T-1 Training Guide Questions (Nav)

Front 1

Except IAW paragraph 8.8.2, airports do not qualify as alternates if:

Back 1

8.9.1. All compatible approaches require radar.
8.9.2. GPS is the only available NAVAID.
8.9.3. The FLIP designation ―A/NA is displayed on all compatible approach plates.
8.9.4. The FLIP designation (without NA) is displayed on all compatible approach plates and an associated note applies. The signifies that non-standard alternate minimums are published for that runway. While nonstandard alternate minimums do not apply to USAF aircraft, there may be notes associated with the non-standard alternate minimums that do. Pilots must check for such notes whenever the designation is shown on an IAP.

Front 2

1. When is a pilot required to correct for known winds?

Back 2

Where procedures depict a ground track, the pilot is expected to correct for known wind conditions. In general, the only time wind correction should not be applied is during radar vectors (pg 48, 5.1.1)

Front 3

2. If you can hear the ATIS over the VOR frequency does this qualify as positive identification?

Back 3

No, the only positive method of identifying a station is by its Morse code identifier (either aurally or alphanumeric display) or for VORs, the recorded automatic voice identification, indicated by the word “VOR” following the station name. (pg 48 5.1.2.1.1.2.2)

Front 4

3. Why is it imperative to monitor the NDB identifiers for the entire approach?

Back 4

For NDBs, there is a direct correlation between the strength of the identifier and the strength and reliability of the signal with no off flags to indicated loss of signal. (pg 49 5.1.3)

Front 5

4. For aircraft with the capability to translate Morse code station identification into an alphanumeric visual display is it acceptable to use this as the sole means for identification?

Back 5

Yes, provided the alphanumeric visual display must always be in view of the pilot and loss of the morse code station identifier will cause the alphanumeric visual display to immediately disappear or a warning to be displayed. (pg 48 5.1.2.1.1)

Front 6

5. When retrieving a RNAV approach from the database can the pilot add some addition points into the approach for situational awareness purposes? Explain

Back 6

No, RNAV approaches must be retrieved from a current aircraft database. Users may not alter terminal procedures retrieved from the equipment data base (pg 78 5.10.6.1.2)

Front 7

6. What is RAIM? Is it required to be checked, and if so; when?

Back 7

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitor (RAIM) is when the GPS receiver verifies the integrity of the signals received from the GPS constellation to determine if a satellite is providing corrupted information. (pg 73 5.10.2.3)

Front 8

7. Per 11-217 can pilots substitute GPS/RNAV navigation aid providing lateral guidance for the final approach segment on an approach?

Back 8

No, Pilots may not substitute for the navigation aid providing lateral guidance for the final approach segment (pg 75 5.10.3.3)

Front 9

8. Can a pilot substitute the DME from an active WP instead of using the land based NAVAID?

Back 9

Yes, pilots may use the a named DME fix as the active waypoint in lieu of using the DME source. If using this method the DME fix must be on the same course and based on the same underlying DME source. (pg 76 5.10.4.1.3)

Front 10

9. Are you required to verify all waypoint names, sequence, course, distances, and altitude information from the database? If so what do you verify it against?

Back 10

Yes, pilots must verify all waypoint names, sequence, course, distance, and altitude information from the database against information listed on the paper copy of the terminal procedure (to include missed approach) (pg 78 5.10.6.1.3)

Front 11

10. In the terminal area the CDI must be set to what sensitivity?

Back 11

The CDI must be set (either manually or automatically to terminal sensitivity (+/- 1 nm) (pg 78 5.10.6.1.4)

Front 12

11. Explain what happens if when checking the GPS database it is expired. Can we use it? If so; what portions of flight?

Back 12

Yes we may continue a mission with an expired database if the database information required for the flight can be verified with the current FLIP. We all need to get the database updated at the first opportunity and we may not use the database to fly procedures that require terminal or better accuracy (pg 82 5.11.3.1)

Front 13

12. When checking the database against your approach plate you realize the waypoint distance disagrees by .3 NM. Can you fly that approach? How about if the inbound course varying by 3 degrees. What are the tolerance?

Back 13

For GPS and RNAV approaches, the max allowable difference is 0.1 nm. If distance info varies by more than these tolerances, the procedure shall not be flown. If the course differs by more than 5 degrees, the procedure is not authorized (pg 83 5.11.5)

Front 14

13. In the event of differences between the terminal procedure chart or approach chart and database, supplemented by NOTAM’s what takes precedence?

Back 14

The published approach chart, supplemented by NOTAMs, holds precedence and the database may not be used to fly terminal area or instrument approach procedures except as noted below
-Step down fixes depicted on the approach chart may not be contained in the aircraft database…pilots are still responsible for ensuring compliance with step down fixes
-The database may contain some waypoints (capture fixes and a point in lieu of a FAF for non-FAF overlay approaches) that are not depicted on the approach chart
(pg 83 5.11.5.3)

Front 15

8.12.3. Authorized IFR Departure Methods.

Back 15

Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP) and Standard Instrument Departures (SID) should be flown to the maximum extent possible. USAF aircraft will depart IFR using only these methods:
8.12.3.1. Published ODP textual or graphic, including Reduced Takeoff Runway Length (RTRL) and Visual Climb Over the Airport (VCOA) procedures. VCOA procedures may also be termed VCID (Visual Climb to Instrument Departure).
8.12.3.2. SID.
8.12.3.3. Specific ATC Departure Instructions.
8.12.3.4. Diverse Departures (Omnidirectional Departures-ICAO).
8.12.3.5. Special MAJCOM Certification (authorized locations, pilots and aircraft only). See paragraph 8.12.9.

Front 16

1. Where do you find current cold weather altimeter correction procedures?

Back 16

For the current cold weather altimeter correction procedure, you must refer to the Flight Information Handbook (FIH). (pg 86 6.3.1)

Front 17

2. What approach category can be flown in a T-1.

Back 17

The T-1 could be CAT B, C, or D depending upon weight and flap setting. (pg 91 6.5.1)

Front 18

3. What are the 5 approach categories? What are their minimum and maximum speeds?

Back 18

Cat A 90 or less / Cat B 91 -120 / C 121-140 / D 141 – 165 / E 166 or more (pg 91 6.5.1)

Front 19

4. If an approach plate has multiple rings on the plan view is the entire approach plate to scale?

Back 19

On IAPs with a single ring, the entire plan view is to scale. Instrument approach procedure plan views can use up to three rings to show the approach info needed for the IAP. The addition of outer or middle rings indicates that only approach information inside the inner ring is to scale (pg 105 6.5.2.1)

Front 20

5. If the instrument has 1 ring is the approach plate to scale?

Back 20

Yes, see above question

Front 21

6. For a low altitude IAP, the initial descent gradient can’t exceed ______’/NM?

Back 21

For a low altitidue IAP, the initial descent gradient will not exceed 500 ft/nm (approximately 5 deg) and for a high alt approach the max gradient is 1000 ft/nm (app 10 deg) (pg 106 6.5.4.2.2)

Front 22

7. If a circling approach is required but no weather minimums exist on the IAP can the approach be flown? If so how are minimums determined?

