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89 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
How long does the mare cycle generally last?
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18-21 days
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in the mare cycle ______generally remains constant at 14-15 days and _____ varies in length.
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Diestrus
estrus |
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the duration of ____ gets shorter in June/July
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estrus
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Which of the following statements is TRUE of the equine cycle?
a) LH begins to fall after ovulation b) ovulation occurs 4 days before the end of estrus c) mares only have 1 follicular wave during cycles d) failure of PGF may cause shortened diestrus |
C
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in the mare PGF2 reach the ovaries by a _____route
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systemic
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decreased day length is generally associated with _____melatonin, which _______ to GnRH
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increasing melatonin
inhibits GnRH |
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on examination the vulva should be no more than ____ off the vertical
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10 degree
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True/False
during estrus the cervix is relaxed and the external os is visible & suspending above the floor of the vagina |
False
external os droops to the floor of vagina |
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aspiration of air into the vagina as a result of incompentent vestibulo-vaginal sphincter is termed?
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pneumovagina
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A Caslick's & perineoplasty are treatment for what condition?
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pneumovagina
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Which type of perineal laceration consists of a tear through vagina into rectum w/ ripping of perineal body, anal sphincter, and vulva forming a cloaca?
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third degree perineal laceration
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A tear through the vagina into rectum leaving a communicating tract b/t the vagina and rectum is termed?
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recto-vaginal fistula
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How should a recto-vaginal fistula be repaired?
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-delay surgery until primary healing has occurred
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Which of the following is FALSE about equine palpation per rectum?
a)the uterus is soft during estrus & firm & tubular during diestrus b) the cervix and uterus are palpable c) Corpus luteum is identifiable on ultrasound d) CH is easy to identify on palpation |
D
CH & CL are difficult to identify on palpation |
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How does the anatomy of the equine ovary differ from the cow?
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the medullary zone is on the surface and the cortical zone on the inside
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Why is the CL often not readily palpable per rectum?
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it does not protrude from the surface & distort the shape of the ovary as in the cow
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Which of the following is FALSE?
a) large follicle are only present during one stage of the estrus cycle b) ovulation is always thru the ovulation fossa c) the right ovary is more cranial d) granulosa-thecal cell & teratomas are the most common ovarian neoplasia |
A
large follicles can be found during ALL stages of estrus |
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What 3 things may be assessed by uterine biopsy?
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1) endometritis
2) periglandular fibrosis & nesting of endometrial glands 3) lymphatic lacunae |
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Which of the following is TRUE of attempts to shorten the late transitional period?
a) tx not successful in anestrus mares b) P4 or P&E may be used c) may have benefits w/ mares under lights d) Altenogest may be used e) all are true |
E
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What 2 drugs may be used to advance ovulation during late transition?
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hCG & GnRH
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How long after hCG administration will ovulation occur?
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48hrs
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True/False
some mares may return to anestrus after induced ovulation |
TRUE
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What is Deslorelin used for?
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advancing ovulation
multiple tx required |
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What size must follicles be to give hCG for induction of ovulation?
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greater than 35mm
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Which of the following is NOT an indication for PGF2?
a) advance timing of 2nd estrus b) induced ovulation c) induced abortion d) tx of persistent luteal fxn e) estrus synchronization |
B
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When may PGF be used to cause luteolysis of the CL?
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6 days postovulation
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T/F
injection of PGF 9days postovulation is best for shortening interovulatory interval |
FALSE
injection of PGF more than 9days postovulation is DOES NOT significantly shorten interovulatory interval |
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estrus will begin _____days after stopping P4 tx and ovulation will be ___days after last tx
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4-7days
7-12 |
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When does foal heat occur?
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10 days post foaling
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What is the normal gestation length?
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335-342 days
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Foals born before ______are considered premature
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320 days
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foaling before _____days is considered abortion
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300days
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long gestation is over ____days
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360
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a birth of a foal at a normal gestation length but immature is termed?
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dysmature
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When does the embryonic vesicle stop moving and become fixed in place at the base of one horn?
a) day 25 b) day 16 c) day 2-3 d) 2days after ovulation |
B
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T/F
fixation is not fetal-maternal attachment but is caused by enlargement of the embryonic vesicle and tone of uterus |
TRUE
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Which of the following is TRUE of endometrial cups?
a) secrete eCG b) assist in formation of supplementary CLs c) during pregnancy loss mare will not return to estrus until endometrial cups regress d) all are true |
D
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ovariectomy usually does not cause abortion after ______-days
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100-140 days
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when do progestins of fetoplacental orgin appear in the mares circulation?
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3-60days
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When are embryonic vesicles detectable on ultrasound?
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9-10days
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when is the heartbeat of the embryo dectectable?
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24-26 days
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Which of the following can NOT be used for pregnancy detection in the mare?
a) hCG b) estrogens c) ultrasound d) PGF e) rectal palpation |
D
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Which of the following is NOT a way to predict time of foaling?
a) increase in Ca & Mg b) accumulation of wax on teat c) monitoring milk secretions d) all are correct |
D
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List 4 indication for induction of foaling
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1) high risk pregnancy
2) research 3) teaching 4) convenience |
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Which membrane should appear first in parturition?
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amnion
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what is a "red bag"
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chorion separates from uterus an dred, velvety surface appears rather than the white amnion
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T/F
a partial retained placenta is more likely to occur in the gravid horn |
FALSE
more likely in non gravid horn |
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Which of the following is suspected when a postpartum mare has mild colic that is unresponsive to analgesics?
a) invagination of uterine horn b) retained placenta c) uterine prolapse d) uterine rupture |
A
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during which stage does uterine rupture normally occur?
