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395 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
these drug can be used to treat both HTN and BPH
a1-blockers
*prazosin
this vinca alkaloid prevents the proper separation of chromosomes during M-phase of the cell cycle
vincristine
in which patients are ACE inhibitors contraindicated in
those with bilateral renal artery stenosis
this high sedating anti-depressant is used to treat insonmia can cause priapism
trazodone
condition associated with fever, muscle rigidity, tachycardia, HTN, hyperkalmia, and myoglobinemia soon after surgery
malignant hyperthermia
what causes malignant hyperthermia
hyerpsensitivity of skeletal muscles to anesthetics due to defect in ryanodine receptors of sarcoplasmic reticulum
DOC in malignant hyperthermia
dantrolene - acts on ryanidine receptors and prevents further Ca release
P450 inducers
barbiturates
rifampin
carbamazepine
griseofulvin
alcohol
P450 inhibitors
isoniazid
cimetidine
macrolides (azithromycin and erythromycin)
azoles
grapefruit juice
ceprofloxacin
ritonavir
first like treatment of acute gouty arthritis
NSAIDs
what are two way to reverse warfarin, which one is fastest
1. fresh frozen plasma (fastest)
2. vitamin K
understimulation of which receptor would lead to orthostatic hypotension and cerebral hypoperfusion (lightheadedness)
a1-receptors
dual mechanism of action of B-blockers during thryotoxicosis
1. decreases sympathetic response
2. decreases T4 --> T3
DOC in alcoholic with cough and foul smelling sputum
clindamycin - think aspiration pneumonia
two side effects of lithium
1. diabetes insipidus
2. hypothyroidism
Class IA antiarrhythmics
Disopyramide, Quinidine, Procainamide
*double quarter pounder
Class IB antiarrhythmics
Lidocaine, Tocainide, Mexiletine
*lettuce, tomato, mayo
Class IC antiarrhythmics
Moricizine, Flecainide, Propafenone
*More fries please
this class of antiarrhytmics causes a prolonged action potential with some inhibition of phase 0
Class IA
this class of antiarrhytmics causes shortened action potential with very weak inhibition of phase 0
Class IB
this class of antiarrhytmics has strong inhibition of phase 0 with no change of the action potential lenth
Class IC
5-HT 3 inhibitor used to treat nausea and vomiting following chemotherapy
ondansetron
ideal treatment for patient in adrenal crisis - hypotension, hypoglycemia, generalized hyperpigmentation
corticosteroids
*hydrocortisone
what are dangerous to be taking with PDE inhibitors such as viagra
nitrates - this combination can lead to severe hypotension
most common side effect of streptokinase
hemorrhage
mechanism of action of pramipexole and ropinerole
directly stimulate dopamine receptors - used for treatment of Parkinson's disease
two classes of drugs that increase cholesterol hepatic synthesis and are associated with increased risk of gallstone formation
1. fibrates
2. bile-acid binding agents (cholestyrmine, colestipol, colesevelam)
most effective prolonged treatment of duodenal ulcers
eradication with antibiotics
why must you wait 14 days before administration of SSRI after discontinuation of MAOI
monoamine oxidase re-synthesis so do not cause serotonin syndrome
mechanism of action of heparin
increases effect of Antithrombin III (AT III)
chemotherapeutic agent that inhibits sealing activity of topoisomerase II
etoposide
these analgesic drugs have decreased risk of bleeding and GI ulceration
selective COX-2 inhibitors
*celecoxib, rofecoxib
this COX-2 inhibitor is associated with increased risk of heart attack, thrombosis, and stroke
rofecoxib
why are EBV and CMV resistant to acyclovir
do not contain the same thymidine kinase needed to activate acyclovir
most dangerous adverse effect of amphotericin B
nephrotoxicity
*decreased GFR, hypokalemia, and hypomegnesemia
treatment of hypoglycemia
IM glucagon
these two drugs decrease the activity of platelet PDE3 leading to increased cAMP and PKA
dipyridamole
cilostazol
this PDE3 inhibitor is also a direct vasodilator and is used in the treatment of peripheral arterial disease
cilostazol
non-steroid anti-androgen drug that competes with testosterone and DHT for testosterone receptors used in the treatment of prostate cancer
flutamide
anti-diabetic drug contraindicated in renal failure
metformin
used for the treatment of urinary retention, paralytic ileus, and glaucoma
cholinomimetics
adverse effects of nicotinic acid
flushing (treated with aspirin)
hepatotoxicity
cholesterol drug that decreases hepatic synthesis of triglycerides and VLDL; also increases HDL
nicotinic acid
two drugs that bind erogesterol in the fungal membrane and create pores
amphotericin B
nystatin
this class of drug inhibits ergosterol synthesis
azoles
this drug inhibits glucan synthesis
caspofungin
this drug interferes with fungal RNA and protein synthesis
5-fluorocytosine
what type of drugs are preferentially processed by the liver
lipophilic - processed by liver into more polar compound to be excreted by kidney