Back 22

The required ceiling will be the HAA plus 100 feet rounded up to the next one hundred foot value. For example if the HAA is 757, add 100 feet to get 857, then round up to 900 to get the ceiling for the approach (pg 106 6.5.4.3.2)

Front 23

8. What is Touch Down Zone Elevation (TDZE)?

Back 23

Touchdown zone elevation is the highest point in the first 3,000 feet of the landing surface (pg 106 6.5.4.4.2)

Front 24

9. What is the maximum degrees from centerline a straight-in approach can bring you in without being classified a circle?

Back 24

30 degrees off the runway centerline and still be considered a straight in (pg 107 6.5.4.4.7)

Front 25

10. USAF aircrew will delay turn until ____’ above the airfield?

Back 25

400 ft (pg 127 7.2.3)

Front 26

11. What is the crossing height for Army airfields? Does it apply to the T-1?

Back 26

For any departure at other than non-joint-use USAF or USN bases, if the screen height is not published in the ODP or other reliable source, pilots will plan to cross the DER at or above 35 ft. Yes we will follow it in the T-1 (pg 130 7.3.3.2.2)

Front 27

12. What is the maximum height of low close-in obstacles?

Back 27

Low close in obstacles are those that would generate an excessive climb gradient that terminates at or below 200 ft above the departure end of the runway. (pg 131 7.3.5)

Front 28

13. If a pilot doesn’t know whether they will be given a SID or ODB from ATC what do will they plan for?

Back 28

Pilots must comply with ODPs prior to commencing a SID or radar vector departure unless different procedures and minima are specified on the SID or issued with the departure clearance. (pg 131 7.4.1) Also, USAF pilots will comply with applicable departure procedures (pg 132 7.4.1.1)

Front 29

14. When told to fly runway heading do you apply a wind drift corrections?

Back 29

No, do not apply wind drift corrections (pg 141 7.4.4)

Front 30

15. If being radar vectored on the departure what minimum climb gradient must you follow?

Back 30

If the departure instructions do not contain a climb gradient and there are no published gradients for the runway utilized for departure, pilots are required to maintain 200 ft/NM (pg 142 7.4.4.1)

Front 31

16. If a SID has a 240’ NM climb rate to 9K and the IAP for the same runway has a 260’ NM climb rate to 5K what climb rate will you need to comply with the departure?

Back 31

In all cases, you must compoly with the SID restrictions. While flying a SID, if published, use the SID climb gradient….just remember the memory aid “SID’s stand alone” (pg 141 7.4.3.4.1)

Front 32

17. If you are vectored off a SID is the SID cancelled? Do you still have to meet the climb restrictions i.e. Trouble T?

Back 32

If radar vectored or cleared off an assigned SID, you may consider the SID cancelled unless the controller adds “expect to resume SID.” Pilots must still ensure minimum climb gradients for obstacle clearance are still met (pg 141 7.4.3.4.1/2)

Front 33

18. If there is an Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) for the departure runway and ATC states “cleared as filed” are you required to follow ODP?

Back 33

If there is an ODP for the dep runway, USAF pilots will fly the ODP before beginning the “cleared as filed” portion of the departure. (pg 142 7.4.5.1)

Front 34

19. When referencing a Climb Rate Chart that gives vertical velocities for given groundspeeds on a SID how does that chart affect the T-1 and what do T-1 aircrew have to do to compute required climb gradient?

Back 34

Look at the 60 knot column. Using the 60 to 1 rule, 60 knots is equal to 1 NM/min so the vertical velocity for this speed provides the required obstacle climb gradient in ft/NM. (pg 140 7.4.3.3)

Front 35

20. What are Special Departure Procedures (SDPs) and can the T-1 fly them?

Back 35

SDPs are MDS-specific, commercially designed and published procedures, that require MAJCOM training and certification before use. No, T-1s cannot fly them since we are not given the training to be certified. (pg 144 7.5.1.2)

Front 36

1. Explain the parameters of a no-wind holding pattern.

Back 36

(217 Vol 1 pg 151) The standard no-wind holding pattern is flown by following a specified holding course inbound to the holding fix, making a 180* turn to the right, flying a heading outbound to parallel the holding course, and making another 180* turn to the right to intercept and follow the holding course to the fix.

Front 37

2. What is the length of a holding pattern?

Back 37

(217 Vol 1 pg 151) 1 minute at or below 14,000 MSL and 1 ½ minutes above 14,000. It can also be specified in DME but use timing if there is no DME.

Front 38

3. Which type NAVAID is the most accurate to use while holding?

Back 38

(217 Vol 1 pg 151) course guidance can come off of a VOR/TACAN, NDB, localizer or RNAV/GPS. Localizer is the most accurate.

Front 39

4. When ATC gives you instructions to hold that is not published what is required information from ATC?

Back 39

(217 Vol 1 pg 152) Direction, the holding fix, the holding course, the leg lengths if DME or RNAV is to be used, Direction of turn, Expect Further Clearance.

Front 40

5. Explain a clearance limit?

Back 40

(217 Vol 1 pg 153) ATC should issue holding instruction at least 5 minutes before reaching a clearance limit fix. You are expected to slow 3 minutes from the fix if a clearance beyond the fix has not been received. Slow to holding airspeed.

Front 41

6. What are the maximum holding speeds with associated altitudes?

Back 41

(217 Vol 1 pg 153) Up to 6000, 200 KIAS. Above 6000 to 14000, 230 KIAS. Above 14000, 265 KIAS. ICAO speeds are different. USAF airfields 310 KIAS unless noted. USN airfields 230 KIAS unless noted.

Front 42

7. When are you established in holding?

Back 42

(217 Vol 1 pg 154) initial passage of the holding fix.

Front 43

8. Unless correcting for winds make all turns at what angle of bank?

Back 43

(217 Vol 1 pg 154) 3 degrees per second or 30 degree bank angle or bank angle commanded by the flight director, whichever is least. It can be varied (up to 30 degrees max) to obtain desired displacement in the holding pattern.

Front 44

9. Describe the 70 degree method and AIM method of holding? How are the entries different?

Back 44

(217 Vol 1 pg 154)

Front 45

10. What is considered the timing leg in holding? Inbound or Outbound?

Back 45

(217 Vol 1 pg 156) inbound.

Front 46

11. To what leg will adjustments be made to stay within the prescribed holding time?

Back 46

(217 Vol 1 pg 156) outbound.

Front 47

12. When does timing start outbound?

Back 47

(217 Vol 1 pg 156) over or abeam the fix (wings level if unable to determine this).

Front 48

13. When does timing start inbound?

Back 48

(217 Vol 1 pg 156) wings level

Front 49

14. When directed by ATC to depart the holding pattern at a certain time what adjustments need to be made?

Back 49

(217 Vol 1 pg 156) adjust as necessary but stay within limits of the holding procedure.

Front 50

15. Explain how to make drift corrections while in the holding pattern?

Back 50

(217 Vol 1 pg 158) Take crosswind component and divide it by either 10 times your Mach or speed in NM/min. On outbound leg, triple that calculated drift.

Front 51

1. If you are going to descend less than ____fpm then you advise ATC.

Back 51

(217 Vol 1 pg 160) 500

Front 52

2. Before starting a descent you are required to do what?

Back 52

217 Vol 1 pg 160) Review IAP, recheck the weather (if appropriate), check the heading and attitude systems, and coordinate lost communications procedures (if required).

