. Division officer
3. Executive officer
4. Commanding officer
4. Commanding officer
Military personnel may wear authorized
military uniform articles of clothing with
civilian clothing including shoes, gloves
and the knit watch cap.
1. True
2. False
1. True
Occupational groups are identified by what
means?
1. A group mark, which is worn on all
uniforms
2. A rate mark, which is worn on the left
sleeve of jumpers and white summer shirts
3. A group mark, which is worn on the left
sleeve of jumpers and white summer shirts
4. A rate mark, which is worn on all uniforms
3. A group mark, which is worn on the left
sleeve of jumpers and white summer shirts
What is a striker mark?
1. A specialty designator for seamen only
2. A rating badge for emergencies
3. A specialty mark of a particular rating,
worn by personnel in paygrades E-1, E-2,
and E-3 who have qualified for the rating
4. A specific date for the air community
3. A specialty mark of a particular rating,
worn by personnel in paygrades E-1, E-2,
and E-3 who have qualified for the rating
How many years of service must a person
complete to be eligible to wear one service
stripe (hash mark)?
1. 5
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
4. 4
How many years of continuous good conduct
are required before a person becomes eligible
to wear gold service stripes?
1. 12
2. 10
3. 8
4. 6
1. 12
How can you determine whether an officer
is a line officer or a staff corps officer?
1. By title on the name tag
2. A star is worn on the sleeve or shoulder
board of the line officer
3. By the collar devices
4. A designator stripe for the rank
2. A star is worn on the sleeve or shoulder
board of the line officer
What insignia is worn by officers and enlisted
personnel who have qualified in all phases of
surface warfare?
1. Surface warfare
2. Submarine warfare
3. Aviation warfare
4. Special warfare
1. Surface warfare
What insignia is worn by personnel who
have qualified to serve in submarines?
1. Surface warfare
2. Submarine warfare
3. Aviation warfare
4. Special warfare
2. Submarine warfare
What insignia is worn by personnel
qualified to serve in flight?
1. Surface warfare
2. Submarine warfare
3. Aviation warfare
4. Special warfare
3. Aviation warfare
There are how many broad categories
of awards?
1. Four
2. Five
3. Six
4. Seven
4. Seven
In what year was the Purple Heart founded
by President Washington?
1. 1776
2. 1780
3. 1782
4. 1786
3. 1782
Which of the following is an example
of a campaign or a service award?
1. Medical Scientific Societies
2. Silver Life Saving Medal
3. Good Conduct Medal
4. Navy “E”
3. Good Conduct Medal
What is the maximum number of ribbons
that may be worn in each row?
1. Five
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
What means of identification must you
carry with you at all times?
1. Driver’s license
2. Armed forces identification card
3. Liberty card
4. Copy of present set of orders
2. Armed forces identification card
Under which of the following circumstances
may you surrender (give up) your ID card?
1. To show a change in rank
2. To correct an error
3. To effect a name change
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
Which of the following is the purpose of the
armed forces ID card under article 17 of the
Geneva Convention?
1. As a means of identification and casualty
reporting
2. As a means of grave registration for
members who die in a combat zone
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. As a means of identification for POWs
4. As a means of identification for POWs
While on active duty, you must wear your ID
tags under which of the following conditions?
1. In time of war
2. When engaged in flight operations
3. When prescribed by the CNO
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
What type of information is found on ID tags?
1. Last name, first name, and middle initial
2. SSN, blood type, and Rh factor
3. Religious preference
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
According to grooming standards for men,
how many rings per hand may be worn ?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. As many as they wish
1. One
According to grooming standards for women,
what is the maximum length of fingernails
(as measured from the tip of the finger)?
1. 1 inch
2. 1/2 inch
3. 3/4 inch
4. 1/4 inch
4. 1/4 inch
Enlisted women, E-6 and below, are
authorized to wear ball-type earrings
of what (a) size and (b) what color?