what reduces renin release
B-blockers
preferred prophylaxis to inactivate N. meningitidis in exposed individual
rifampin
two drugs that inhibit thyroid peroxidase
methimazole
propylthiouracil
DOC for simple partial seizure
*one body part with no loss of consciousness
carbamazepine
DOC for complex partial seizure
*loss of consciousness
carbamazepine
DOC for myoclonic sezirues
*brief jerky moves with no loss of consciouness
Valproic acid
DOC for absence seizures
*starring spells
1. ethosuzimide
2. valproate
diuretic associated with causing ototoxicity
loop diuretics
common side effects of SSRIs in men
sexual dysfunction
what happens to neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, basophils, and eosinophils concentrations in corticosteroid use
increased neutrophil count
decreased everything else
DOC in patient with both absence and tonic-clonic seizures
valproate
Ca channel blockers used in HTN that can lead to flushing and edema
amlodipine
nifedipine
how do human tumor cells resist chemotherapy agents
human multidrug resistance gene (MDR1) - ATP-dependent efflux pump
what increases the peripheral metabolism of levodopa decreasing it effectiveness
Vit. B6
constant amount of drug being metabolized no matter the concentration of drug present
zero-order elimination
*first-order is dependent on drug concentration
what does organophosphate poisoning result in
AChE inhibition leading to increased amount of ACh available and overactivity of muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
two drugs used in the reversal of symptoms in organophosphate poisoning
1. atropine - inhibits muscarinic receptors
2. pralidoxime - inhibits both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
what can occur if only atropine is given to patient with organophosphate poisoning
muscle paralysis due to overstimulation of nicotinic receptors
what activates both 6-mercaptopurine and 6-thioguanine
HGPRT
what enzyme degrades 6-mercaptopurine
what drug would increase the concentration of 6-mercaptopurine
xanthine oxidase degrades 6-mercaptopurine
allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase leading to increased concentration of 6-mercaptopurine
this class of drugs improves both positive and negative symptoms in schizophrenic
atypical antipsychotics
atypical antipsychotics
clozapine
resperidone
olanzapine
quetiapine
high and low potency typical antipsychotics
high - haloperidol, fluphenazine, pimozide
low - chlorpromazine and thioridazine
which drug is metabolized into phenobartital and phenylethylmalonamide
primidone
antiplatelet agent that inhibits platelet surface ADP receptor
clopidrogrel
bind to PBP (transpeptidases) in bacterial peptidoglycan layer
penicillins
cephalosporins
differentiate AV gradient, solubility, and onset of action in anesthetic agents
highly solubility - increased AV concnetration with slow onset of action
low solubility - decreased AV concentration with rapid onset of action
direct thrombin inhibitors used in the treatment of heparin-induced thryombocytopenia
argatroban
hirudin
lepirudin
these drugs blocks GpIIb/IIIa receptor to prevent platelet aggregation
abciximab
eptifibatide
tirofiban
two drugs that inhibit ADP mediated platelet aggregation
clopidogrel
ticlopidine
drug that can reverse methotrexate toxicity
folinic acid - doesn't need to be converted to THF by DHF reductase
DHF reducatase inhibitor
methotrexate
effects of a1-receptor stimulation
increased blood pressure
contraction of urethral sphincter
mydriasis
effects of B2-receptor stimulation
decreased blood pressure
bronchodilation
relaxation of uterus (tocolysis)
most potent class of diuretics, used for treating edema
loop diuretics
these diuretics work at the descending limb of Henele and cause water to be drawn into the lumen
osmotic diuretics
DOC of anaphylactic shock
*vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, increased vessel permeability
epinephrine - a1, B1, and B2 receptor agonist
PPAR-y agonists
thiazolinidiones
effects of PPAR-y
increased adiponectin
increased fatty acid transport protein
increased insulin receptors
increased GLUT-4
this antifungal agent inhibits the synthesis of ergosterol by decreased the enzyme squaline epoxidase
terbinafine
this antifungal binds polymerized microtubules and disrupts fungal mitotic spindle formation (inhibits mitosis)
griseofulvin
B-lactamase inhibitors
clavulanic acid
sulbactam
tazobactam
depolarizing NMJ blocker that is not reversed by AChE agents
succinylcholine
what are non-polarizing NMJ blockers reversed
AChE agents such as neostigmine
contraindicated in patients with asthma or COPD for treatment of heart failure
non-selective B blockers
COMT inhibitors used to increased availability of levodopa to the brain
entacapone
talcapone
differentiate entacapone and talcapone
entacapone - inhibits peripheral methylation of levodopa
talcapone - inhibits both peripheral and central methylation of levodopa (associated with hepatotoxicity)