Front 53

3. Review of a IAP should include what?

Back 53

(217 Vol 1 pg 160) Min/Emer safe altitudes, nav frequencies, descent rates, approach minimums, missed approach departure instructions, and aerodrome sketch.

Front 54

4. Once cleared an approach you will maintain you last assigned altitude until when?

Back 54

(217 Vol 1 pg 161) Until established on a segment of a published route or IAP.

Front 55

5. When are you established on course for a VOR, TACAN, RNAV, NDB, and LOC?

Back 55

217 Vol 1 pg 161) VOR/TACAN/RNAV/GPS half-scale deflection. NDB within 5* of required bearing. LOC within full scale deflection.

Front 56

6. If cleared an approach while enroute to a holding fix not collocated with the IAF what are you required to do?

Back 56

(217 Vol 1 pg 162) Proceed to the IAF via the holding fix, unless specifically cleared to proceed direct to the IAF. However, if the IAF is located along the route of flight to the holding fix, begin the appraoch at the IAF.

Front 57

7. If you are established in holding and cleared the approach what is expected of you?

Back 57

(217 Vol 1 pg 162) complete the holding pattern to the IAF unless an early turn is approved by ATC.

Front 58

8. While being vectored the pilot will repeat what?

Back 58

(217 Vol 1 pg 166) headings, altitudes (departing and assigned), altimeter settings.

Front 59

9. If you filed a STAR on your DD Form 175 and ATC clears you “Cleared as Filed” are you cleared to fly the star? How about the approach?

Back 59

(217 Vol 1 pg 167) Yes, but only the routing, not altitudes. It is not a clearance for the approach.

Front 60

10. If you are flying a STAR that was retrieved from the FMS database and it also has associated ground NAVAIDS are you required to tune them?

Back 60

(217 Vol 1 pg 169) TIM and display appropriate ground-based NAVAIDS whenever pacticable.

Front 61

11. What is the maximum allowable difference between the FMS database course and FLIP?

Back 61

217 Vol 1 pg 168) 5*

Front 62

12. If cleared a STAR by ATC are you to comply with the published altitudes? If not when would you be required to comply with published altitudes?

Back 62

(217 Vol 1 pg 167) Not until you are given a descend via clearance.

Front 63

13. Are you required to adhere to published speeds on STARS?

Back 63

(217 Vol 1 pg 166) There are both mandatory and expected speeds published on STARS. Mandatory in mandatory, expected speeds are not considered restrictions until issued by ATC.

Front 64

14. What kind of turns to final can you expect from ATC when the weather is better than 500’ above MVA.

Back 64

(217 Vol 1 pg 165) At least 1 mile from FAF – maximum intercept angle of 20*. At least 3 miles from FAF – up to 30* maximum intercept angle.

Front 65

15. Can ATC vector you below the glideslope on a precision approach? How about above?

Back 65

(217 Vol 1 pg 165) ATC can vector you to an altitude ‘not above’ the glideslope.

Front 66

1. What are the two broad categories of of low altitude instrument approaches?

Back 66

Course reversals and procedure tracks 11-217 11.2

Front 67

2. 80 miles from the airfield and ATC clears you an approach what is expected of you?

Back 67

When ATC clears you for the approach, maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the published IAP. 11-217 11.2.2

Front 68

3. Prior to reaching the IAF the pilot must slow to what speed?

Back 68

Prior to reaching the initial approach fix, the pilot must slow to aircraft maneuvering speed. 11-217 11.2.3

Front 69

4. What situations will you not execute a procedure turn or HILO PT approach?

Back 69

SNERT
When ATC gives you clearance for a straight-in approach.
If you are flying the approach via No PT routing.
When you are Established in holding, subsequently cleared the approach, and the holding course and procedure turn course are the same.
When ATC provides Radar vectors to the final approach course.
When ATC clears you for a Timed approach.
11-217 11.3.1

Front 70

5. Procedure turns may be safely flown up to what speed?

Back 70

250 kts 11-217 11.4.1

Front 71

6. What is the maximum speed for procedure turns that the FAA recommends?

Back 71

200 kts 11-217 11.4.1.1

Front 72

7. When using the holding method and your turn is more than 90 degrees from the outbound procedure turn course what is required of you? If it is within 90 degrees?

Back 72

More than 90: enter turn according to holding procedures described in ch 8
Within 90: use normal lead points to intercept PT course outbound
11-217 11.6

Front 73

8. If you use the teardrop entry your outbound heading must be within ____degrees of the outbound course?

Back 73

30 degrees 11-217 11.6.2

Front 74

9. If you intercept the procedure turn course outbound what are the procedures while continuing outbound?

Back 74

maintain the course for the remainder of the outbound leg, then turn toward the maneuvering side to reverse course. 11-217 11.6.3

Front 75

10. When do you start timing on a procedure turn approach?

Back 75

outbound abeam the procedure turn fix. If you cannot determine the abeam position while in the turn, start timing after completing the outbound turn. 11-217 11.6.4

Front 76

11.When can you descend on a procedure turn approach?

Back 76

abeam the procedure turn fix heading outbound. If unable to determine when you are abeam, start descent after completing the outbound turn. Do not descend from the procedure turn completion altitude until established on the inbound segment of the approach. 11-217 11.6.5

Front 77

12. In regards to an 80/260 and 45/180 course reversal approach what is required after reaching the IAF?

Back 77

Intercept and maintain the procedure turn course outbound as soon as possible 11-217 11.7.2
1

Front 78

3.When can you descend on a 80/260 or 45/180 coarse reversal approach?

Back 78

Do not descend from the procedure turn fix altitude (published or assigned) until abeam the procedure turn fix and on a parallel or intercept heading to the outbound track. Do not descend from the procedure turn completion altitude until established on the inbound segment of the approach. 11-217 11.7.3

Front 79

14. When starting the 45/180 course reversal how long will you time if on the 45 degree turn outbound? Cat A & B? Cat C, D, & E?

Back 79

1 minute (Categories A and B) or 1 minute and 15 seconds (Categories C, D, and E) 11-217 11.7.4.1

Front 80

15. On a HILO approach when ATC clears you the approach when will you start it?

Back 80

complete the holding pattern and commence the approach without making additional turns in the holding pattern (altitude permitting). 11-217 11.8.3

Front 81

16.When flying a procedure track approach and your heading is not within 90 degrees of the course what is required of you?

Back 81

overfly the fix and turn in the shorter direction to intercept the procedure track course. 11-217 11.9.2

Front 82

17.When can you descend on a procedure track instrument approach?