1. (a) 6mm (b) gold
2. (a) 6mm (b) silver
3. (a) 5mm (b) gold
4. (a) 5mm (b) silver
2. (a) 6mm (b) silver
When personnel are in ranks, the chest of
one person and the back of the person ahead
should be what distance apart?
1. 20 inches
2. 30 inches
3. 40 inches
4. 50 inches
3. 40 inches
A pace consists of a full step of what length
for (a) men and (b) women?
1. (a) 18 inches (b) 16 inches
2. (a) 24 inches (b) 18 inches
3. (a) 30 inches (b) 24 inches
4. (a) 36 inches (b) 30 inches
3. (a) 30 inches (b) 24 inches
Which of the following drill positions is
the basic military position?
1. Rest
2. At ease
3. Attention
4. Parade rest
3. Attention
Talk is permitted when you are in which
of the following formation positions?
1. Rest
2. Parade rest
3. At ease
3. At ease
How many movements are used to perform
the ABOUT FACE command?
1. Five
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
2. Two
When executing the command FALL IN, the
squad forms in line on which of the following
persons?
1. Instructor
2. Squad leader
3. Standard bearer
4. Company commander
2. Squad leader
Personnel in formation align themselves
with which of the following persons?
1. Guide
2. Leader
3. Each other
4. Formation director
3. Each other
After the command DRESS RIGHT DRESS,
a formation returns to the attention position
on which of the following commands?
1. Cover
2. Extend
3. Attention
4. Ready, on the word FRONT
4. Ready, on the word FRONT
When the command CLOSE RANKS is
given to members in formation, the fourth
rank moves how many paces forward?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
Every firearm used by Navy personnel has
some type of safety device built in.
1. True
2. False
1. True
Which of the following is the prime cause
of accidental shootings?
1. Faulty gun
2. Faulty ammunition
3. Alcohol or drug use by the user
4. Negligence or carelessness of the user
4. Negligence or carelessness of the user
Which of the following are acceptable ear
protective devices?
1. Insert type
2. Circumaural type
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Cotton type
3. Both 1 and 2 above
The M14 rifle is best described by which of
the following groups of characteristics?
1. Medium weight, recoil-operated,
magazine-fed, and fully automatic
2. Medium weight, gas-operated, clip-fed,
and capable of semiautomatic and fully
automatic fire
3. Lightweight, recoil-operated, clip-fed,
and semiautomatic
4. Lightweight, gas-operated, magazine-fed,
and capable of semiautomatic or automatic
fire
4. Lightweight, gas-operated, magazine-fed,
and capable of semiautomatic or automatic
fire
Which of the following types of ammunition
is used with the M14 rifle?
1. 7.62-mm NATO cartridge
2. 20-round magazine
3. M76 grenade launcher
4. Each of the above
1. 7.62-mm NATO cartridge
What is the maximum range of the M14 rifle?
1. 2,500 yards
2. 3,250 yards
3. 4,075 yards
4. 5,250 yards
3. 4,075 yards
The M16A1 and M16A2 rifles are best
described by which of the following groups
of characteristics?
1. Clip-fed, recoil-operated weapons
2. Magazine-fed, recoil-operated shoulder
weapons
3. Magazine-fed, gas-operated shoulder
weapons
4. Clip-fed, gas-operated weapons
3. Magazine-fed, gas-operated shoulder
weapons
For what size cartridge is the M16A1
rifle chambered?
1. .38 caliber
2. .45 caliber
3. 5.56 mm
4. 7.62 mm
3. 5.56 mm
What is the maximum magazine capacity
of the M16A1 rifle?
1. 15 rounds
2. 25 rounds
3. 30 rounds
4. 35 rounds
3. 30 rounds
What is the muzzle velocity of the M16A1
and M16A2 rifles?
1. 2,500 feet per second
2. 3,000 feet per second
3. 3,500 feet per second
4. 4,000 feet per second
2. 3,000 feet per second
What means is used to adjust the rear sights
of the M16A2 rifle?