which COMT inhibitor is associated with hepatotoxicity
talcapone
precursor amino acid of serotonine
tryptophan
effects of serotonin syndrome
restlessness, tremor, tachycardia, HTN, clonus, hyperreflexia, diaphoresis
antihistamine with anti-serotonergic properties used for the treatment of serotonin syndrome
cyproheptadine
two organism that cause urethritis in men - dysuria and mucopurulent discharge
treatment for each
N. gonorrhoeae - ceftriaxone
C. trachomatic - azithromycin
DOC for oropharyngeal candidiasis
nystatin
DOC for essential tremor
propanol
DOC to slow progression and reduce all-cause mortality in patients with heart failure
carvedilol
PDE inhibitor that increases cardiac contractility and decreases both preload and afterload
milrinone
mechanism of action of digitalis
blocks Na/K ATPase and causes slowing of conduction through AV node - bradycardia
what increases susceptibility to digitalis
hypokalemia
adverse effects of digitalis toxicity
nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, headache, dizziness, confusion, hyperkalemia
drugs used for treatment of atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response
Ca channel blockers - verapamil and diltiazem
B-blockers
Digoxin
DOC for HTN in patients with bradycardia
nifedipine
amlodipine
two drugs that inhibit thymidylate formation
methotrexate - DHF reductase inhibitor
5-fluorouracil - inhibits thymidylate synthetase
side effects of ACE inhibitor
1. decreased GFR (decreased ATN II)
2. hyperkalemia (decreased aldosterone)
3. cough (increased bradykinin)
how is digoxin predominantly cleared, what must you do in elderly person
renal clearance
need to decrease dose due to decreased GFR in elderly individual
adverse effects of antipsychotics
galactorrhea due to hyperprolactinemia
tradive dydkinesia
associated with disulfiram-like effects
metronidazole
how many half life does it take to reach steady state concentration (~95%)
4 half lives
most effective treatment for TCA-associated cardiac abnormalities
sodium bicarb
antidepressant with quinidine-like effect on cardiac conduction system causing QRS and QR prolongation and cardiac dysrhythmias
TCAs
mechanism of action of B-blocker (timolol) in glaucoma
decreases acqueous humor production by the ciliary epithelium
why is chlamydia trachomatis not effectively treated by ceftriaxone with young person presents with dysuria and discharge
lacks PG wall
*need azithromycin
selective dopamin receptor agonist that causes arteriolar dilation and natruresis
fenoldapam
antihypertensive drug food for patients with renal insufficiency
fenoldapam
*selective dopamin agonist
this asthma drug only reverses vagally-mediated bronchoconstriction
ipatropium
mechanism of vasodilatory effect of cholinergic agonists
binds to muscarinic recpetors on endothelial cells and promote release of NO
drugs most effective for motion sickness
scopolamine - antimuscarinic
meclizine - 1st generation antihistamine (has antimuscarinic properties)
treatment for mycobacterium avium complex
azithromycin
treatment for focal numbness and tingling that fully resolves within minutes
aspirin
*most likely a TIA
nitrate with 100% bioavailability
isosorbide mononitrate
best drug to stop cellular reaction and inflammation reaction in patient with asthma
corticosteroids
drugs used to control severe opthalmopathy in Grave's disease
corticosteroids
antihistamine with minimal sedative and antimuscarinic effects
2nd generation antihistamines
effects of 1st generation antihistamines
H1 blockers
antimuscarinic
antiserotinergic
a1-blocker
cross blood brain barrier
mycobacterial resistance to isoniazid
non-expression of catalase-peroxidase enzyme, needs this to become active and inhibit mycolic acid synthesis
dihydrofolate reductase inhibitors
trimethoprim (bacteria)
methotrexate (cancer)
pyramethamine (protozoa)
adverse effects associated with statins
hepatits
myopathy
toxicities associated with niacin
cutaneous vasodilation
hyperuricemia (gout)
hepatitis
adverse effects associated with fibrates
gallstones
adverse effects associated with bile-acid resins
hypetriglyceridemia
two drugs associated with drug-induced lupus
procainamide
hydralazine
treatment for postoperative urinary retention
bethanacol
adverse effects of INH
hepatotoxic
decrease B6
what diuretic is associated with elevations of LDL, calcium, uric acid, glucose
thiazide diuretics
drug toxicity associated with changes in color vision, anorexia, ventricular dysrhythmia, fatigue, confusion
digoxin toxicity
this neurotoxin blocks the presynpatic release of ACh
botulinum neurotoxin
adverse effect of osmotic diuresis (mannitol)
pulmonary edema
what can prevent tissue necrosis at the injection site of NE
a1 blocking drugs - phentolamine
differentiate amount of liter in plasma and interstitial space
how do drugs become trapped in plasma
3-5 liters in plasma - drugs that are increased MW, plasma protein bound, increased charge, and hydrophilic are trapped in plasma