Back 82

at any point along the procedural track. 11-217 11.9.4

Front 83

18. Once cleared to fly the TAA, pilots are expected to obey what?

Back 83

minimum altitudes depicted within the TAA icons, unless instructed otherwise by air traffic control. 11-217 11.10.10

Front 84

1. Inside the FAF what is required to be displayed to the pilot flying?

Back 84

one navigation receiver available to the pilot flying must remain tuned to and display the facility that provides final approach course guidance. 11-217 12.1

Front 85

2. How is a published VDP calculated?

Back 85

divide the HAT by the glideslope in degrees times 100 11-217 12.1.1.3.2

Front 86

3. Can a pilot calculate his/her own timing on the final approach segment of an approach?

Back 86

Yes. For most AF aircraft, about 10 percent of the HAT in seconds is the approximate amount of time needed to descend from the HAT to the runway on a normal glidepath. 11-217 12.1.1.3.3

Front 87

4. What if a VDP is not published on an IAP? Can you create one?

Back 87

Yes. But if performing a non-precision approach to an unfamiliar field at night (or very low visibility) without a published VDP, and no visual or normal‖electronic glide path guidance to that runway is available, use extreme caution when departing the MDA, as there may be an obstacle penetrating the 20:1 surface. 11-217 12.1.1.3.1

Front 88

5. When can you descend out of an MDA/HA/DH?

Back 88

When sufficient visual reference with the runway environment has been established and the aircraft is in position to execute a safe landing. 11-217 12.1.2.2

Front 89

6. What can be used to determine runway environment?

Back 89

The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the TDZE using the approach lights as a reference unless the red termination bars or the red side row bars are also visible and identifiable.
The threshold, threshold markings or threshold lights.
The runway end identifier lights.
The touchdown zone, touchdown zone markings, or touchdown zone lights.
The runway or runway markings.
The runway lights.
The visual approach slope indicator.
11-217 12.1.2.2

Front 90

7. What are the three required components of an ILS? Can any of them be replaced?

Back 90

glide slope, localizer, and outer marker. If the outer marker is inoperative or not installed, it may be replaced by DME, another NAVAID, a crossing radial, or radar, provided these substitutes are depicted on the approach plate or identified by NOTAM. If the glide slope fails or is unavailable, the approach reverts to an approach without glide path guidance. If the localizer fails, the procedure is not authorized. If the OM (or at least one of its substitutes) is not available, then the procedure is not authorized. 11-217 12.2.1.1

Front 91

8. Where should your marker beacon sensitivity switch be placed in the jet when flying an ILS?

Back 91

Low 11-217 12.2.1.2.1.1.

Front 92

9. What are the usable ranges of ILS and LOC frequencies?

Back 92

18 miles within 10° of the course centerline unless otherwise stated on the IAP. 11-217 12.2.1.3

Front 93

10. Can ATC clear you an approach outside the LOC usable range?

Back 93

Yes, if the aircraft is in radar contact and ATC is sharing responsibility for course guidance. 11-217 12.2.1.3

Front 94

11. When are you supposed to notify ATC when flying an ILS coupled to the AP?

Back 94

as soon as practical but not later than the FAF. 11-217 12.2.1.3.2

Front 95

12. When can the Middle Marker be used as the sole means of identifying the MAP?

Back 95

Never. 11-217 12.2.1.7.1

Front 96

13. When flying a BC LOC what course will you put in the HSI?

Back 96

The published front course. 11-217 12.2.1.7.3

Front 97

14. Before flying a radar approach what must you do?

Back 97

select a backup approach that is compatible with the existing weather and your aircraft where available. 11-217 12.3.2.1

Front 98

15. Radar approaches require transmissions from ATC how often? PAR, ASR?

Back 98

One minute while being vectored to final
Fifteen seconds while on final for an ASR approach
Five seconds while on final for a PAR approach
12.3.2.2

Front 99

16. For a visual approach the pilot must have the airport in sight or what to execute the approach?

Back 99

the preceding identified aircraft in sight, and the approach must be authorized and controlled by the appropriate ATC facility. 11-217 12.4

Front 100

17. What is the minimum ceiling and visibility for a visual approach?

Back 100

1000 feet, 3 miles 11-217 12.4.1

Front 101

18. If cleared a visual approach can you fly the overhead or enter the traffic pattern?

Back 101

Clearance for a visual approach does not authorize you to do an overhead/VFR traffic pattern. 11-217 12.4.3

Front 102

19. What is a contact approach and the minimum weather to conduct one?

Back 102

Pilots operating on an IFR flight plan, when clear of clouds with at least 1-mile flight visibility and can reasonably expect to continue to the destination airport in those conditions, may request ATC authorization for a contact approach. 11-217 12.5

Front 103

20. What are the differences between a visual approach and contact approach?

Back 103

Visual approaches require the airport or preceding aircraft in sight contact approaches require 1 mile vis and a reasonable expectation to continue to the destination under those conditions. 11-217 12.4, 12.5

Front 104

What are the required publications and equipment for a T-1 sortie?

Back 104

Complete set of current aircraft technical orders. All aircrew members are required to carry a current pilot’s abbreviated flight crew checklist and an IFG. We also need suitable terrain charts to cover the proposed route of flight when flying outside the local area.

Front 105

2. List three precautions crewmembers must make to prevent FOD in and around the T-1.

Back 105

3.1.7.1. Do not allow personnel to approach the crew entrance door or allow crewmembers to open the crew entrance door when both engines are running. Personnel may enter and exit the crew entrance door with the right engine operating and left engine shut down.
3.1.7.2. Limit power during ground operations to approximately 70 percent N2 in congested areas.
3.1.7.3. Avoid prop or jet blast.
3.1.7.4. Do not place objects other than flight gloves on the flight deck glare shield to prevent scratching and abrasions to the windshield.
3.1.7.5. Do not pass open containers of food or drinks over the center console, circuit breaker panel or aft CSO station console (modified T-1A aircraft).
3.1.7.6. Do not place objects other than flight gloves or mission planning paperwork on the horizontal CSO workstation monitor and do not utilize the monitor as a writing surface.

Front 106

3. Explain taxi clearances for the T-1.

Back 106

3.2.1. Obstacle Clearance. Do not taxi with less than 25 feet of wingtip obstacle clearance unless a marshaller is used in conjunction with a wing walker at each affected wingtip. When obstacles affect only one wingtip, the marshaller may also act as the wing walker and direct the aircraft while monitoring the affected wingtip. This requirement does not apply at the home station when fixed taxi routes are marked and provide a minimum of 10 feet of wingtip clearance from obstacles and other aircraft. Never taxi with less than 10 feet of wingtip obstacle clearance.
3.2.2. Taxi Interval. Do not taxi staggered. Maintain a minimum of 150 feet behind other aircraft while taxiing.
3.2.3. Minimum Taxiway Width. Minimum taxiway width is 50 feet. Operations group commanders may waive this requirement on a case-by-case basis.

Front 107

4. What is the minimum runway length and width for the T-1?

Back 107

3.3.8.1. The minimum runway length for T-1A takeoffs is 6,000 feet, critical field length (CFL), or the distance required to reach reference zero whichever is greater.
3.3.8.5. Minimum runway width for single-ship takeoffs and landings is 100 feet.

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5. What is a restricted low approach?

Back 108

3.3.10. Low Approach. During low approaches, do not allow the aircraft to touch down. A restricted low approach is defined as no lower than 500 feet above ground level (AGL) or as directed by the controlling agency. Minimum altitude to initiate a practice single-engine go-around is 100 feet AGL

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6. Discuss the restrictions for traffic patterns in the T-1.

