Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
374 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
True or false:
Map symbols are uniform in size and brightness. |
True |
|
|
When is a target considered paired? |
When the computer correlates the predicted position, speed, and heading with the actual radar return using flight plan information |
|
|
When is a target considered unpaired? |
When the computer is NOT correlating the aircraft with flight plan information and is using radar data only |
|
|
What is the difference between the dot and plus sign for unpaired primary targets? |
Dot = target is weak
Plus = target is strong |
|
|
What is the preferred and most common mode of tracking? |
Flight Plan Aided Tracking (FLAT) |
|
|
What connects the position symbol with the Full Data Block (FDB)? |
Leader line |
|
|
What represents the distance and the direction the aircraft will travel in selected minutes based on the average of the most recent radar position updates? |
Velocity vector line |
|
|
True or false:
The velocity vector will be inaccurate if the aircraft is in a turn or has recently changed speed. |
True |
|
|
What does a full data block contain? |
|
|
|
What is contained in Field A of the FDB? |
Aircraft identification and the accent symbol |
|
|
What does an accent symbol over A2 mean in the FDB? |
Aircraft has entered another sector without a handoff being made |
|
|
What does an accent symbol over A3 mean in the FDB? |
Aircraft will not auto-handoff |
|
|
What do characters B1 through B3 contain in the FDB? |
Assigned altitude information or the letters "VFR" |
|
|
What does field B4 contain in the FDB? |
Computer-generated altitude qualifier |
|
|
What do fields C1 through C3 contain in the FDB? |
|
|
|
What does a # mean in field C4 of the FDB? |
Aircraft is not responding with Mode C altitude and controller-entered altitude does not equal the single assigned altitude |
|
|
When would field C4 of the FDB contain an "X"? |
Exceptional vertical rate |
|
|
What does field D of the FDB contain? |
|
|
|
What allows you to make changes to the aircraft database information? |
Track control |
|
|
What is displayed in Field E of the FDB? |
Ground speed and special condition information relative to status of aircraft (EMRG, RDOF, etc.) |
|
|
What does FAIL indicate in Field E of the FDB? |
Attempted handoff of FDB to another facility has failed |
|
|
What does OLD indicate in Field E of the FDB? |
Updated data is not being received |
|
|
What does MISM indicate in Field E of the FDB? |
Mismatch between two ERAM facilties' track position - FLM must be notified |
|
|
What does DATA indicate in Field E of the FDB? |
Mismatch between ERAM and Non ERAM facility - only appears in FDB of the receiving facility and the receiving controller must call transferring controller to verify the position of the target |
|
|
What does FRZN indicate in Field E of the FDB? |
Controller-entered message that indicates the flight's position is NOT being updated |
|
|
What does HOLD indicate in Field E of the FDB and what may replace it after a certain amount of time? |
HOLD indicates the aircraft has been put into hold at data block's present position - as the EFC time approaches, "EFC" replaces "HOLD" |
|
|
What does SIDE indicate in Field E of the FDB? |
Aircraft is in SIDE-STREAM handoff status to another ERAM facility, meaning it is being handed off to a center in which the route of flight does not enter |
|
|
What does NONE indicate in Field E of the FDB? |
Aircraft has an assigned beacon code, but none is received |
|
|
What does a beacon code indicate in Field E of the FDB? |
Aircraft has an assigned beacon code, but the code received is NOT the proper code - improper code is displayed |
|
|
What does H-dd indicate in Field E of the FDB? |
Track is being handed off to sector in same center |
|
|
What does O-dd indicate in Field E of the FDB? |
Handoff has been accepted by sector in same center |
|
|
What does K-dd indicate in Field E of the FDB? |
Handoff has been "stolen" by /OK |
|
|
What does HLdd indicate in Field E of the FDB? |
Track is being handed off to another center |
|
|
What does OLdd indicate in Field E of the FDB? |
Handoff has been accepted by another center |
|
|
What is contained in Field F of the FDB? |
Variable data field with nine character positions - can contain:
|
|
|
What is contained in an Enhanced Limited Data Block (ELDB) and where does it appear? |
Displays AID, assigned altitude and Mode C altitude - always appears east of target and at same intensity of LDB |
|
|
What is contained in a Paired Limited Data Block and where does it appear? |
Displays AID and Mode C altitude - always appears east of target and at same intensity as ELDB |
|
|
What do unpaired limited data blocks contain? |
Displays beacon code and, if available, Mode C altitude for untracked aircraft - does not contain an aircraft call sign and does not show a code for VFR 1200 aircraft (target symbol of V) |
|
|
What does NEXRAD display? |
Three precip levels:
|
|
|
When must aircraft be equipped with an operable transponder with Mode C altitude reporting capability? |
|
|
|
What must be done if Mode C or transponder fails between 10,000 MSL and 18,000 MSL |
Advise manager and verbally coordinate with next controller prior to control transfer |
|
|
What must be done when Mode C or transponder fails at or above 18,000 MSL? |
Advise manager and coordinate with next controller to obtain approval for aircraft to enter next sector |
|
|
What equipment is required for all aircraft operating at or above 10,000 feet or within Class B airspace? |
Mode C transponder |
|
|
What is the letter or number assigned to a specific pulse spacing of radio signals transmitted or received by ground interrogator or airborne transponder components of the Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System (ATCRBS)? |