14-16 liters of plasma + interstitial space - opposite characteristics
medication of choice for gestational diabetes
insulin
this first-line TB drug requires an acidic environment within the phagolysosome to exert antimicrobial effect
pyraziramide
nucleoside monophosphate that doesn't need conversion by herpesvirus kinase for conversion
cidofovir
what drug class if combined with benzodiazepines can cause significant sedation
1st generation antihistamines
properties of poorly soluble inhaled anesthetics
1. less amount to saturate blood
2. increased rise in tension of gas in blood
3. increased equilibration within the braine
4. increased onset of action
primary effect of nitroglycerin
venodilator
three drugs that inhibit androgen receptor complex on target cells
flutamide
cyproterone acetate
spironolactone
structural analogues of pyrophosphate, an important component of hydroxyapatite
biphosphonates
nonselective (B1 and B2) antagonist
propanolol
nonselective (B1 and B2) agonist
isoproterenol
nonselective (a1 and a2) antagonist
phentolamine
nonbenzodiazepine drug that has benzodiazpine mechanism of action used for insomnia
zolpidem
two effects of digoxin
1. increased cardiac contractility by blocking Na/K ATPase
2. decreased AV nodal conduction by increased parasympathetic tone
dobutamine
selective B1 agonsit
final common pathway of gastric acid secretion from parietal cell
proton pump
*inhibited by omeprazole, lanzoprazole
aminoglycoside that inactivates 30S ribosomal unit in TB
streptomycin
all patients being treated with etanercept should be screened for what
latent TB
*TNF-a inhibitor
TNF-a inhibitor
etanercept
TB drug associated with causing optic neuritis that results in color blindness and decreased visual acuity
ethambutol
two classes of drugs associated with medication-induced body fat redistribution
HIV-protease inhibitors
glucocorticoids
selective inhibitors of aromatase
anastrozole
adverse effects associated with volatile anesthetics
increased cerebral blood flow
myocardial depression
hypotension
decreased renal function
antidepressant that does not cause sexual dysfunction
buproprion
antidepressant associated with seizures
bupropion
how to prevent acyclovir crystalline nephropathy
adequate hydration
cholinesterase inhibitor used in the treatment of Alzheimers
donepezil
three drugs used in the treatment of Alzheimers
1. donepezil (cholinesterase inhibitor)
2. vitamin E
3. memantine (NMDA antagonist)
NMDA antagonist used in the treatment of Alzheimers
memantine
inhibits tubulin polymerization and microtubule formation in leukocytes; used for treatment of acute gouty arthritis
colchicine
adverse effects associated with colchicine
N/V
diarrhea
three mood stabilizing drugs
lithium
valproic acid (anti-siezure)
carbamazepime(anti-seizure)
what class of drugs should not be used in patients with DM
nonselective B blockers
masks the symptoms of hypoglycemia
what should be monitored in patients taking amiodarone
thyroid function
adverse effects of amiodarone
thyroid toxicosis
corneal micro-deposits
pulmonary fibrosis
drug-related hepatitis
two drugs used for treatment of increased LDL
statins
ezetimibe
two drugs used for treatment of increased triglycerides
fibrates
niacin
selectively inhibits intestinal reabsorption of cholesterol
ezetimibe
this class of drugs activate PPAR -alpha
fibrates
mechanism of DDAVP (desmopressin analog) in patients with bleeding problem
induces endothelial release of vWF in deficient patients
adverse effect associated with thiazolidinediones
fluid retention with weight gain and edema
what three drugs can lead to increased lithium levels and toxicity
thiazide diuretics
NSAIDs
ACE inhibitors
lithium toxicity
NM excitability (tremors, fascicular twitching)
agitation
ataxia
delirium
thiol-based cytoprotective free-radical scavanging agent used to decrease nephrotoxicty associated with platinum-containing agents (cisplatin)
amifostine
two way to decreased nephrotoxicity in patients with platinum-containing agents (cisplatin)
1. hydration with saline to increase choride diuresis
2. amifostine (free radical scavanger)
decrease the progression of diabetic nephropathy
ACE inhibitors
ARBs
what class of drugs can prevent MPTP-induced damage of dopaminergic neurons
MAO inhibitors
MAO inhibitors
selegiline
phenelzine
tranylcypromine
this antiarrhythmic has block B-blocking and K-blocking properties; associated with prolongation of PR and QT intervals
sotalol
class 3 antiarrhythmics
amiodarone
ibutilide
dofetilide
sotalol
neuramidase inhibitors that impair release of newly formed virions
oseltamivir
zanamivir
drug used for chelation therapy for Wilson's disease
penicillamine
what does para-aminobenzoid acid-containing sunscreens protect against
only UVB
side effects associated with nitrates
throbbing headache and facial flushing
best treatment to increase HDL concentration
niacin - better than diet and exercise
DOC in patient with HTN and chronic ischemia heart disease
ACE inhibitors