Back 109

3.3.12.1. Tactical Overheads. Single-engine and no-flap tactical overheads are prohibited (simulated or actual). A tactical pattern is one turn to downwind and one turn to final.
3.3.12.2. Closed Pattern (Tactical or Rectangular). The minimum airspeed to begin the closed pull-up is 160 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS). Maintain 160 KIAS minimum during the pull-up. On downwind, maintain minimum speeds for fuel weight and configuration.
3.3.12.3. Bank Angles. Pilots should adjust pattern spacing as to not exceed 30 degrees of bank in the final turn or on final. Pilots should not exceed 45 degrees of bank anywhere in the traffic pattern, to include the break during tactical overhead patterns.
3.3.13. No-Flap Landings. Do not practice no-flap full-stop landings.
3.3.14. Circling Approaches. Do not practice single-engine circling approaches or single-engine low-closed patterns.
3.3.15. Simulated Dual Engine Flameout Patterns. Do not practice simulated dual engine flameout patterns.

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7. What things are considered critical phases of flight?

Back 110

3.4.1.1. Takeoffs and landings.
3.4.1.2. Traffic pattern operations (instrument and visual) after initiating the base turn.
3.4.1.3. Low-level navigation (below 1,000 feet AGL).
3.4.1.4. Precontact (astern) and contact positions.
3.4.1.5. Airdrop maneuver (IP to target).

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8. When are you not required to do a cruise checklist?

Back 111

3.4.2. Cruise Checklist. If actual cruise time will be a short duration (approximately 15 minutes), the cruise checklist does not have to be accomplished. Aircrews transiting between airfields located in close proximity to each other (approximately 15 minutes) and remaining below transition level, may accomplish the pattern checklist in lieu of the after-takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, and before-landing checklists.

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9. What is the minimum point to point altitude for VFR?

Back 112

3.4.4.1. Minimum altitude for visual flight routesVFR point-to-point navigation is 3,000 feet AGL. Aircrews may descend below 3,000 feet AGL as required for low-level entry/VFR arrival. Do not descend outside of the area covered by the chummed low-level or VFR arrival chart.

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10. What is the minimum altitude for approach to landing stalls?

Back 113

3.4.4.2. Complete approach to stalls, traffic pattern stalls, slow flight, unusual attitudes, and flight characteristic demonstrations above 5,000 feet AGL.

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11. What is extended daylight and what maneuvers can be conducted during these times?

Back 114

15 min prior to sunrise and 15 minutes prior to sunset, and all day VMC maneuvers can be completed

Front 115

12. What is the required wx for simulated SE and 0 Flap patterns during night? Does this wx requirement apply to circling approaches?

Back 115

3.5.3.1. Simulated single-engine and no-flap approaches and patterns, as well as, circling approaches may be flown at night if the ceiling and visibility is at least 2,000 feet and 3 statute miles (sm) or circling minimums, whichever is greater.
3.5.3.2. Fields used for this training must be familiar that is, instructors must have accomplished either T-1A daylight VFR pattern operations or a daylight circling approach at the airfield prior to night operations.
3.5.3.3. Visual or instrument glide path guidance (including global positioning system (GPS) vertical navigation received from a published area navigation (RNAV) instrument approach) must be available and used for all off-station night landings.

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13. The T-1 will not be flown in areas of forecasted or reported ____________?

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3.7.1.1. The T-1A will not be flown in areas of forecast or reported severe turbulence, severe icing, freezing rain, or freezing drizzle.

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14. What wx is required to start an approach?

Back 117

Do not begin a penetration, enroute descent, or approach unless existing ceiling and visibility meet or exceed the requirements for the approach being flown or PWC 2 minimums, as applicable.

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15. After starting an approach and the ceiling drops below minimums what is required?

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3.7.5.1. After commencing a penetration or approach, if weather subsequently is reported below the required minimums (ceiling or visibility), the approach may be continued to a missed approach or landing. Aircrew must ensure the aircraft has sufficient fuel to execute a missed approach and land at the alternate airfield with required fuel reserves.

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16. What are the wx requirements for the three different types of Low Levels?

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3.9.1. Weather. Comply with VFR cloud clearance requirements in AFI 11-202, Volume 3. For locally published routes, slow routes (SR), and instrument routes (IR), aircrew will ensure a minimum ceiling and visibility of 1,500 feet and 3 sm. For VFR training visual routes (VR) see AFMAN 11-217, Volume 2.

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17. What are the mandatory calls for the PNF on a Nonprecision approach, Precision approach, Climbout, Descent, and deviations?

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3.14.1.1. Nonprecision Approaches:
3.14.1.1.1. “One hundred feet above” MDA (published, PWC or CSO, as applicable).
3.14.1.1.2. “Minimums” at MDA (published, PWC or CSO, as applicable).
3.14.1.1.3. “Runway in sight.” Call when the runway environment is, and will remain in sight. Avoid making the call too soon when obstructions to vision, such as fog, haze, low clouds, etc., are present.
3.14.1.1.4. “Go around.” Call at the MAP if the runway environment is not in sight.
3.14.1.2. Precision Approaches:
3.14.1.2.1. “One hundred feet above DH/DA” (published, PWC or CSO, as applicable).
3.14.1.2.2. “Continue.” Call at DH/DA if the runway environment is in sight but the runway red termination bars or the red side row bars are not visible or identifiable. When using the “continue” call at DH/DA, the “land” or “go around” calls described below may be delayed until 100 feet AGL above TDZE to line up with procedures described in AFMAN 11-217, Volume 1. In order to call “land” at 100 feet, the red termination bars or the red side row bars must be visible and identifiable.
3.14.1.2.3. “Land.” Call at DH/DA, if the runway is in sight and the aircraft is in a safe position for a normal landing.
3.14.1.2.4. “Go around.” Call at DH/DA if the runway environment is not in sight or the aircraft is not in a safe position for a normal landing.

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18. What are the seven restrictions for practicing simulated emergencies?

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3.15.1.1. Do not practice simulated emergency takeoff, approach, or landing procedures unless an IP is seated at, and has immediate access to aircraft controls and weather is a minimum of 1,500 feet and 3 sm.
3.15.1.2. Brief all airborne simulated emergencies prior to execution. Compound or multiple simulated emergencies are prohibited.
3.15.1.3. Maintain clear of clouds when conducting simulated emergencies.
3.15.1.4. Do not practice a single-engine go-around after selecting 30 degree flaps.
3.15.1.5. Do not initiate practice simulated engine failure below 500 feet AGL during takeoff or landing.
3.15.1.6. Do not fly VFR single-engine and no-flap patterns from the tactical pattern.
3.15.1.7. Discontinue simulated emergencies if intracockpit communications cannot be maintained.

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19. When are you allowed to overshoot final at KEND when being vector for an approach?

Back 122

A8.5.1.1. During practice approaches in VMC conditions DO NOT OVERSHOOT the extended RWY centerline unless advised to “EXPECT VECTORS ACROSS FINAL.”

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20. What will be the transponder code if you choose to stay in the VFR pattern at Vance?

Back 123

NOTE: Pilots planning to enter the VFR pattern from an instrument approach will squawk 4301 after completing the approach and entering the VFR pattern.
CATEGORY: NAVIGATION BRIEF TIME -2.0 HOURS FROM T/O
PAGE 2
1. What is an aircraft approach category? What are the different speeds for each category?
A grouping of aircraft based on a speed of 1.3 times the stall speed in the landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight. Cat A Below 91 / Cat B 91 -120 / Cat C 121-140 / Cat D 141-165 / Cat E 166 and up

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2. What are the three aircraft classes (FAA)? Weights?