Mode |
|
|
What radar beacon modes are currently utilized by ATC? |
|
|
|
Which aircraft should be assigned a beacon code? |
Only Mode 3/A-equipped aircraft |
|
|
What does a beacon code consist of? |
Four digits, 0 through 7 |
|
|
What are beacon codes which do NOT end in the numerals "00"? |
Discrete codes |
|
|
What are beacon codes which end in the numerals "00"? |
Nondiscrete codes |
|
|
What is the airspace over US territory located within the North American continent between Canada and Mexico, including adjacent territorial waters outward to abut boundaries of CTAs/FIRs? |
NBCAP Airspace |
|
|
What are the primary goals of the NBCAP? |
Minimize code changes and retain same code from departure to destination |
|
|
When may a code change be requested of an aircraft that is not in your area of responsibility? |
|
|
|
What type of beacon code is preferred? |
Discrete |
|
|
What advantage does a discrete beacon code assignment provide the controller? |
Allows the system to automatically recognize or identify the aircraft assigned the code |
|
|
What code is assigned if a pilot declares an emergency and is NOT radar identified, and what blinks in the data block? |
7700 - EMRG blinks in data block |
|
|
When may you request an aircraft to change from code 7700 to the appropriate discrete or function code? |
After radio and radar contact are established |
|
|
What does a code change from 7700 to an appropriate discrete or function code signify? |
Emergency aircraft is identified and under ATC control |
|
|
When should you NOT request an aircraft to change from 7700 to a discrete or function code? |
Single-piloted helicopters/turbojet aircraft |
|
|
What should ATC expect a pilot to squawk in a radio failure? |
7600 |
|
|
What blinks in the data block when 7600 is squawked? |
RDOF |
|
|
What means should be used to reestablish communications to an NORDO aircraft? |
|
|
|
What may be used to verify receipt of transmissions with an NORDO aircraft? |
Transponder or turns |
|
|
When should code 1200 be issued to VFR aircraft? |
|
|
|
What should be done related to beacon codes for an aircraft that changes from VFR to IFR? |
Ensure mode C aircraft are assigned a beacon code to allow Terrain Alert Volume (TAV) alarms |
|
|
What does beacon code 1200 indicate? |
VFR aircraft |
|
|
What does beacon code 1202 indicate? |
Glider operations |
|
|
What does beacon code 1255 indicate? |
Firefighting aircraft |
|
|
What does beacon code 1277 indicate? |
SAR aircraft |
|
|
What does beacon code 4000 indicate? |
Fast maneuvering military aircraft |
|
|
Inaccurate or inoperative Mode C may require what? |
Coordination and/or an equipment suffix update |
|
|
What methods may be used to identify a target using only Mode 3/A radar beacon? |
|
|
|
What methods may be used to identify a primary target? |
|
|
|
What criteria must be met to identify a primary target using a position report? |
|
|
|
What criteria must be met to identify a primary target using an identifying turn of 30 degrees or more? |
|
|
|
What is the minimum number of degrees required for each turn when using turns to radar identify an aircraft? |
30 degrees |
|
|
True or false:
A FDB that appears automatically when an aircraft squawks a beacon code assigned by the computer is positive identification. |
True |
|
|
When do you inform an aircraft that it is in radar contact? |
|
|
|
What should be done if identification is questionable for any reason? |
|
|
|
When should a controller inform an aircraft of its position when identification is accomplished? |
When identified by...
|
|
|
When does position information need not be given after identification? |
When identified by position correlation |
|
|
When should a controller inform an aircraft when radar service is terminated? |
|
|
|
When is radar service automatically terminated and the aircraft need not be advised of termination? |
|
|
|
At what airports shall an arriving aircraft be informed when radar service is terminated? |
Tower-controlled where radar coverage does not exist to within 1/2 mile of the end of the runway |
|
|
When will an aircraft discontinue reporting over compulsory reporting points? |
Once it has been radar-identified by ATC |
|
|
When would an aircraft resume normal position reporting? |
When ATC advises...
|
|
|
Until when should a data block be retained? |
Aircraft has exited the sector or delegated airspace AND all potential conflicts have been resolved
(Includes point-out aircraft) |
|
|
What items are required to be displayed in the FDB? |
Aircraft ID and Interim or assigned or reported altitude |
|
|
What must be displayed when you have separation responsibility for an aircraft and a paired track exists? |
Full Data Block (FDB) |
|
|
What conditions MUST be satisfied before a flight is eligible for automatic track initiation? |
|
|
|
What are the cases of automatic track initiation? |
|
|
|
What are the three types of track? |
|
|
|
What symbol is used to indicate free track? |
A triangle |
|
|
What type of track occurs when target is outside parameters? |
Free track |
|
|
What type of track utilizes latest ground speed and heading info, is displayed with data block on display, and is oriented relative to initial direction of track based on radar data? |
Free track |
|
|
What symbol is used to indicate FLAT tracking? |
Diamond |
|
|
What type of track utilizes free track process plus information from the flight plan? |
FLAT track |
|
|
What type of tracking is based on airway or route heading in the flight plan, speed, and planned maneuvers? |
FLAT track |
|
|
What happens when an aircraft is in lateral tolerance but out of longitudinal tolerance for FLAT Track? |
The computer...