how do enterococci resist aminoglycosides
transfer chemical groups to the drug and impair the antibiotic binding ability
how do enterococci resist penicillins
beta-lactamases
have decreased affinity PBPs
what have to the testosterone and DHT concentrations when leuprolide is given
GnRH agonist causes increased concentrations initially, then they decrease for the desired effect
what antilipid drugs can increased TGs
bile-acid binding resins
inhibit both the synthesis and release of thryoid hormones
iodide salts
competitive inhibitors of iodide uptake by thyroid gland
perchlorate
pertechnate
mechanism of axn of class III antiarrhythmics
slow K efflux from ventricle myocyte and prolong repolarization and refractory period
*increased QT interval
major cause of mordity and mortality in theophylline overdose
seizures
treatment for drug-induced parkinsonism caused by antipsychotics
centrally acting antimuscarinics
*trihyexyphenidyl, benztropine
treatment for acetominophen toxicity
N-acetylcysteine (sulfhydryl donor)
*also acts as glutathione substitute
why is active TB never treated with monotherapy
because selective survival of bacterial cells secondary to gene mutation can occur
mechanism of axn of nitroglycerin in patients with stable angina
venodilator causing decreased myocardial oxygen demand by decreased LV filling volume (preload) and cardiac work
drugs that can be used in Conn's syndrome
spironolactone
eplerenone
two functions of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
1. relieve intraocular pressure in glaucoma
2. acts of PCT as diuretic
androgen receptor blocker associated with gynecomastia
spironolactone
antilipid drug associated with increased CK due to myopathy
statins
drug that irreversibly acetylates COX-1 and -2
aspirin
taking this anticoagulant can result in paradixical thrombus in patients with deficiency in protein C and S
warfarin
*inhibits protein C and S synthesis
mechanism of axn of carbamazepine
blocks voltage-gated Na channels in neuronal membranes
*used for simple/complex partial seizures, and tonic-clonic seizures
antiseizure drug associated with bone marrow suppression
carbamazepine
differentiate side effects associated with high vs. low potency antipsychotics
high - extrapyramidal
low - anti-cholinergic and anti-histamine effects
given this opioid drug can cause withdrawal symptoms in patients who are dependent or tolerant to opioid use
pentazocine
this opioid drug is a partial k agonist and a weak u antagonist
pentazocine
what should be advised in patients taking inhaled corticosteroids for asthma
rinse mouth to prevent oropharyngeal candidiasis
enterococci resistance to vancomycin
D-lactate substitution for D-alanine
direct arteriolar vasodilators
hydralazine
minoxidil
what should be given along with direct arteriolar vasodilators
B-blockers and diuretics due to tachycardia and edema reflex in this drug use
side effects of direct arteriole vasodilators
reflex tachycardia
edema
antagonist of heparin
protamine sulfate
this class of antiarrhythmics are selective for rapidly and frequently depolarizing cells
Class 1B
this anticoagulant is able to bind both AT III and thrombin to allow AT III to inactivate thrombin
unfractionated heparin
Factor Xa inhibitor
fondaparinux
use of what other medication should be questioned when thinking of prescribing ACE inhibitors to avoid first-dose hypotension
diuretic use
treatment for patients experiencing: AV block, Bell's palsy, asymmetric large joing arthritis
lyme disease - doxycycline or penicillin-type
class of drugs used to diagnose and treat myasthenia gravis
AChE inhibitors
*physostigmine, edrophonium
newer anticonvulsant that may cause hypersensitivity skin rash; should discontinue immediately
lamotrigine
treatment to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis in patients taking cyclophosphamide
mesna
*sulfhydryl compound
this blocks the storage of adrenergic mediators in presynpatic vesicles and predisposes patients to depression
reserpine
DOC for hypertensive emergency
nitroprusside
toxicity that can result from nitroprusside use
cyanide toxicity
treatment for cyanide toxicity seen in patients taking nitroprusside
sodium thiosulfate
receptor that increased both systolic and diastolic BP, cause vagal-mediated decreased in HR, contractility, and conductance
a1-agonists
what should be recommended to patients taking nitrates
have nitrate-free period everyday to avoid tolerance
what does inhibition of fatty acid oxidation do in myocardial cells
shift energy production to glucose oxidation and decreases amount of O2 needed to support cardiac function
akathisia
movement disorder characterized by restlessness caused by antipsychotic therapy
what is rat poison analogous go
warfarin
a-glucosidase inhibitors
acarbose
miglitol
mechanism of axn of a-glucosidase inhibitors
decreased activity of membrane-bound disaccharidases on brush border
drugs used to treat baldness in men
finasteride
*5-a-reductase inhibitor