Back 124

Heavy – Greater than 255,000 lbs at max takeoff weight
Large – 41,000-255,000 lbs at max takeoff weight
Small – Less than 41,000 lbs

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3. What is the ADIZ?

Back 125

AIR DEFENSE IDENTIFICATION ZONE/ADIZ - The area of airspace over land or water, extending upward from the surface, within which the ready identification, the location, and the control of aircraft are required in the interest of national security.

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4. What is the touchdown zone lighting?

Back 126

Two rows of transverse light bars located symmetrically about the runway
centering normally at 100 foot intervals. The basic system extends 3000 feet along the runway.

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5. What is considered centerline lighting?

Back 127

-Flush centerline lights spaced at 50 foot intervals beginning 75 feet from the
landing threshold and extending to within 75 feet of the opposite end of the runway.

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6. How can you tell what are threshold lights?

Back 128

Fixed green lights arranged symmetrically left and right of the runway centerline, identifying the runway threshold.

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7. What is a braking action advisory?

Back 129

When tower controllers have received runway braking action reports which include the terms "poor" or "nil", or whenever weather conditions are conducive to deteriorating or rapidly changing runway braking conditions, the tower will include on the ATIS broadcast the statement, "Braking Action Advisories are in effect."

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8. What is “Circle to Runway (Runway Number)?”

Back 130

Used by Air Traffic Control to inform the pilot that he must circle to land because the
runway in use is other than the runway aligned with the instrument approach procedure

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9. What does “cleared as filed” mean?

Back 131

Means the aircraft is cleared to proceed in accordance with the route of flight filed in the flight plan. This clearance does not include the altitude, SID, or SID Transition.

Front 132

10.What does “cleared for the option” mean?

Back 132

Air Traffic Control authorization for an aircraft to make a touch-and-go, low approach, missed
approach, stop-and-go, or full stop landing at the discretion of the pilot.

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11. What does “closed traffic mean?”

Back 133

Successive operations involving take-off and landing or low approaches where the aircraft does not exit the traffic pattern.

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12. What is a contact approach?

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An approach wherein an aircraft on an IFR flight plan, having an Air Traffic Control authorization,
operating clear of clouds with at least 1 mile flight visibility and a reasonable expectation of continuing to the destination airport in those conditions, may deviate from the instrument approach
procedure and proceed to the destination airport by visual reference to the surface. This approach will only be authorized when requested by the pilot and the reported ground visibility at the destination airport is at least 1 statue mile

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13. What is a formation flight?

Back 135

More than one aircraft which, by prior arrangement between the pilots, operate as a single aircraft with regard to navigation and position reporting. A standard formation is one in which a proximity of
no more than 1 mile laterally or longitudinally and within 100 feet vertically from the flight leader is maintained by each winging

Front 136

14. What is minimum fuel when stated to a controller mean?

Back 136

Indicates that an aircraft's fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching the destination, it can accept little or no delay. This is not an emergency situation but merely indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.

Front 137

15.What is emergency fuel when stated to a controller mean?

Back 137

Same as above, but emergency situation is now in effect. Aircraft needs to land ASAP

Front 138

16. What is considered night?

Back 138

The time between the end of evening civil twilight (when the sun’s disc is 6 deg below the sun’s horizon) and the beginning of morning civil twilight, as published in the American Air Almanac, converted to local time.

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17. What is an overhead approach?

Back 139

A series of predetermined maneuvers prescribed for Visual Flight Rules arrival of military aircraft (often in formation) for entry into the Visual Flight Rules traffic pattern and to proceed to a landing. The pattern usually specifies the following:
(1) The radio contact required of the pilot.
(2) The speed to be maintained.
(3) An initial approach 3 to 5 miles in length.
(4) An elliptical pattern consisting of two 180 degree turns.
(5) A break point at which the first 180 degree turn is started.
(6) The direction of turns.
(7) Altitude (at least 500 feet above the conventional pattern).
(8) A “Roll-out” on final approach not less than 1/4 mile from the landing threshold and not less than 300 feet above the ground.

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18. What does radar contact mean?

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a. Informs an aircraft that it is identified on the radar display and radar flight following will
be provided until radar identification is terminated. Radar service may also be provided within the limits of necessity and capability. When a pilot is informed of “radar contact” he automatically
discontinues reporting over Compulsory Reporting Points.
b. A term used to inform the controller that the aircraft is identified and approval is granted for the aircraft to enter the receiving controller's airspace

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19. What is runway condition reading (RCR)?

Back 141

Numerical decelerometer readings relayed by air traffic controllers at USAF and certain civil
bases for use by the pilot in determining runway braking action

Front 142

20.What is expected when told to fly runway heading?

Back 142

Pilots are expected to fly or maintain the heading that corresponds with the extended centerline of the departure runway. Drift correction shall not be applied

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21. What is a sidestep maneuver?

Back 143

A visual maneuver accomplished by a pilot at the completion of an instrument approach to permit a straight in landing on a parallel runway not more than 1200 feet to either side of the runway to which the instrument approach was conducted

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22. Explain what is required when given a “speed adjustment” by ATC.

Back 144

An Air Traffic Control procedure used to request pilots to adjust aircraft speed to a specific value for the purpose of providing desired spacing. Pilots are expected to maintain a speed of plus or minus 10 knots or 0.02 MACH number of specified speed.

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23. What is the touchdown zone elevation?

Back 145

The highest elevation in the first 3,000 feet of the landing surface

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24. What is runway visual range (RVR)?

Back 146

Represents the horizontal distance a pilot will see down the runway from the approach end it is based on the sighting of either high intensity runway lights or on the visual contrast of other targets whichever yields the greater visual range.

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25. What is a visual approach?

Back 147

An approach conducted on an instrument flight rules flight plan which authorizes the pilot to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport. The pilot must, at all times, have either the airport or the preceding aircraft in sight.

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2. Minimum altitude for VFR point-to-point navigation is _____AGL_. Aircrews may descend below _______ as required for low-level entry/VFR arrival. Do not descend outside of the area covered by the chummed low-level or VFR arrival chart.

Back 148

3000, 3000

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6. For local flying operations, aircrews do not have to designate an alternate (per AFFSA AETC Waiver Vol 3/20002 and Federal Aviation Administration [FAA] Exemption No. 7389) if all of the following conditions exist:

Back 149

If two or more suitable alternate airfields are available, aircrews may file flight plans to the home field when the terminal weather is forecast to be below published landing mins (we will still compute divert fuel requirements too though)

Front 150

7. If higher priority methods of departing IFR are not possible, T-1 aircrews may subtract _______ from the required climb gradient.

Back 150

48 ft/NM

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Are RNP approaches authorized?

Back 151

No

Front 152

Do DME/DME restrictions published on RNAV IAPs apply to the T-1A?

Back 152

No

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9. For locally published routes, slow routes (SR), and instrument routes (IR), aircrew will ensure a ceiling and visibility of at least _______and ______ for visual route (VR).

Back 153

1500, 3

Front 154

10. Mandatory Calls for Pilot Not Flying (PNF) on Nonprecision Approaches:

Back 154

“One hundred feet above”
“Minimums”
“Runway in Sight”
“Go Around”

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11. Mandatory Calls for Pilot Not Flying (PNF) on Precision Approaches:

Back 155

“One hundred feet above”
“Continue” / “Land” / “Go-Around”

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13. The PNF the aircraft will announce heading deviations, airspeed deviations of ______ knots or more below desired, and altitude deviations of _____ feet or more from desired. N

Back 156

5,100

Front 157

1. You see in the Trouble T section, “or standard with minimum climb of 315’/nm to 2000.” What does the “standard” refer to?