1. A windage drum
2. A windage knob and an elevation knob
3. A clip lever marked range
4. A slide adjust to windage
2. A windage knob and an elevation knob
What is the first step to take when handling
any weapon?
1. Point the selector lever toward SAFE
2. Remove the magazine
3. Visual check of the chamber
4. Lock the bolt open
1. Point the selector lever toward SAFE
Why should the selector be on SAFE during
assembly and disassembly?
1. To prevent damage to the automatic sear
2. To prevent damage to the firing pin
3. To prevent the barrel from releasing
4. To prevent the rear slide from disengaging
1. To prevent damage to the automatic sear
When the selection lever is in the burst
position, the M16A1 rifle fires in what way?
1. In short bursts of two rounds
2. In short bursts of three rounds
3. Four rounds each time the trigger is pulled
4. Six rounds each time the trigger is pulled
2. In short bursts of three rounds
The M16A1 rifle is clear when which of the
following conditions are met?
1. No case or round is in the chamber and
the magazine is out
2. The bolt carrier is to the rear
3. The selector lever is on the SAFE position
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
When cleaning the barrel bore and chamber
of the M16A1 rifle, you should not reverse
the brush while in the bore for what reason?
1. The barrel slide will be damaged
2. The bore may jam
3. The trigger pin will need to be replaced
4. The bore cleaner will not work
2. The bore may jam
What parts of the barrel bore and chamber
should you lubricate after you’ve finished
cleaning them?
1. The locking lugs
2. The extractor ejector
3. The lugs in the barrel extension
4. The magazine springs
3. The lugs in the barrel extension
When cleaning ammunition magazines, you
need to make sure the magazine is dry for
what reason?
1. The magazine and ammunition can
corrode and become dangerous to use
2. The spring action will tighten up
3. The ammunition will jam
4. The magazine won’t load
1. The magazine and ammunition can
corrode and become dangerous to use
The .38-caliber revolver is best described
by which of the following groups of
characteristics?
1. Cylinder-loading, single- or double-action,
manually operated hand gun
2. Semiautomatic, recoil-operated,
magazine-fed hand gun
3. Semiautomatic, cylinder-loading
double-action hand gun
4. Cylinder-loading, recoil-operated,
manually operated hand gun
1. Cylinder-loading, single- or double-action,
manually operated hand gun
The .45-caliber service pistol is best described
by which of the following groups of
characteristics?
1. Cylinder-loading, single- or double-action,
manually operated hand gun
2. Semiautomatic, recoil-operated,
magazine-fed hand gun
3. Semiautomatic, cylinder-loading
double-action hand gun
4. Cylinder-loading, recoil-operated,
manually operated hand gun
2. Semiautomatic, recoil-operated,
magazine-fed hand gun
The .45-caliber revolver has what maximum
range and maximum effective range,
respectively?
1. 1,800 yards, 75 yards
2. 1,500 yards, 50 yards
3. 1,450 yards, 45 yards
4. 1,250 yards, 30 yards
2. 1,500 yards, 50 yards
The magazine capacity of the 9mm service
pistol can hold how many rounds in the
magazine?
1. 5 rounds
2. 10 rounds
3. 15 rounds
4. 20 rounds
3. 15 rounds
The 9mm service pistol is best described
by which of the following groups of
characteristics?
1. Semiautomatic, recoil-operated,
magazine-fed hand gun
2. Semiautomatic, magazine-fed,
recoil-operated, double-action pistol
3. Semiautomatic, cylinder-loading
double-action hand gun
4. Semiautomatic, magazine-fed,
single-action pistol
2. Semiautomatic, magazine-fed,
recoil-operated, double-action pistol
Which of the following are safety features
incorporated in the 9mm service pistol?
1. Ambidextrous safety
2. Firing pin block
3. Half cock notch
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
What safety feature of the 9mm pistol
prevents accidental discharge?
1. Firing pin block
2. Half cock notch
3. Muzzle pressure
4. Rear trigger guard
2. Half cock notch
The advantage of shotguns over pistols
is that sight alignment is not as critical.