severe adverse effect in thioamides (antithyroid) drugs
agrnulocytosis, need WBC count with differential in patients receiving this medication
thioamides
methimazole
proprylthiouracil
how can hypokalemia secondary to ACE inhibitors happen
in patients with renal insufficiency or taking K-sparing diuretics (amiloride, triamterene, spironolactone)
K-sparing diuretics
amiloride
triamterene
spironolactone
eplerenone
mechanism of action of benzodiazepines, barbiturates, alcohol
bind to GABAa receptors and facilitate their inhibitory action
selective 5-HT1A agonist that is used for generalized anxiety disorder with reduced abuse potential
buspirone
treatment of bradycardia in patients with inferior MI
atropine
*inferior MI from RCA block causes bradycardia due to involvement in SA/AV nodes
patient being treated for their bradycardia post-inferior MI develops eye pain, what medication are they on
atropine - increased intraocular pressure leads can precipitate glaucoma
adverse effect associated with chloramphenicol
aplastic anemia
anti-progestin that can be used to terminate early pregnancy
mifepristone
purine analog resistant to adenosine deaminase, DOC for hairy cell leukemia
cladribine
class of drugs to reverse atropine poisoning
cholinesterase inhibitors
what is Jimson weed analogous to
atropine
drugs that can provide quick relief of symptoms in rheumatoid arthritis, only used for short-term therapy
glucocorticoids
what mediates the cutaneous vasodilation seen in niacin therapy
prostaglandins
neurotransmitter and receptor type involved in the different target cells of sympathetic chain ganglia
sweat glands - ACh (muscarainic)
visceral organs and glands - NE
renal vasculature - D1
what neurotransmitter and receptor type activates sympathetic chain ganglia from spinal column
ACh (nicotinic)
what neurotransmitter and receptor type activates adrenal medulla from spinal column
ACh (nicotinic)
parasympathetic activation of target cells from spinal columna
spinal column --> ACh(N) --> ACh (M) on target cell
drug combination that increases risk for myopathy in dyslipidemia
statins plus fibrates
durg combination that increases risk for cholesterol gallstones in dyslipidemia
fibrates plus bile-acid resins
fibrates
gemfibrozil
fenofibrate
equation for bioavailability using area under the curve
F = AUC oral drug/AUC IV drug
*if same dosage of each is taken
**if not same dosage, multiply the top by IV dose and bottom by oral dose
DOC to prevent cerebral vascular spasm following subarachnoic hemorrhage
nimodipine
*calcium channel blocker
what two side effects are not subject to tolerance in opioid use
miosis
constipation
spironolactone has been shown to reduce morbidity and mortality in heart failure
**
mechanism of action of phenytoin and carbamazepine
decrease ability of Na channel to recover from inactivation
mechanism of action of ethosuximide
blocks T-type Ca channels in thalamic neurons causing hyperpolarization
blocks NMDA, K, Na, and GABA
valproic acid
competitive antagonist of endothelial receptors for treatment of idiopathic pulmonary HTN
bosentan
preferred treatment for DKA
regular insulin
administration of what may prevent thyroid absorption of radioactive iodine isotopes by competitive inhibition
potassium iodide
mechanism of action of nitrates
increase cGMP leading to decreased intracellular calcium and myosin dephosphorylation
GP IIb/IIIa receptor blocker
abciximab
commonly used in treatment of agitated patient
haloperidol
drug most commonly associated with neuroleptic malignant syndrome (hyperthermia, rigidity, autonomic instability, altered mental status)
haloperidol
drug chemically similar to vitamin B6
INH
antilipid drug that can potentiate effects of antihypertensive drugs due to vasodilatory effects and may cause insulin resistance
niacin
chelating agent used in the treatment of arsenic poisoning
dimercaprol
blockage of what results in flushed skin and mydriasis
muscarinic receptor blockade
classes of drugs that also have anticholinergic properties
TCAs
1st generation antihistamines
low potency antipsychotics
parkinson drugs
treatment of hirsutism in women
spironolactone
this opioid antagonist has the greatest affinity for which receptor
u-receptor more than k and d
atypical antipsychotic D4 receptor antagonist that is associated with agranulocytosis
clozapine
HIV drug class associated with hyperglycemia, lipodystrophy, and inhibition of P450
protease inhibitors
what is the effect of low dose dopamine administration
increased contractility via B1 receptors
increased renal blood flow
*epinephrine causes increased contractility with decreased renal blood flow
best drug for long-term treatment for chronic gout
allopurinol
this can cross the BBB and reverse both CNS and peripheral symptoms of atropine toxicity, DOC
physostigmine
cleaves the disulfide bonds within mucous glycoproteins and loosens thick sputum in CF
N-acetylcysteine
leads to endometrial hyperplasia and thromboembolism because is both estrogen agonist and antagonist