|
|
|
True or false:
Lateral and longitudinal tolerances for FLAT Track are standardized across all facilities. |
False - they are adaptable locally |
|
|
What happens when an aircraft is out of lateral tolerance for FLAT Track? |
It changes to Free Track until it returns to within lateral tolerance and is no longer eligible for automatic updates |
|
|
What must the controller do for an aircraft to remain in FLAT Track when vectors, weather deviations, and other changes in the route of flight occur? |
Controller MUST enter amended route |
|
|
What are the advantages of FLAT Track? |
|
|
|
What is an action taken to transfer the radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another if the aircraft will enter the receiving controller's airspace and radio communications with with the aircraft will be transferred? |
Handoff |
|
|
What is the phrase used to inform the controller initiating a handoff that the aircraft is identified and approval is granted for the aircraft to enter the receiving controller's airspace? |
"RADAR CONTACT" |
|
|
What is a physical or automated action taken by a controller to transfer the radar identification of an aircraft to another controller if the aircraft will or may enter the airspace or protected airspace of another controller and radio communications will NOT be transferred? |
Point out |
|
|
What is the phrase used to inform the controller initiating a point out that the aircraft is identified and that approval is granted for the aircraft to enter the receiving controller's airspace, as coordinated, without a communications transfer or the appropriate automated system response? |
"POINT OUT APPROVED" |
|
|
What is a term used to transfer radar identification of an aircraft to another controller for the purpose of coordinating separation action? |
"TRAFFIC" |
|
|
When is traffic normally issued? |
|
|
|
What is the phrase used to inform the controller issuing the traffic restrictions that the traffic is identified and the restrictions issued are understood and will be complied with? |
"TRAFFIC OBSERVED" |
|
|
What is the information relay order when making a handoff or point out or issuing a traffic restriction? |
|
|
|
When should a handoff be completed before? |
Before an aircraft enters the receiving controller's airspace |
|
|
What kind of changes require the receiving controller's approval after a handoff has been intiated? |
|
|
|
What must be done prior to transferring communications in a handoff? |
|
|
|
When should transfer of communications be completed by during a handoff? |
After handoff has been accepted and before the aircraft enters the receiving controller's airspace unless otherwise coordinated |
|
|
What must be done when using automated handoff function for primary or nondiscrete beacon targets? |
Verbally coordinate to verify the position |
|
|
For what data block messages must verbal coordination be initiated before transferring control of a track? |
|
|
|
When can a handoff be considered complete for the transferring controller? |
When the receiving controller...
|
|
|
What stripmarking is used to indicate radar handoff is complete? |
"R" with a circle around it |
|
|
What stripmarking is used to indicate frequency change (or communications transfer) is made? |
"C" |
|
|
What must the receiving controller ensure before accepting a handoff? |
|
|
|
What should be issued by a receiving controller prior to accepting a handoff? |
Any necessary restrictions |
|
|
How should a receiving controller confirm the identity of a primary target after accepting a handoff? |
Advise the aircraft of its position |
|
|
How should a receiving controller confirm the identity of a beacon target after accepting a handoff? |
By observing a code change, an "ident" reply, or a "standby" squawk |
|
|
When can a beacon target's identity be confirmed by a receiving controller after accepting a handoff? |
|
|
|
Must you always transfer communication on an aircraft before it enters the receiving controller's airspace? |
No, not if coordinated |
|
|
What information does the transferring controller provide in a landline/interphone handoff that is not provided in a physical handoff? |
Position |
|
|
How does a point out differ from a handoff? |
No communications change |
|
|
What are the four ways to transfer radar identification for handoffs? |
|
|
|
Under what conditions can you transfer radar identification, altitude control, and/or en route fourth line control information without verbal coordination? |
|
|
|
For interfacility AIT, under what conditions can you transfer radar identification without verbal coordination? |
|
|
|
Radar strips are system-generated and almost all have what items? |
|
|
|
True or false:
On radar strips, airport identifiers will only be three characters |
False - most 3-letter airports will now have a K for the ICAO identifier |
|
|
How may aircraft with GNSS capability (/G /L /V /S) be cleared off an airport? |
Via a point to point route provided the points are published NAVAIDS, waypoints, fixes or airports |
|
|
Which type aircraft require radar monitoring to fly direct routes? |
RNAV equipped |
|
|
Which type aircraft may fly direct routes without radar monitoring? |
GNSS |
|
|
What are STARs? |
|
|
|
What are the common STARs in Aero Center for KMEM? |
|
|
|
What are the common STARs in Aero Center for KDFW/KDAL? |
|
|
|
What are the common STARs in Aero Center for KIAH/KHOU? |
|
|
|
What are the common STARs in Aero Center for KNEW/KMSY? |
|
|
|
What are the common STARs in Aero Center for KBNA? |
|
|
|
What are the common STARs in Aero Center for KSTL? |
|
|
|
What are the common STARs in Aero Center for KATL? |
|
|
|
What are the common STARs in Aero Center for KDEN? |
|
|
|
What are the common STARs in Aero Center for KLGA? |
|
|
|
What are the common STARs in Aero Center for KPHX? |
|
|
|
FOR LOA STUDY, SEE SEPARATE STUDY GUIDE |
FOR LOA STUDY, SEE SEPARATE STUDY GUIDE |
|
|
What point of a target shall be used as a reference point for separation? |
Center of both primary and beacon targets |
|
|
At what altitudes shall radar separation be applied to all RNAV aircraft on a random route? |