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2nd stage
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Which is FALSE of internal hemorrhage due to parturition?
a) hematomas may be found on subsequent prebreeding exams b) left side more commonly ruptured c) common in mare >10yrs d) external iliac artery less common rupture |
B
right uterine artery more common |
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Which of the following is FALSE of twin births?
a) twin pregnancies result in abortion of only one twin b) twins account for about 2% of births c) after double ovulation each oocyte has an equal chance of fertilization d) if born alive twins have low survival rate |
A
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when are twins most likely to be reduced to singletons?
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is both twins are adjacent to one another in the same horn (unilateral)
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The majority of twins are eliminated before ________days
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40days
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if the vet sees twins on day 14-18 what 2 choices does she have?
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1) if unilateral, wait & see if one is eliminated
2) if bilateral eliminate one by pinching before day 25 |
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if twins are still present at 32days what should be done?
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1) abort both before endometrial cups present
2) wait till next month & watch for eliminatino |
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T/F
bloody vulvar discharge towards end of pregnancy always mean that the mare has placentitis |
False
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Which of the folllowing is NOT a done during impending abortion?
a) progestagens tx b) isoxsuprine tx c) intranasal oxygen d) vaginal exam |
D
vaginal exam should always be avoided may result in ascending placentitis or abortion |
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Excess fluid accumulation (usually w/in the allantoic or amniotic cavities) is termed?
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hydropic condition
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name the clinical signs of a mare w/ hydrops
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-dramatic abdominal enlargement
-diffuculty moving -normal body temp -increased HR, dyspnea -marked ventral edema |
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name a difference b/t twins and hydrops
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twins cause a more progressive enlargment
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Which of the following is FALSE of hydrops?
a) might be a hereditary problem b) mares predisposed to retained fetal membranes c) on transrectal palpation fetal will be felt along w/ the enlarged uterus d) pregnancy should be terminated |
C
fetus not felt |
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What most likely causes hydramnion?
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fetal anomalies that affect the recirculation of amniotic fluid
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What is the most common cause of infectious abortion in the mare during the last half of gestation?
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EHV 1 or Rhinopneumonitis
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How is EHV1 transmitted
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inhalation/contact w/ infected secretions
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What is the clinical presentation of EHV1?
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-sudden fetal loss in otherwise healthy mare
-resp infection in young horses |
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Equine Viral Arteritis is a venereal dz caused by a _____virus
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arterivirus
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Which of the following is endemic to standardbreds?
a) EHV b) CEM c) EVA d) lepto |
C
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What is the role of the stallion in EVA?
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the stallion is the carrier of the disease and persistent shedder
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Which of the following is FALSE of EVA?
a) fetus is not always infection by the time abortion occurs b) transmission may occur via inhalation c) lesions common in fetus d) virus has tropism for endothelial cells e) necrotizing myometritis may be seen on histopathology |
C
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Which of the following is TRUE of the control of EVA?
a) a negative serology could still mean a horse is a carrier b) shedding stallions can not be vaccinated c) EVA vax is a killed vaccine d) mares bred to a shedding stallion should be tested for antibodies against EVA |
D
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Which of the following is TRUE of lepto?
a) lesions are always present on aborted material b) modified live vax is used in horses c) clinical dz & abortion is associated w/ host adapted serotypes d) Bratislava is the host adapted serotype |
D
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What disease is caused by the organism Taylorella equigenitalis?
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Contagious Equine Metritis (CEM)
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Which of the following is eradicated in N.America?
a) Contagious Equine Metritis b) Lepto c) Equine viral arteritis d) EHV 1 |
A
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Which of the following is usually NOT associated w/ abortion?
a) EIA b) Coital exanthema (EHV3) c) Trypanosoma d) EHV 1 |
B
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What 3 pathological changes occur w/ endometritis?
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1) presence of neutrophils
2) elevated lymphocytes 3) eosinophils |
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Which of the following is normal in anestrus?
a) lymphatic lacunae b) edema c) periglandular fibrosis d) atrophy of endometrium |
D
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Which of the following is NOT a treatment for persistent mating induced endometritis?
a) oxytocin IV b) PGF2 c) cloprostenol d) uterine lavage & antibiotics |
B
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Which of the following is TRUE of pyometra in the horse?
a) may be open or closed b) often present w/out systemic illness c) normal cyclicity continues d) all are true |
D
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What is the most common tumor of the ovary in the mare?
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granulosa cell tumor
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Which is FALSE of granulosa cell tumors?
a) atophy of ispilateral ovary b) enlargement or absence of ovulation fossa c) stallion like behavior d) anestrus or constant estrus seen |
A
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Which of the following is NOT a component of stallion BSE?
a) at least 2 ejaculates are collected 24hrs apart b) EIA serology c) total spermatozoa d) motiligy |
A
-2 ejaculated collected 1hr apart |
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how much sperm are stallions expected to produce?
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at least one billion
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List the 3 infectious repro disease of horses that are transmitted venereally
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1) CEM (taylorella)
2) Equine Coital Exanthema 3) Trypanosoma |
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Which of the following wil cause both small & large testes?
a) orchitis b) torsion of testis c) neoplasia d) toxins e) more than 1 |
E) torsion & neoplasia
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Which of the 4 assessory sex glands in the most involved in bacterial infectious conditions?
a) ampulla b) prostate c) bulbourethral d) seminal vesicles |
D
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Which of the following may cause penile paralysis?
a) Rabies b) EHV 1 c) phenothiazine d) EPM e) all of above |
E
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What is the most common neoplasia of penis? Which is most common in gray horses?
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Squamous cell carcinoma
Melanoma |
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A subcutaneous testis that canont be manually displaced into scrotum is termed?
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ectopic testis
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testosterone conc <40pc/ml indicates what about testicular tissue?
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there is NO testicular tissue
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