tamoxifen
drug used in patients with hypercalcuria
hydrochlorothiazide
what do class III and class IA antiarrhythmics have in common
both prolong QT interval due to slowing of phase 3 repolarization
*amiodarone does not predispose to torsades de pointes like others
patients presents with constipation after treatment of atrial fibrillation with ventricular tachyarrhythmias, drug that was given
verapamil
*calcium channel blocker
depletion of what electrolyte leads to muscle weakness and cramping
potassium
this class of drugs does not require activation via intracellular phosphorylation in the treatment of HIV
non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
NNRTIs
nevirapine
efavirenz
delaviridine
NtRTIs
tenofovir
adefovir
NRTIs
zidovudine
didanosine
stavudine
lamivudine
abacavir
this class of NSAIDs will not impair platelet function
selective COX-2 inhibitor
drug that mother was taking in child born with apical displacement of TV, decreased RV volume, and atrialization of RV
lithium
inhibit the synthesis of ergosterol by inhibiting P450 enzymes
azoles
inhibit carbohydrate polymerization and therefore prevents PG cell wall synthesis in TB
emthambutol
how is INH metabolized
acetylation - different people are fast or slow acetylators
*slow acetylators are at risk of adverse effects (peripheral neuropathy, hepatotoxicity)
mechanism for ACE inhibitor causing increased creatinine and BUN
decreased filtration fraction due to decreased ATN II not being able to constrict the efferent arteriole
what kind of drug metabolism do drug-induced lupus associated drugs undergo
metabolized by N-acetylation in the liver
*procainamide and hydralazine
what is the essential protein in activation of IL-2
calcineurin
what two drugs inhibit calcineurin and therefore IL-2
cyclosporine
tacrolimus
what are 3Hz spikes of EEG associated with
absence seizures
what side effects of levodopa can actually worsen with administration with carbidopa
behavioral changes such as anxiety and agitation, more levodopa is available to the brain
best treatment for chronic cough caused by ACE inhibitor
change to ARB
what happens to: renin, ATN I and II, Aldosterone, and bradykinin with administration of ACE inhibitor
increased renin, ATN I, and bradykinin
decreased ATN II and Aldosterone
what class of antibiotics are structurally similar to D-ala-D-ala
penicillins
what do statins do to LDL receptor density on the liver
increased LDL receptor density to uptake more LDL
what does decreased minimal alveolar concentration signify
increased potency because less drug is needed to saturate the blood
what do class III antiarrhythmics (B-blockers) do to AV conduction and the PR interval
decrease AV conduction leading to increased PR interval
what class of drugs are associated with causing dilated cardiomyopathy
anthracyclines (doxorubicin and daunorubicin)
mechanism how TCAs cause arrhythmias
inhibit fast Na channels in conduction system (bundle of His)
what are the actions of TCAs
1. inhibit reuptake of NE and 5-HT
2. antimuscarinic
3.. a1-agonist
4.. inhibit fast Na channels
most common cause of death in TCA overdose
arrhythmia
what drug is associated with neutropenia and presents with fever and mouth ulcers
ticlodipine (ADP receptor inhibitor that decreases platelet aggregation)
toxicity associated with vincristine
peripheral neuropathy
what is used to monitor warfarin and heparin respectively
warfarin - PT
heparin - aPTT
what would drugs target against gp41 and gp120 do to HIV virions
gp41 inhibition would prevent viral membrane fusion with target cell
gp120 inhibition would prevent virion attachment to target cell
DOC for RSV infection in young child presenting with bronchiolitis
ribaviron
drug associated with gingival hyperplasia
phenytoin
*due to increased PDGF
mechanism of action of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
do not contain 3'-OH group making 5'-3' phosphodiester linkage formation impossible
mechanism of action of hydroxyurea
increases HbF synthesis
mechanism of action of oral contraceptives
inhibit ovulation by decreases release of FSH and LH via decreased GnRH
major polysaccharide component of fungal cell wall
what drug inhibits this production
glucan
caspofungin
what is unique about Foscarnet
pyrophosphate analog that does not require intracellular activation by viral or cellular kinases
what is Foscarnet used for
gangciclovir-resistant CMV
acyclovir-resistant HSV
what symptom of Grave's disease is not improved with prapanolol administration
expothalmos
what happens to: renin, ATN I and II, Aldosterone, and bradykinin in ARB administration
increased renin, ATN I and II
decreased aldosterone
no change to bradykinin
what happens to: renin, ATN I and II, Aldosterone, and bradykinin with administration of B-blocker
decreased renin, ATN I and II, Aldosterone
no change to bradykinin
two effects of PDE3 inhibitors
1. increased contractility via increased cAMP
2. vasodilation via increased cAMP