1. True
2. False
1. True
What maximum number of rounds of
12-gauge, 2 3/4-inch ammunition will
the magazine of the M870 shotgun hold?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
4. Four
QUESTIONS 28 THROUGH 33 REFER TO RIFLE
FIRING TECHNIQUES.
When firing a rifle, what factors make up the
sight picture?
1. Rear sight
2. Correct aiming point only
3. Sight alignment only
4. Correct aiming point and sight alignment
4. Correct aiming point and sight alignment
QUESTIONS 28 THROUGH 33 REFER TO RIFLE
FIRING TECHNIQUES.
What is meant by the term “eye relief”?
1. The different distance from the rear sight
of your aiming eye, depending on your
firing position
2. The distance of your eye from the peep
sight in any particular firing position
3. The height of the rear sight
4. The height of the front sight
1. The different distance from the rear sight
of your aiming eye, depending on your
firing position
QUESTIONS 28 THROUGH 33 REFER TO RIFLE
FIRING TECHNIQUES.
What is meant by the terms “spot weld” or
“anchor”?
1. The distance of your eye from the peep
sight in any particular firing position
2. Holding your rifle in the exact same
position to make sure your eye stays
the same distance from the peep hole
3. The distance of your eye from the peep
sight, depending on your firing position
2. Holding your rifle in the exact same
position to make sure your eye stays
the same distance from the peep hole
QUESTIONS 28 THROUGH 33 REFER TO RIFLE
FIRING TECHNIQUES.
What is the focus for the eye?
1. The front sight
2. The rear sight
3. The aiming point
4. The sight picture
1. The front sight
QUESTIONS 28 THROUGH 33 REFER TO RIFLE
FIRING TECHNIQUES.
What is the correct aiming point on a type
“A” target?
1. 3 o’clock
2. 6 o’clock
3. 9 o’clock
2. 6 o’clock
QUESTIONS 28 THROUGH 33 REFER TO RIFLE
FIRING TECHNIQUES.
What elements do you need to align
to get a correct sight picture?
1. The rear sight only
2. The front sight only
3. The bull’s eye only
4. The rear sight, front sight, and bull’s eye
4. The rear sight, front sight, and bull’s eye
How many standard firing positions are taught
in the Navy?
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five
2. Three
Which of the following firing positions is most
useful when you are constantly firing and
moving?
1. Sitting
2. Standing
3. Kneeling
2. Standing
Which of the following firing positions is most
useful when you are on level ground or firing
uphill?
1. Sitting
2. Standing
3. Kneeling
3. Kneeling
Which of the following firing positions is most
useful when you are firing downhill?
1. Sitting
2. Standing
3. Kneeling
1. Sitting
What is the key to trigger control?
1. Squeeze the trigger smoothly, gradually,
and evenly straight to the rear
2. Placing the finger at the very tip of the
trigger
3. Constant pressure on the trigger
4. Squeeze the trigger quickly and evenly
straight to the rear
1. Squeeze the trigger smoothly, gradually,
and evenly straight to the rear
Remembering which of the following
acronyms will help you remember correct
shooting techniques?
1. AIM
2. RELAX
3. BRASS
4. SLACK
3. BRASS
You should take a breath, let out a little air,
and then hold your breath until you fire your
rifle. However, if you haven’t fired within 10
seconds, what should you do?
1. Breath normally and continue squeezing
the trigger
2. Take another breath and start the aiming
procedure over
3. Let out more air and firmly jerk the trigger
4. Continue holding your breath and start the
aiming procedure over
2. Take another breath and start the aiming
procedure over
QUESTIONS 41 THROUGH 43 REFER TO FIRING
TECHNIQUES FOR THE 9mm SERVICE PISTOL.
What is a correct sight picture?
1. Correct sight alignment and correct aiming
point
2. Off center to the target
3. Bottom of the picture
4. Top of the picture
1. Correct sight alignment and correct aiming
point
QUESTIONS 41 THROUGH 43 REFER TO FIRING
TECHNIQUES FOR THE 9mm SERVICE PISTOL.