Back 157

7.4.1.1.3. Minimum Climb Gradient. (Figure 7.8.) TERPS may provide a minimum climb gradient with or without takeoff weather minima. Some non-standard takeoff weather minima may have an asterisk (*) referring to a note that lists a specific climb gradient that may be used with standard weather minima. When using this type of IFR departure, USAF pilots will substitute MAJCOM-directed takeoff weather minima in place of the word “standard.”

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2. When flying a Departure Procedure, aircrew must delay all turns until at least_____ feet above the DER elevation, unless__________.

Back 158

7.2.3. USAF pilots flying under IFR will delay all turns until at least 400 feet above the DER elevation unless an early turn is specifically required by the departure procedure. (Reduced Takeoff Runway Length (RTRL) and non-standard weather minimum procedures may require more than 400‘.)

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3. What is considered the Runway End Crossing Height for departures designed by the USAF/USN? Other?

Back 159

7.3.3.1. USAF/USN non-joint-use bases. The OCS at USAF and USN bases normally begins at zero feet AGL at the DER, but the OCS may be raised as much as 35 feet in order to clear obstacles. If the TERPS specialist raises the OCS, it will be published in the ODP (Figure 7.3.) At non-joint-use USAF or USN bases, assume a zero foot runway end crossing height unless a higher altitude is published.

Front 160

4. When are low, close-in obstacles published?

Back 160

7.3.5. Low close-in obstacles (Figure 7.4) are those that would generate an excessive climb gradient (>200 ft/NM) that terminates at or below 200 feet above the departure end of the runway. Instead of publishing a steep climb gradient or complicated routing, the TERPS specialist will publish the height and location of the obstacles (this information can also appear in NOTAMS). Low close-in obstacles must be accounted for no matter what IFR departure method a pilot chooses. Pilots will calculate their aircraft performance to ensure they can vertically clear applicable low close-in obstacles on all departures. One technique for determining what obstacles are applicable might be to consider all within 500 feet, laterally, of the planned departure (or emergency return) ground track. Additionally, in order to ensure vertical clearance of those obstacles (valid only for low-close in takeoff obstacles) compare the aircraft‘s calculated height at the obstacle‘s distance from liftoff to the height of the offending obstacle. Pilots may conclude after careful analysis of low close-in obstacles that a safe IFR departure cannot be made. In this case, select an alternate departure runway or ground track, or consult your MAJCOM for guidance.

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5. You see in the Trouble T section the following: “with standard takeoff

Back 161

inimums and a normal 200’ per NM climb gradient, takeoff must occur no later
than 1600’ prior to the departure end of the runway.” Is this allowed?
7.4.1.3. Reduced Takeoff Runway Length Procedure. This procedure was formerly known as ―limiting takeoff runway available‖ (TORA). The TERPS specialist may find that by artificially limiting the takeoff length of the runway, a normal climb gradient may avoid obstacles that penetrate an OCS that begins at the DER (Figure 7.13.) USAF pilots shall only use an RTRL procedure if it is published as an ODP in FLIP. An RTRL procedure produces a zero screen height and therefore a lower climb gradient by requiring the aircraft to lift off the runway at or prior to a specified distance from the DER. Pilots must check takeoff and landing data (TOLD) carefully when planning this type of departure. In the example below, subtract the value in the RTRL procedure from the usable runway length to determine the ―reduced runway length.‖ Compare your aircraft‘s ―takeoff ground run‖ or ―takeoff distance‖ value to the new reduced runway length. If the reduced length is equal to or greater than your aircraft‘s calculated ―ground run‖, the procedure may be flown using a standard climb gradient of 200‘/NM. Since the TERPS specialist has access to much more obstacle and terrain data than a pilot, and because adjusting the lift-off point may produce a new controlling obstacle (Figure 7.14.), USAF pilots are prohibited from creating their own RTRL procedure.

Front 162

6. What does it mean when you see a Trouble T on an approach plate?

Back 162

7.4.1.1. ODP Notification. On U.S. Government produced instrument procedures, the pilot is notified that runway specific departure information exists by the placement of a special symbol on all of the IAPs and SIDs for the airport. (Figure 7.5.) The symbol is a white ―T‖ on a black inverted triangle ( ), referred to by some as the ―Trouble T‖ because it indicates potential trouble for departing aircraft. This ―Trouble T‖ should be published in the upper left corner of Volpe-format approach plates, but may be printed elsewhere on the IAP—for this reason, pilots should carefully check for the ―Trouble T‖ on every instrument procedure for that airfield. The presence of the ―Trouble T‖ means IFR takeoff minima and departure procedures are prescribed for specific airports/runways. USAF pilots will comply with applicable departure procedures.

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7. You read in the front of the IAP book “Diverse departures authorized 071 to 141 CW with minimum civil climb of 450’/NM to 6900, minimum military climb of 390’/ NM to 6300.” Can USAF aircraft execute this procedure?

Back 163

7.4.2. Sector Departures. (Figure 7.15) Published ―sector‖ diverse departures (i.e. ―Diverse Departure authorized 145° CW to 278° with min climb gradient of…) are authorized as an ODP. Pilots must ensure that they can meet or exceed any published climb gradient for the departure to be flown.

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8. You see in the Trouble T section that a climb gradient in excess of 200 ft/nm is

Back 164

equired for your intended runway. No other instructions are published. May you
execute a Diverse Departure?
Yes, but you must comply with the low close in obstacles section.
Low close-in obstacles (Figure 7.4) are those that would generate an excessive climb gradient (>200 ft/NM) that terminates at or below 200 feet above the departure end of the runway. Instead of publishing a steep climb gradient or complicated routing, the TERPS specialist will publish the height and location of the obstacles (this information can also appear in NOTAMS). Low close-in obstacles must be accounted for no matter what IFR departure method a pilot chooses. Pilots will calculate their aircraft performance to ensure they can vertically clear applicable low close-in obstacles on all departures. One technique for determining what obstacles are applicable might be to consider all within 500 feet, laterally, of the planned departure (or emergency return) ground track. Additionally, in order to ensure vertical clearance of those obstacles (valid only for low-close in takeoff obstacles) compare the aircraft‘s calculated height at the obstacle‘s distance from liftoff to the height of the offending obstacle. Pilots may conclude after careful analysis of low close-in obstacles that a safe IFR departure cannot be made. In this case, select an alternate departure runway or ground track, or consult your MAJCOM for guidance.

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10. What methods exist to reduce required climb gradients for an IFR departure?

Back 165

7.5.1. Methods to reduce required climb gradients. Delaying a mission until environmental conditions (temperature, pressure altitude, winds, etc.) or mission requirements (fuel load required, stores, cargo load, etc.) allow compliance with the required climb gradient is the safest option. IAW AFI 11-202V3, operations supervisors (or equivalent mission execution authority supervisor) may reduce the required climb gradient by the ROC safety margin. Another method to reduce the required IFR climb gradient is to use a special emergency-use-only procedure termed ―Special Departure Procedure‖ (SDP).
7.5.1.1. Subtraction of 48’/NM from published climb gradient. (Requires operations supervisor or equivalent mission execution authority supervisor approval.) If there is no SDP for the departure runway, the only other approved method to reduce the required climb gradient is to subtract 48‘/NM from the published minimum climb gradient. In Figure 7.20. the resultant climb gradient the pilot must comply with is 322‘/NM to 1700‘ MSL (370 – 48 = 322).