At or below FL450 |
|
|
Radar separation may be applied between what aircraft? |
Radar-identified aircraft |
|
|
Do NOT use information in data blocks displaying WHAT in the application of either radar or non-radar separation? |
CST or FRZN |
|
|
What are the separation minima for aircraft from aircraft (non A388/An225)? |
|
|
|
What are the separation minima for aircraft from aircraft involving an A388/An225? |
|
|
|
When do wake turbulence separation minima apply? |
|
|
|
What are the wake turbulence separation minima? |
|
|
|
What are the separation minima for an aircraft from obstructions? |
5 miles |
|
|
What are the separation minima for aircraft from adjacent radar controlled airspace below FL600? |
2.5 miles |
|
|
What are the separation minima for aircraft from adjacent non-radar controlled airspace below FL600? |
5 miles |
|
|
What are the separation minima for aircraft from adjacent radar controlled airspace FL600 and above? |
5 miles |
|
|
What are the separation minima for aircraft from adjacent non-radar controlled airspace FL600 and above? |
10 miles |
|
|
What are the lateral separation minima for SUA/ATCAA airspace involving aircraft operations? |
|
|
|
What are the vertical separation minima for SUA/ATCAA airspace involving aircraft operations? |
|
|
|
What are the lateral separation minima for SUA/ATCAA airspace not involving aircraft operations? |
No defined minima - vector aircraft to avoid airspace |
|
|
What is the separation minima for aircraft from a standard formation flight? |
Add 1 miles to appropriate radar minima |
|
|
What is the separation minima for two standard formation flights from each other? |
Add 2 miles to the appropriate radar minima |
|
|
What is the separation minima for aircraft from a nonstandard formation flight? |
|
|
|
What is the duty priority for air traffic controllers? |
Equal priority to issuing safety alerts and separating aircraft |
|
|
Once observed and recognized, ATC should issue a safety alert when aircraft is in position which places it in unsafe proximity to what? |
|
|
|
What are the origin of safety alerts? |
|
|
|
True or false:
Safety alerts only apply to IFR aircraft. |
False - they apply to both VFR and IFR aircraft. |
|
|
True or false:
If you observe an unsafe situation that another controller has responsibility for, you should wait 2 minutes and if situation is still unresolved, inform controller. |
False - just inform the controller |
|
|
When should a controller discontinue the issuance of further alerts? |
When pilot informs you that action is being taken to resolve the unsafe situation |
|
|
What is a function of certain air traffic control automated systems designed to alert radar controllers to existing or pending situations between tracked targets that require immediate attention/action? |
Conflict Alert (CA) |
|
|
What is a function of certain air traffic control automated systems to alert radar controllers to existing or pending situations between a tracked target and an untracked target that require immediate attention/action? |
Mode C Intruder (MCI) alert |
|
|
What should be done when a known conflict with other aircraft exists? |
Issue a traffic alert immediately - offer alternate course of action, if feasible and end transmission with the word "immediately" |
|
|
What are alerts and FDB flashing based off of? |
Based on Mode C readout or controller-reported altitude |
|
|
Why should controllers not rely totally on computerized alerts? |
|
|
|
When a Conflict Alert is suppressed/restored by the controller, what does it signify? |
Constitutes controller acknowledgment and indicates appropriate action has been or will be taken |
|
|
What is an aircraft's altitude, transmitted via the Mode C transponder feature, that is visually displayed in 100-foot increments on a radar display having readout capability? |
Altitude readout |
|
|
When should a Mode C readout be validated? |
|
|
|
When can a Mode C readout be considered valid? |
|
|
|
What is the first step when you observe an invalid Mode C readout below FL180? |
Issue the correct altimeter setting and request the pilot to verify altitude |
|
|
What should be done if there is an invalid Mode C readout below FL180 and pilot has confirmed altitude and altimeter setting? |
|
|
|
When does ATC not have to request pilot to verify assigned altitude on initial contact with Mode C? |
|
|
|
When does ATC not have to request pilot to verify assigned altitude on intial contact with non-mode C? |
|
|
|
What is a heading issued to an aircraft to provide navigational guidance by radar? |
Vector |
|
|
What are the reasons for vectoring aircraft? |
|
|
|
What are minimum altitudes for IFR operations as prescribed in 14 CFR, Part 91 and are published on aeronautical charts? |
Minimum IFR Altitudes (MIAs) |
|
|
If there is no applicable MIA, what would the MIA be for a designated mountainous area? |
2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 nautical miles from the course to be flown |
|
|
If there is no applicable MIA, what would the MIA be for non-mountainous areas? |
1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 nautical miles from the course to be flown |
|
|
What is the lowest MSL altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches? |
Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA) |
|
|
True or false:
Charts depicting Minimum Vectoring Altitudes are always available to both controllers and pilots. |
False - they are not normally available to pilots |
|
|
When can an IFR aircraft be vectored? |
|
|
|
What are the different methods for vectoring aircraft? |
|
|
|
When specifying the number of degrees to turn in a vector, how should it be stated? |
Number of degrees, in group form, to turn and direction of turn
ie. "American Twenty-Two, turn thirty degrees left, vector for traffic." |
|
|
What should a pilot be advised of when initiating a vector? |
|
|
|
What factors should be considered when determining the appropriate heading for a vector? |
|
|
|
When should a controller allow for increased compliance time and distance when issuing vectors? |
When the aircraft is at...