The pistol can be accurately fired from how
many positions?
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five
2. Three
QUESTIONS 41 THROUGH 43 REFER TO FIRING
TECHNIQUES FOR THE 9mm SERVICE PISTOL.
Missing the target is most often caused by
1. sight misalignment
2. bent barrel
3. improper trigger squeeze
4. bad ammunition
3. improper trigger squeeze
The damage control organization is divided
into how many parts?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
2. Two
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF
DAMAGE CONTROL.
What person coordinates the efforts of repair
parties to control damage?
1. The damage control assistant
2. The operations officer
3. The executive officer
4. The weapons officer
1. The damage control assistant
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF
DAMAGE CONTROL.
Which of the following are duties of the
administrative organization of damage
control?
1. Records and schedules for maintenance
2. Written doctrine and procedures relating to
damage control
3. Ship’s bills
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF
DAMAGE CONTROL.
Which of the following are duties of the
executive officer?
1. Ship’s survivability training
2. Readiness to manage casualties
3. Control and recover from damage
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF
DAMAGE CONTROL.
What officer is designated as the ship’s
damage control officer?
1. The commanding officer
2. The executive officer
3. The engineer officer
4. The operations officer
3. The engineering officer
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF
DAMAGE CONTROL.
The DCA is the primary assistant to the
damage control officer. As such, the DCA
has which of the following responsibilities?
1. Training the ship’s DC personnel
2. Administration of the ship’s DC
organization
3. Maintain records of DC personnel PQS
accomplishment for all hands
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF
DAMAGE CONTROL.
What requirements must a petty officer have to
be designated as the damage control petty
officer (DCPO)?
1. Be a PO2 or above
2. Complete the PQS
3. Complete the fire-fighting school
4. Be designated by the LCPO
2. Complete the PQS
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF
DAMAGE CONTROL.
Normally, the job of DCPO is held for what
period of time?
1. 12 months
2. 9 months
3. 3 months
4. 6 months
4. 6 months
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF
DAMAGE CONTROL.
Which of the following is/are responsibilities
of the DCPO?
1. Assist in the instruction of division
personnel in damage control
2. Prepare and maintain damage control
checkoff lists for their spaces
3. Make required reports
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF
DAMAGE CONTROL.
What person is responsible for determining
the safe entry of personnel into closed or
poorly ventilated spaces?
1. The gas free engineer
2. The fire marshal
3. The DCA
4. The XO
1. The gas free engineer
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF
DAMAGE CONTROL.
What person is designated to aid the DCA
train personnel and to prevent and fight fires?
1. The gas free engineer
2. The fire marshal
3. The DCPO
4. The LCPO
2. The fire marshal
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF
DAMAGE CONTROL.
What action is taken if the fire marshal finds
hazards that relate to poor housekeeping
during a daily inspection?
1. Record and advise the responsible division
2. Submit discrepancy report to DCA with
copies to XO and department head
3. Have the division LCPO schedule
corrective action
4. Report the hazard to the safety department
2. Submit discrepancy report to DCA with
copies to XO and department head
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF
DAMAGE CONTROL.
The fire marshal has which of the following
responsibilities?
1. Submitting reports citing hazards and
recommendations for their correction
2. Setting up a fire watch team before regular
overhauls
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Inspecting the engineering department
3. Both 1 and 2 above
QUESTIONS 14 THROUGH 17 REFER TO THE
BATTLE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE
CONTROL.
What is the purpose of the ship’s damage
control battle organization?
1. To stand at ready for the battle to be over
2. To restore the ship to as near normal
operation as possible
3. To comfort injured crew members
4. When directed, to take charge of the
weapons
2. To restore the ship to as near normal
operation as possible
QUESTIONS 14 THROUGH 17 REFER TO THE
BATTLE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE
CONTROL.