DOC for treating patient with opioid addiction
methodone due to very long half-life
DOC for non MRSA S. aureus infection
nafcillin
DOC for pregnant patient with DVT
heparin
involuntary perioral movements caused by antipsychotics
tardive dyskinesia
mechanism of action of polyethylene glycol
osmotic laxative
this estrogen binding drug inhibits osteoporosis
raloxifene
DOC for trigeminal neuralgia
carbamazepine
DOC for B-blocker overdose
glucagon
*increases HR and contractility independently of adrenergic receptors
mechanis of action for glucagon causing increased HR and contracility
activates G-protein receptors on cardiac myocytes causing increased cAMP; independent of adrenergic receptors
two drugs that bind ergosterol; they can also bind cholesterol in human cell membranes leading to nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxicity
amphotericin B
nystatin
mechanism of macular degeneration
increased VEGF causing angiogenesis
what class of drugs can lead to reactivation of latent TB
TNF-a inhibitors
*influximab, etanercept, adalimumab
TNF-a inhibitors
influximab
etanercept
adalimumab
opiate antidiarrheal drugs
diphenoxylate
loperamide
what can TCAs do in patients with BPH
cause urinary retention due to antimuscarinic effects
TCAs
clomipramine
amitryptiline
nortryptiline
doxepine
imipramine
antipsychotic associated with retinal deposits that resemble retinitis pigmentosa
thioridazine
antipsychotic associated with corneal deposits
chlorpromazine
adverse effect of olazipine (antipsychotic)
weight gain
what class of drugs can preceipitate mania in patients with bipolar disorder
antidepressants
binding of which type of receptor is associated with Na and Ca influx with K efflux without use of cAMP or IP3
nicotinic
preferred treatment for patients with moderate RA, may cause stomatitis and liver function abnormalities
methotrexate
what drug is associated with precipitating angioedema due to bradykinin accumulation
ACE inhibitors
antimycobacterial drug that blocks the action of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase inhibiting transcription
rifampin
equation for calculating half life
t1/2 = Vd x 0.7 / Cl
what is the cause of rapid plasma decay of barbiturate anesthetic
rapid redistribution of the drug to other tissues
first-line DOC for management of status epilepticus
what is administered simultaneously to prevent recurrence
benzodiazepines
phenytoin
two drugs that inhibit neurotransmitter reuptake in adrenergic synapses
coccaine
TCAs
what drug is used in long-term prevention of recurrent venous thromboembolisms
warfarin
mechanism of action of warfarin
inhibits K-dependent glutamic acid residues (II, VII, IX, X, protein C and S)
what type of benzodiazepines are associated with increased risk of falling in elderly
long-acting cause most drowsiness, but are least addicting
*diazepam and flurazepam
what does activation of alpha and Beta receptors do to insulin secretion
a-receptors stimulation inhibits insulin secretion
B-receptors stimulation stimulates insulin secretion
Normally, administration of epinephrine inhibits insulin secretion. what would pretreatment with a-blocker then do to insulin secretion
cause epinephrine to secrete insulin via B-receptor
what does INH do to vitamin B6
causes increased urinary excretion due to similar properties with itself, leads to defective synthesis of neurotransmitters and peripheral neuropathies
what drug can cause generalized lymphadenopathy
phenytoin
DOC for quick action in people with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
adenosine
adverse effects of adenosine administration
bronchospasm
flushing
high grade heart block
adverse effect of Foscarnet
chelates Ca and promotes renal wasting of Mg leading to hypocalcemia and hypomagnesmia
mechanism of action for thiazolidinidiones
decreases insulin resistance by binding PPAR-y, a transcription regulator of genes involved in glucose and lipid metabolism
*also increases adiponectin
DOC for listeria monocytogenes infection
ampicillin
do benzodiazepines increase the frequency or duration of GABAa receptors when they activate them
frequency of them opening
inhibits leukocyte migration and phagocytosis by blocking tubulin polymerization
colchicine
nonselective irreversible a-adrenergic antagonist that decreases number of receptors available for NE binding
phenoxybenzamine
inhibits mast cell degranulation
cromalyn
short-acting barbiturate used for anesthesia
sodium thiopental
what two drugs when combined can have additive negative chronotropic effects yielding bradycardia and hypotension
B-blockers and verapamil/diltiazem
adverse effect associated with gangciclovir; precipitated even more with co-administration with zidovudine
neutropenia
used for prophylaxis for post-infected individual with N. meningitidis
rifampin
what is contraindicated in patients taking oral contraceptives
smoking
most common cause of retinitis in HIV positive patient
CMV retinitis
*treat with gangciclovir