|
|
|
True or false:
Utilizing minimum heading changes and turning slower aircraft behind faster aircraft when equidistant from a converging point are two good controller techniques for vectoring. |
True |
|
|
What conditions should be considered to obtain a desired track when vectoring an aircraft? |
|
|
|
What conditions can an emergency be classified as? |
|
|
|
When an emergency exists, what should a controller do? |
|
|
|
What is a condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance? |
Distress |
|
|
What is a condition of being concerned about safety and of requiring timely but not immediate assistance? |
Urgency |
|
|
What word is repeated three times by the pilot in a distress condition? |
"Mayday" |
|
|
What phrase is repeated three times by the pilot in an urgency condition? |
"Pan-pan" |
|
|
If a controller is in doubt as to whether an emergency exists, what should they do? |
Handle as though it were an emergency and inform the supervisor |
|
|
True or false:
Most emergencies are declared by the pilot in plain language. |
True |
|
|
When should a controller consider an emergency to exist? |
|
|
|
Who may declare an emergency? |
|
|
|
What is the emergency radar beacon code? |
7700 |
|
|
When a pilot requests or controller deems it necessary, who can a controller enlist services of to provide assistance to aircraft in distress? |
|
|
|
Who is responsible for receiving and relaying all pertinent ELT signal information to appropriate authorities? |
ARTCCs |
|
|
Who serves as central points for collecting and disseminating information on overdue/missing VFR aircraft? |
FSSs |
|
|
What must the facility in communication with an aircraft do? |
|
|
|
When a foreign air carrier is involved in an emergency, what does a controller need to do? |
Notify the ARTCC serving the departure or destination airport when either point is in the U.S. for relay to the aircraft operator |
|
|
When should ATC start providing assistance in an emergency? |
When enough information has been obtained upon which to act |
|
|
What are the minimum information requirements for a controller to offer assistance in an emergency? |
|
|
|
When would a controller request the position of an aircraft in an emergency? |
If the pilot has not already given their position and if the aircraft is not visually sighted or displayed on radar |
|
|
When should an aircraft change frequency in an emergency? |
Only when there is valid reasoning to do so and it would allow for better handling |
|
|
What are the emergency frequencies? |
|
|
|
When should a controller assign code 7700 to an emergency aircraft? |
When the pilot declares an emergency and the aircraft is not radar-identified |
|
|
What is the phraseology for assigning code 7700 to an emergency aircraft? |
"SQUAWK MAYDAY ON 7700" |
|
|
What factors should be considered when recommending an emergency airport to an aircraft? |
|
|
|
ATC should coordinate all efforts possible to assist an aircraft believed to be in what condition? |
|
|
|
What should a controller do when an ELT is heard or reported? |
|
|
|
When should ATC consider an aircraft to be overdue, initiate outlined procedures, and issue an ALNOT? |
When neither communications nor radar contact can be established and 30 minutes have passed since an ETA over a point, clearance limit, or clearance void time |
|
|
Can an ATC facility/controller consider an aircraft overdue prior to 30 minutes? |
Yes. |
|
|
True or false:
IFR traffic does not need to be restricted or suspended in an overdue or unreported aircraft situation. |
False. IFR traffic which could be affected by an overdue or unreported aircraft MUST be restricted or suspended unless radar separation is used. |
|
|
What times can be used for the 30 minute restriction/suspension for IFR traffic in an overdue/unreported aircraft situation? |
|
|
|
How many miles on either side of the route of flight from the last reported position to the destination should ARTCCs be issued an ALNOT? |
50 miles |
|
|
When can an ALNOT be cancelled? |
|
|
|
For how long must concurrence of other aircraft be maintained after a overdue/unreported aircraft traffic suspension expires? |
30 minutes after suspension period has expired |
|
|
What appropriate means are available for ATC to use to re-establish communications with an aircraft? |
|
|
|
What should a controller request an aircraft to do in an attempt to re-establish communications? |
|
|
|
After how long have no communications should ATC consider the aircraft's activity to be possibly suspicious? |
Five minutes |
|
|
When an aircraft without communications is considered suspicious, what should a controller do? |
Notify supervisor immediately |
|
|
What should ATC expect a pilot to do in a communications failure? |
|
|
|
What are the three main types of aviation weather hazards? |
|
|
|
What is when the pilot is able to navigate using visual reference outside the cockpits and is required for pilots flying under VFR flight rules? |
Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) |
|
|
What is when the pilot is only able to navigate using instrument references inside the cockpit and a pilot must be instrument rated and on an IFR flight plan? |
Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) |
|
|
What type of aircraft are able to handle encounters with adverse weather better?
