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83 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What directs migration of dendritic cells from the peripheral tissues into the lymphoid tissues
CCR7
What are the three antigen presenting cells found in the lymph nodes
Macrophages
Dendritic cells
B cells
What makes APC's good at stimulating naive T cells
They express high levels of MHC and co-stimulatory molecules
T cells enter the lymph nodes primarily through
HEV
What are two ways that naive T cells can enter the lymph nodes
Through high endothelial venules or afferent lymphatics
L-selectin is important in what process
Initiates rolling of naive t cells along the HEV where the cells will eventually cross into the lymph nodes
Extracellular bacteria binds which class of MHC molecules
MHC Class II --> which activate CD4 T cells
Cytoplasmic viruses bind which class of MHC molecules
MHC Class I --> which activate CD8 T cells
Where in the body do mature dendritic cells present pathogens to the T cells
in the lymph nodes
What molecule increases the affinity or binding between T cells and dendritic cells
LFA-1
What retains or traps T cells in the lymph nodes for several days to allow them to become activated
The tight binding between T cells and dendritic cells in the lymph node caused by LFA-1
The activation of a T cell requires two things...
1) antigen
2) co-stimulation
If you dont have co-stimulation of a T cell what will happen to it
It will become adrenergic or unresponsive and will eventually die
After T cells are activated what do they produce
IL-2
What part of the CD3 complex is required for T cell activation
ITAM's
(immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motifs)
ITAM phosphorylation leads to activation of
ZAP-70
What happens to patients who are deficient in ZAP-70
They have profound immunodeficiency because their T cells cant respond to antigen therefore can not be activated
The second messenger DAG activates
NF-kb and AP-1
The second messenger IP3 activates
NF-AT
Cyclosporin is an immunosuppresant drug that inhibits
calinurin activation, which prevents NF-AT, which is essential for T cell activation
What three factors induce IL-2 gene transcription
NF-kb
AP-1
NF-AT
Rapamycin is an immunosuppresant that intereferes with
the ability of T cells to respond to IL-2

therefore this person would have activated T cells they just would not be able to respond
What follows T cell activation
differentiation
cytotoxins are
cytotoxic cytokines
Is CD45RA highly expressed in resting naive T cells or in activated T cells
CD45RA is highly expressed in resting T cells

(ie. in newborns there would be a high level)
Is CD45RO expressed more in the resting or activated T cell state
activated effector T cell
VLA-4 is expressed in
activated effector T cells
Which subset of effector T cells is more heterogeneous
T helper cells (CD4+)
CD4 Th1 cells activate
macrophages
to help kill intracellular bacteria
Which effector cells activate B cells to produce antibodies
CD4 Th1 and Th2 cells
Th2 cells are very good at clearing
Helminth parasites
Which effector cell enhances the neutrophil response
Th17
Th17 cells are target what kind of pathogen
extracellular bacteria
What effector cell has the capability to suppress all the other T-cell responses
regulatory T cells or Tregs
Which effector cell type specializes in killing viral infections
CD8+ cytotoxic T cells
lytic granules are found in what category of effector cells
CD8+ cytotoxic T cells
What cytotoxins are found in lytic granules in CD8 T cells
Perforin
Granulysin
Granzymes
What cytotoxin aids in delivering the contents of granules into the cytoplasm of the target cells
Perforin
Which cytotoxins are responsible for activating apoptosis once inside the target cell
Granzymes
Granzymes enter the target cell through
polymers in the cell membrane formed by perforin
Granzyme B activates
caspases
Caspases activate
DNases
What are 2 pathways by which CTL's kill
Granule exocytosis mediated cytotoxicity
Receptor-mediated cytotoxicity
What is involved in receptor-mediated cytotoxicity
Fas binds to and trimerizes Fas ligand
recruitment of FADD
activation of caspases
cell death
What are three immune responses of CD4 helper T cells
Activation of macrophages
Activation of B cells -> antibody production
Activation of naive CD8 cells
What influences differentiation of effector subsets
cytokines produced by the antigen presenting cell
IL-12 and INF-y signal differentiation into
TH1 cells
IL4 signals differentiation into
TH2 cells
TH1 cells express which transcription factor
Tbet
interferon gamma has what effects on macrophages
1) increased MHC expression
2) increased production of NO and oxygen radicals
3) increased production of antimicrobial peptides and proteases
The Th1 effector T cell subset produces
IFN-y
What two signals are involved in the activation of macrophages by Th1 cells
IFN-y and CD40
Granulomas are associated with which effector subset
Th1
Are granulomas good or bad?
Good because they contain and localize the pathogen

Bad if you fail to develop them
DTH (delayed-type hypersensitivity) involves what effector cell
Th1
The Th2 effector subset population produces
IL4, IL5, and IL10
Tbet is to Th1 as ___ is to Th2
GATA-3
Which effector subset population inhibits macrophage activation
Th2
Which effector T cells recruit eosinophils and mast cells to sites of infection
Th2
Th2 cells activate B cells to undergo class switching via
CD40
Immediate hypersensitivity is associated with
Th2 effector cells
Antigen specific IgE and mast cells are a part of what condition
immediate hypersensitivity associated with Th2
Is a host infected with a pathogen that causes its cells to secrete IL 4, IL5, and IL10 more likely to be resistant or susceptible
susceptible because it can not form granulomas
The structure of chemokine receptors
7 transmembrane G protein couple receptor
The structure of cytokine receptors
heterodimeric receptors
Cytokines initiate pathways of signal transduction though the
JAK STAT pathway
IL2, IL7, IL15, and IL4 bind what receptor?
the common gamma chain receptor
The common gamma chain cytokines are important for
lymphocyte survival
Mutations in the common gamma chain receptor cause
X-linked severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (X-SCID)
IL12, IFN alpa and beta, IFN gamma, and the TNF family are what kind of cytokines
Pro-inflammatory
What are the biological effects of IL-12
Stimulation of IFN-gamma secretion
Differentiation of Th1 cells
Patients with IL-12 deficiencies are highly susceptible to
Salmonella and Mycobacterial infections

(intracellular bacterial infections)
Anti-viral immunity is the biologic effect of which cytokine
IFN alpha/beta
Which cytokine is responsible for the activation of macrophages
INF- gamma
Fas-L and CD40L are a part of
the TNF family
Which cell is responsible for T cell apoptosis
Fas-L
Which cell can activate macrophages and B cells
CD40
ALPS (autoimmune lympho proliferative disorder) is related to what cytokine
a mutation is Fas, which interferes with the ability to get rid of T cells
extreme swelling if the lymph nodes occurs
Mutations in CD40 can lead to
hyper IgM syndrome
because it interferes with the ability for B cells to undergo isotype switching
Anti-inflammatory cytokines include
TGF-beta
IL-10
Which cytokines are important in inhibiting T cell proliferation
IL-12 and TGF-beta
what is considered the first line of host defense against bacteria
neutrophils
the immunosuppressive drug that inhibits T cell signalling
cyclosporin A