In the damage control battle organization,
what person is responsible for controlling
damage; fighting fires; CBR countermeasures;
and control of stability, list, and trim?
1. The DCPO
2. The DCA
3. The XO
4. The CO
2. The DCA
QUESTIONS 14 THROUGH 17 REFER TO THE
BATTLE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE
CONTROL.
What are the primary damage control battle
organization unit(s)?
1. Repair parties
2. Navigation crew
3. Deck crews
4. Engineering personnel
1. Repair parties
QUESTIONS 14 THROUGH 17 REFER TO THE
BATTLE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE
CONTROL.
What is the nerve center of the directing force
for directing the damage control organization?
1. DCC or CCS
2. Bridge
3. Aft steering
4. DC locker 5
1. DCC or CCS
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 18 THROUGH 21,
SELECT THE REPAIR PARTY THAT IS
IDENTIFIED BY THE FUNCTION USED AS THE
QUESTION.
Main deck repair.
1. Repair 1
2. Repair 3
3. Repair 5
4. Repair 7
1. Repair 1
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 18 THROUGH 21,
SELECT THE REPAIR PARTY THAT IS
IDENTIFIED BY THE FUNCTION USED AS THE
QUESTION.
Propulsion repair.
1. Repair 1
2. Repair 3
3. Repair 5
4. Repair 7
3. Repair 5
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 18 THROUGH 21,
SELECT THE REPAIR PARTY THAT IS
IDENTIFIED BY THE FUNCTION USED AS THE
QUESTION.
Ordnance.
1. Repair 2
2. Repair 4
3. Repair 6
4. Repair 8
3. Repair 6
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 18 THROUGH 21,
SELECT THE REPAIR PARTY THAT IS
IDENTIFIED BY THE FUNCTION USED AS THE
QUESTION.
Electronic casualty control.
1. Repair 2
2. Repair 4
3. Repair 6
4. Repair 8
4. Repair 8
Each repair party should be capable of
performing which of the following functions?
1. Rigging casualty power
2. Controlling flooding
3. Extinguishing all types of fires
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
When in port, the ship has which of the
following duty section components available
to respond to any type of casualty?
1. In port emergency teams
2. Salvage teams
3. Duty DC watch
4. Deck department
1. In port emergency teams
The rescue and assistance detail must have
which of the following qualifications?
1. Be qualified as an emergency team
member
2. Be qualified in first aid
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Have passed the PRT
3. Both 1 and 2 above
General quarters is an all hands evolution—it
is the highest state of readiness of the ship.
1. True
2. False
1. True
Which of the following statements describes a
correct GQ route to follow?
1. Forward in the passageways and down
ladders on the starboard side
2. Aft in the passageways and down ladders
on the port side
3. Forward in the passageways and up ladders
on the port side
4. Aft in the passageways and up ladders on
the starboard side
1. Forward in the passageways and down
ladders on the starboard side
Which of the following is an emergency
damage control communications system?
1. 2JZ
2. 6JZ
3. X40J
4. X24J
3. X40J
What system signals override microphone
control stations to notify the ship’s crew of
imminent danger?
1. Alarms for collision, chemical attack,
general, and flight crash
2. General announcing system
3. DC controls
4. Bridge alarms
1. Alarms for collision, chemical attack,
general, and flight crash
A. COLLISION
B. CHEMICAL ATTACK
C. GENERAL
D. FLIGHT CRASH
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 29 THROUGH 31,
REFER TO FIGURE A AND SELECT THE TERM
USED TO DEFINE THE QUESTION.
This alarm is sounded by the OOD or PreFly
notifying ship’s company of a pending or
actual flight deck emergency.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
4. D
A. COLLISION
B. CHEMICAL ATTACK
C. GENERAL
D. FLIGHT CRASH
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 29 THROUGH 31,
REFER TO FIGURE A AND SELECT THE TERM
USED TO DEFINE THE QUESTION.