|
Air carriers/Part 121 |
|
|
What are the advantages with regard to weather encounters that an air carrier crew has? |
|
|
|
What are the advantages with regard to weather encounters that an air carrier aircraft has? |
|
|
|
What is the first priority of an air traffic controller's duty priority? |
Separating aircraft and issuing safety alerts |
|
|
What are ATC responsibilities for weather? |
|
|
|
When must ATC solicit PIREPs? |
55 TWIT V
|
|
|
What conditions warrant Urgent PIREPs? |
HAVTSSL
|
|
|
Who is responsible for recording, classifying, and disseminating PIREPs whenever a pilot reports any conditions warranting a PIREP, whether or not the PIREP was solicited? |
Radar-Associate |
|
|
What must occur with an urgent PIREP? |
It must be immediately broadcast over the frequency and distributed via local and national directives |
|
|
What type of PIREP is for weather phenomena reported by a pilot which represents a hazard or a potential hazard to flight operations? |
Urgent PIREP |
|
|
What information is mandatory for all PIREPs? |
|
|
|
When a PIREP is made for icing, what is also required to be solicited? |
Air temperature in which icing is occuring |
|
|
What are the ATC responsibilities for precipitation depicted via WARP/NEXRAD? |
|
|
|
Who should receive PIREPs? |
All affected pilots, controllers, and facilities |
|
|
What is a concise description of the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of aircraft operations but is of particular concern to VFR/GA aircraft? |
AIRMET |
|
|
What is a concise description of the occurrence of expected occurrence of specified en route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of aircraft operations but is of concern to all aircraft, regardless of size/capabilities/etc.? |
SIGMET |
|
|
What are issued for thunderstorms in the lower 48 states? |
Convective SIGMETs |
|
|
What is an aviation weather warning for conditions meeting or approaching national in-flight advisory criteria? |
Center Weather Advisory (CWA) |
|
|
What is an unscheduled inflight, flow control, air traffic, and air crew advisory but is short term (two hours) and is NOT a flight planning product? |
Center Weather Advisory (CWA) |
|
|
What is a joint FAA/NWS weather support team located in all ARTCCs? |
Center Weather Service Unit (CWSU) |
|
|
True or false:
The broadcast of a weather advisory is not required if aircraft on your frequency will not be affected? |
True |
|
|
What should a controller do if they are within a commissioned HIWAS area and hazardous weather information is received? |
Broadcast the HIWAS alert on all frequencies |
|
|
What should a controller do if they are outside a commissioned HIWAS area and hazardous weather information is received? |
Advise pilots of availability of hazardous weather advisories with instructors to request further information from Flight Watch or FSS |
|
|
What is a continuous recorded hazardous inflight weather forecast broadcasted to airborne pilots over selected VOR outlets defined as a HIWAS broadcast area? |
HIWAS |
|
|
Under what conditions are the most hazardous icing conditions often found? |
Freezing rain and freezing drizzle |
|
|
What are icing forecasts heavily dependent on? |
PIREPs |
|
|
What is ice that forms on aircraft surfaces? |
Structural icing |
|
|
Between what temperatures does structural icing normally occur? |
+2 and -20 degrees C |
|
|
What two conditions are necessary for structural ice to occur? |
|
|
|
What time of year can icing occur? |
365 days a year |
|
|
How much is lift reduced on some aircraft by a half inch of ice? |
50 percent |
|
|
What are the effects of structural icing on the primary forces of flight? |
|
|
|
Why could there be icing in July? |
As an aircraft climbs, the outside temperature generally decreases steadily |
|
|
What are the three types of structural ice? |
|
|
|
What is the most dangerous form of icing? |
Clear |
|
|
What type of icing is translucent and generally smooth? |
Clear |
|
|
What icing typically occurs at temperatures close to freezing point (0 to -10), with large amounts of liquid water and large droplets? |
Clear |
|
|
What type of icing appears rough, milky, and opaque? |
Rime |
|
|
What type of icing occurs between -15 and -20 degrees and requires lesser amounts of liquid water and small droplets? |
Rime |
|
|
What type of icing is formed by the instantaneous freezing of supercooled droplets as they strike the aircraft? |
Rime |
|
|
What type of icing is a mixture of both clear and rime ice? |
Mixed |
|
|
What type of icing forms in temperatures from -10 to -15 degrees? |
Mixed |
|
|
What are the four intensities of structural icing? |
|
|
|
What icing intensity is when icing becomes perceptible and deicing/anti-icing is not used unless encountered for over 1 hour? |
Trace |
|
|
What icing intensity is when the rate of accumulation may create a problem if prolonged and requires the occasional use of de-icing/anti-icing? |
Light |
|
|
What icing intensity is when the rate of accumulation becomes potentially hazardous and use of de-icing/anti-icing or diversion is necessary? |
Moderate |
|
|
What icing intensity is when de-icing/anti-icing fails to reduce or control the hazard and immediate flight diversion is necessary? |
Severe |
|
|
Is PIREP information given in MSL or AGL? |
MSL |
|
|
Why are cloud tops reports valuable? |
The height of the tops is an indication of the storm's intensity |
|
|
What is any irregular motion of an aircraft in flight, especially when characterized by rapid up-and-down motion, caused by rapid variation in wind speed or direction? |
Turbulence |
|
|
What can turbulence be caused by? |
|
|
|
What is a change in wind speed and/or direction within a short distance? |
Wind shear |
|
|
What is a particularly dangerous form of wind shear and is hazardous to all aircraft and is associated with thunderstorms? |
LLWS |
|
|
What is the most severe form of the downburst? |
Microburst |
|
|
What type of turbulence is often encountered in the vicinity of the jet stream, typically where no clouds are present, or in the vicinity of mountain ranges? |
CAT - clear air turbulence |
|
|
What are the four turbulence intensities? |
|
|
|
What turbulence intensity momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude? |
Light turbulence |
|
|
What turbulence intensity usually causes small variations in indicated airspeed and occupants feel strain against restraints, walking is difficult but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times? |
Moderate turbulence |
|
|
What turbulence intensity causes large, abrupt changes in airspeed, altitude, and/or attitude, occupants are forced violently against restraints and walking is impossible and the aircraft is momentarily out of control? |
Severe turbulence |
|
|
What turbulence intensity is when the aircraft is violently tossed about and is practically impossible to control (structural damage is possible)? |
Extreme turbulence |
|
|
What does occasional turbulence define? |
Less than 1/3 of the time |
|
|
What does intermittent turbulence define? |
1/3 to 2/3 of the time |
|
|
What does continuous turbulence define? |
More than 2/3 of the time |
|
|
How does turbulence impact ATC? |
|
|
|
When do thunderstorms normally occur? |
Warm weather with unstable air
Spring and summer |
|
|
How is a thunderstorm made visible? |
Cumulonimbus cloud |
|
|
True or false:
Controllers will only have severe thunderstorms depicted on their radar. |
False - controllers only see weather radar precipitation returns and have no indication of what is or is not associated with a thunderstorm |
|
|
True or false:
Thunderstorms are generally smaller than the radar indicates due to the "padding" implemented on the NEXRAD? |
False - thunderstorms are generally much bigger than the radar indicates |
|
|
How far can hazards associated with thunderstorms typically extend out to? |
20 miles from the storm |
|
|
How much separation is desired for an aircraft to fly through a very strong or or severe line of thunderstorms? |
40 miles |
|
|
How can lightning damage or disable the aircraft? |
|
|
|
What kind of thunderstorms do most tornadoes occur with? |
Supercell |
|
|
How quickly can thunderstorm hazards affect flight? |
Immediately |
|
|
What is the computer at the ARTCC that takes data from numerous NEXRAD sites, compiles it, and then processes it for display on the ERAM screen? |
WARP |
|
|
True or false:
WARP/NEXRAD does not show light precipitation on the en route display. |
True |
|
|
What does a convective SIGMET imply? |
|
|
|
What are the intensities a WARP/NEXRAD displays? |
Moderate, heavy, and extreme |
|
|
What is airspace utilization under prescribed conditions, normally employed for mass movement of aircraft under special user requirements that cannot otherwise be accomplished? |
Altitude Reservation (ALTRV) |
|
|
What is a condition whereby the military services involved assume responsibility for separation between participating military aircraft in the ATC system? |
Military Authority Assumes Responsibility for Separation of Aircraft (MARSA) |
|
|
How does MARSA end? |
MARSA aircraft advise they are separated and ATC advises MARSA is terminated |
|
|
What is airspace of defined dimensions identified by an area on the surface of the earth wherein activities must be confined because of their nature and/or wherein limitations may be imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of those activities? |
Special Use Airspace (SUA) |
|
|
What is airspace that may contain a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft? |
Alert Area |
|
|
What is airspace wherein activities are conducted under conditions so controlled as to eliminate hazards to nonparticipating aircraft and to ensure the safety of persons and property on the ground? |
Controlled Firing Area (CFA) |
|
|
What is airspace established outside of a Class A airspace area to separate or segregate certain nonhazardous military activities from IFR traffic and to identify for VFR traffic where these activities are conducted? |
Military Operations Area (MOA) |
|
|
What is airspace designated under FAR, Part 73 within which no person may operate an aircraft without the permission of the using agency? |
Prohibited Area |
|
|
What is airspace designated under FAR, Part 73 within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restriction? |
Restricted Area |
|
|
What is airspace of defined dimensions, extending from 3 nautical miles outward from the coast of the United States, that contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft? |
Warning Area |
|
|
What is airspace of defined vertical/lateral limits assigned by ATC for the purpose of providing air traffic segregation between the specified activities being conducted within the assigned airspace and other IFR air traffic? |
ATC Assigned Airspace (ATCAA) |
|
|
When do controllers not have to apply appropriate separation minima between nonparticipating aircraft and SUA or ATCAA? |
|
|
|
What are the vertical separation minima between an active SUA and ATCAA and nonparticipating aircraft? |
|
|
|
What are the radar lateral separation minima when required between an active SUA and ATCAA and nonparticipating aircraft? |
|
|
|