This alarm is sounded when there is a
possibility that the ship will be struck by
another waterborne unit.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
1. A
A. COLLISION
B. CHEMICAL ATTACK
C. GENERAL
D. FLIGHT CRASH
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 29 THROUGH 31,
REFER TO FIGURE A AND SELECT THE TERM
USED TO DEFINE THE QUESTION.
When this alarm is sounded, all hands report
to their preassigned stations and set material
condition ZEBRA.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
1. A
Which of the following means of
communications is used when all other
methods have failed?
1. Messengers
2. Sound-powered telephones
3. Morse Code
4. Bullhorn
1. Messengers
All Navy ships have how many material
conditions of readiness?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
What material condition sets the highest
degree of watertight integrity?
1. ZEBRA
2. YOKE
3. XRAY
1. ZEBRA
Which of the following fittings are closed
when condition ZEBRA is set?
1. DOG Z fittings
2. Circle X fittings
3. Y fittings
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
What means, if any, is used by repair parties to
find damage control fittings and closures in
each compartment?
1. Master alfa list
2. Compartment checkoff lists
3. DC compartment checks
4. None
2. Compartment checkoff lists
The Damage Control Closure Log is
maintained in which of the following
locations?
1. DCC
2. Quarterdeck
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Engineering spaces
1. DCC
Which of the following logs is a list of all
DC-related fittings that don’t work properly?
1. Damage Control Closure Log
2. Fire marshal pass down log
3. Inoperative Fittings and Closures Log
4. Bridge log
3. Inoperative Fittings and Closures Log
What fittings are secured when the ship is set
for “darken ship”?
1. WILLIAM
2. Circle WILLIAM
3. DOG ZEBRA
4. Circle ZEBRA
3. DOG ZEBRA
The emergency escape breathing device
(EEBD) supplies breathable air for what
maximum period of time?
1. 10 minutes
2. 15 minutes
3. 20 minutes
4. 25 minutes
2. 15 minutes
With training, you should be able to activate
the EEBD within what maximum period of
time?
1. 10 seconds
2. 20 seconds
3. 30 seconds
4. 40 seconds
3. 30 seconds
Which of the following breathing devices
should NOT be worn for fire-fighting
purposes?
1. OBA
2. SEED
3. SCBA
2. SEED
Which of the following is the primary fire
fighting tool for respiratory protection?
1. EEBD
2. SEED
3. OBA
4. SCBA
4. SCBA
From the time it is activated, each cylinder
used in the self-contained breathing apparatus
(SCBA) will last approximately what length of
time?
1. 15 minutes
2. 30 minutes
3. 45 minutes
4. 60 minutes
2. 30 minutes
Which of the following substances must be
present to start a fire?
1. Oxygen
2. Heat
3. Fuel
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
In the fire tetrahedron, how many components
are necessary for combustion?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
4. Four
Flammable materials give off vapors. What is
the lowest temperature that these vapors burn
when a spark is applied?
1. Ambient temperature
2. Room temperature
3. Flash point
4. Ignition point
3. Flash point
What term is used to describe the lowest
temperature at which spontaneous combustion
occurs?
1. Flash point
2. Ignition point
3. Ambient temperature
4. Room temperature
2. Ignition point
Heat from fire can be transferred by how many
methods?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
What method of heat transfer occurs when
heat moves from one body to another by direct
contact?
1. Conduction
2. Convection
3. Radiation
4. Reflection
1. Conduction
What method of heat transfer occurs through
the motion of smoke, hot air, and heated
gases?
1. Conduction
2. Convection
3. Radiation
4. Reflection
2. Convection
What type of heat transfer occurs when heat
moves in all direction unless blocked?
1. Conduction
2. Convection
3. Radiation
4. Reflection
3. Radiation
Which of the following agents should be used
to extinguish a class B fire?
1. Water
2. AFFF
3. PKP
4. Both 2 and 3 above
4. Both 2 and 3 above
Which of the following agents should be used
to extinguish class A or D fires?
1. Water
2. AFFF
3. PKP
4. Both 2 and 3 above
1. Water