What does the word "to" mean when referring to an altitude or flight level for airspace? |
To and including |
|
|
What is a procedure used by the military to transfer fuel from one aircraft to another during flight? |
Aerial refueling |
|
|
What is airspace of defined vertical and lateral dimensions established for the conduct of military flight training at airspeeds in excess of 250 knots IAS? |
Military Training Route (MTR) |
|
|
What are the two types of MTRs? |
IR and VR |
|
|
What is a route used by the DOD and associated Reserve and Air Guard units for the purpose of conducting low-altitude navigation and tactical training in both IFR and VFR conditions below 10,000 feet MSL at airspeeds in excess of 250 knots IAS? |
IFR Military Training Route (IR) |
|
|
What is a route used by the DOD and associated Reserve and Air Guard units for the purpose of conducting low-altitude navigation and tactical training under VFR conditions below 10,000 feet MSL at airspeeds in excess of 250 knots IAS? |
VFR Military Training Route (VR) |
|
|
True or false:
All MTRs go in two directions and aircraft operating at different directions use the NEODD/SWEVEN rules. |
False - they only go one direction |
|
|
What is the art and science of finding one's geographic position by means of astronomical observations, particularly by measuring altitudes of celestial objects? |
Celestial Navigation (CELNAV) |
|
|
During CELNAV training, when would a pilot have to advise ATC before initiating any heading changes? |
Any heading changes that exceed 20 degrees |
|
|
What consists of more than one aircraft which, by prior arrangement between pilots, operate as a single aircraft with regard to navigation and position reporting? |
Formation flight |
|
|
What is a standard formation for formation flight? |
Each wingman...
|
|
|
What is a nonstandard formation flight? |
|
|
|
What are the separation minima for formation flights? |
|
|
|
In a nonstandard formation flight, who should be assigned an appropriate beacon code? |
To each aircraft or the first and last aircraft in formation |
|
|
When do you have to forward information from airborne military flights to Flight Service? |
|
|
|
What is the information to be forwarded to Flight Service for a military change in destination (in order)? |
|
|
|
What is the manual or automatic display of the current status of position-related equipment and operational conditions or procedures? |
Status Information Area (SIA) |
|
|
What are manually recorded items of information kept at designated locations on the position of operation and may be an element of the SIA? |
Written notes |
|
|
What is an ordered listing of items to be covered during a position relief? |
Checklist |
|
|
Who has the responsibility of ensuring any known pertinent status information is accurately relayed to the relieving controller? |
Specialist being relieved |
|
|
What is required to be open when the specialist being relieved is briefing on equipment? |
Outage View |
|
|
Who is responsible for ensuring any unresolved questions are answered during position relief? |
Relieving specialist |
|
|
During position relief, who is responsible for completeness and accuracy of the briefing and ensuring it is conducted at the position being relieved? |
Both specialists |
|
|
What are the steps in a position relief briefing? |
PVAR
|
|
|
Which step in the position relief briefing is done solely by the relieving specialist? |
Preview the Position |
|
|
During the Assumption of Position Responsibility step of the position relief briefing, who indicates that the change in responsibility has occurred? |
Relieving specialist |
|
|
Briefing on applicable traffic is accomplished during which step of the briefing process? |
Verbal briefing |
|
|
Who initiates the final act of assuming responsibility for the position during the position relief briefing? |
Relieving specialist |
|
|
True or false:
After the relieving specialist has assumed responsibility for the sector, the relieving specialists signs off the position and remains at the sector for 10 minutes. |
False - they review all information and advise for omissions, updates, or inaccuracies, and observe the overall position operation and provides or summons any help if needed. |
|
|
True or false:
During position operation, a controller should record each pertinent status information item ASAP to prevent omissions later during a briefing. |
True |
|
|
During a position relief briefing, when should extra care be taken? |
|
|
|
What are the four team members in an en route sector team? |
|
|
|
Which en route sector team member is referred to as "D-Side" or "Manual Controller"? |
Radar Associate |
|
|
Which en route sector team member is referred to as "Coordinator," "Tracker," or "Handoff Controller"? |
Radar Coordinator |
|
|
Which en route sector team member is referred to as "Assistant Controller" or "A-Side"? |
Radar Flight Data |
|
|
What qualities does a good sector team have? |
|
|
|
What are the qualities of good sector management? |
|
|
|
What is the primary purpose of the ATC system? |
Prevent a collision between aircraft and to provide safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of traffic |
|
|
Who has responsibility for the safe and efficient operation of a sector? |
The team |
|
|
What is a group of people with a common purpose and who works together in an interdependent, collaborative way in order to produce quality results? |
Team |
|
|
What is a cooperative effort by the members of a group or team to achieve a common goal? |
Teamwork |
|
|
What is any verbal or nonverbal behavior that is perceived by another person? |
Communication |