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11. (T/F)You may fly conventional DPs (RNAV and/or GPS does not appear in title

Back 166

f procedure) published in FLIP that are retrievable from selected aircraft
navigation databases.
7.6.4.9. There are conventional DPs (RNAV and/or GPS does not appear in title of procedure) published in FLIP that are retrievable from selected aircraft navigation databases. These DPs may be flown using the FMS as the primary means of navigation as long as the FMS is FAA AC 90-100A (or equivalent) compliant. USAF aircraft are authorized to fly these procedures in IMC provided it is retrieved from the database and ground-based NAVAIDS are installed, operational, tuned, and monitored.

Front 167

12. You want to depart IFR from runway 7.The “Trouble T” section in the front of the approach book says “Runway 7: N/A.” What does this mean to you?

Back 167

It means that if there is no SID or IFR departure procedure, coordination with MAJCOM TERPS specialists is required to determine the best departure method and required climb gradient prior to and IFR departure.

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1. Two-way radio failure on IFR Flight plan in FAA airspace, if VMC is not encountered continue flight route according to? Altitude?

Back 168

Unanswered

Front 169

5. ATIS reports an Braking Action Level of Fair. What RCR does this equate to?

Back 169

12-17

Front 170

7. The collective callsign for the USAF High Frequency Global Communications System (HFGCS) is?

Back 170

MAINSAIL

Front 171

8. You make contact with Mainsail over the USAF HFGCS, and want a phone patch to

Back 171

ACC West cell. What is their callsign, and what phone number to you wish to
call?
TACC West Cell HILDA WEST 312-779-0349

Front 172

9. You are departing Nellis AFB on a mission. What OWS should you call for weather?

Back 172

25 OWS at Davis Monthan AFB, Under Command and Control of AFWA.
Contact Information:
Voice: DSN 312-228-6598/6599, Comm 520-228-6598/6599
Toll Free: 1-877-451-8367
Fax: DSN 312-228-7361, Comm 520-228-7361
STU-III: DSN 312-228-6589
Airborne Contact via Phone Patch: DSN 312-228-6598/6599
NIPRNET Homepage: https://25ows.dm.af.mil
SIPRNET Homepage: http://25ows.davismonthan.af.smil.mil

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10.What service can Mountain Home AFB PMSV provide? When?

Back 173

ombination (?)
Unasnwered.

Front 174

11. You’re talking to ABQ Center and would like to contact Flight Watch for enroute weather. What frequency will you contact, and what will you tell them?

Back 174

FSS for ABQ

Front 175

12. AIRMETs are issued for:

Back 175

Unasnwered.

Front 176

13.Visibility is reported to be 1200 meters. How many miles does this equate to?

Back 176

.75

Front 177

14. Reading a TAF, you see the code 640305. What does this mean?

Back 177

Icing moderate (mixed)based at 3000 to 8000

Front 178

15. Flying over Tajikistan, Dusanbe Control gives you an altimeter setting of 1015 millibars. What do you put in your Baroaltimeter, in inches?

Back 178

29.97

Front 179

16. Dushanbe Control then directs you to descend to 6200 meters. What altitude will you descend to?

Back 179

FL200

Front 180

17. ATIS at ICT is reporting -10C. What corrections will you apply to NDB 1

Back 180

MDA 1720, HAT 399)?

Front 181

18. You check the NOTAMs for Amarillo and see ABn inop WIE UFN. Huh?

Back 181

Aerodrome Beacon inop with immediate effect until further notice

Front 182

19. Where do you find the format for an inflight change of flight plan.

Back 182

Back of IFR Sup

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1. When may the PIC deviate from a flight rule or ATC clearance?

Back 183

A PIC may only deviate from any flight rule or ATC clearance to protect life, for safety of flight or when an in-flight emergency requires immediate action. (1.7)

Front 184

2. What minimum support is required for AETC aircraft for all cross country and out-and-back sorties to civilian airports?

Back 184

Minimum support required may be supplemented by individual units and will include the following:
2.1.16.1. (Added-AETC) Appropriate servicing available.
2.1.16.2. (Added-AETC) Ground attendant to help with start/fireguard.
2.1.16.3. (Added-AETC) Fire extinguisher.
2.1.16.4. (Added-AETC) Crash, rescue, and fire response available.

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3. You check the ASRR and see that the field has a “Z” code. What does that mean?

Back 185

2.2.1.3. (Added-AETC) Z Code. Airfields listed in the ASRR with a ―Z‖ code (that is, STIF entries exist) may have AETC-specific information or restrictions. Crews will reference the airfield database for details on STIF information.

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4. The PIC will ensure current copies (electronic and/or paper) of the appropriate ______________ are on board the aircraft.

Back 186

2.3.1 FLIP, en route supplement, en route, oceanic plotting and/or terrain charts, Flight Information Handbook, and appropriate arrival, approach and departure procedures

Front 187

5. The PIC must ensure sufficient fuel is on board to...?

Back 187

Before takeoff or immediately after in-flight refueling, the aircraft must have enough usable fuel aboard to complete the flight:
2.4.1. To a final landing, either at the destination airport or alternate airport (if one is
required), plus the fuel reserves.

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6. You are going to a field where an alternate is required. If you are filing visibility only instead of using ceiling and visibility, how does this affect your fuel planning?

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2.4.3.1. Fuel required for an approach and missed approach (at the destination in addition to the alternate) must be included in the total flight plan fuel if visibility-only weather criteria (paragraph 8.6.3.2.) is used to determine the suitability of the original destination.

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7. If you are planning a 6 hour flight, what is the required fuel reserve?

Back 189

36 MINUTES

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8. How is that computed?

Back 190

2.4.4. Fuel Reserve. The PIC must ensure the aircraft is carrying enough usable fuel on
each flight to increase the total planned flight time between refueling points by 10 percent (up to a maximum of 45 minutes for fixed-wing or 30 minutes for helicopters) or 20 minutes, whichever is greater. Compute fuel reserves using MAJCOM-defined consumption rates for normal cruising speeds or the following:
2.4.4.2. For turbine-powered aircraft use fuel consumption rates that provide maximum endurance at 10,000 ft. Mean Sea Level (MSL).

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9. (T/F) Pilots will declare minimum/ emergency fuel to the appropriate controlling agency when in their judgment the aircraft may land at the intended destination with less than the minimum/ emergency fuel reserve.

Back 191

TRUE!

Front 192

10. Aircrews will obtain flight weather support from one of the following (in priority order)?

Back 192

2.6.1.1. (Added-AETC) Local military weather unit (Air Force combat weather team
[CWT], Navy, or Marine unit).
2.6.1.2. (Added-AETC) Servicing Air Force operational weather squadron (OWS).
2.6.1.3. (Added-AETC) Another military weather unit (Air Force CWT or OWS, Navy,
or Marine unit).
2.6.1.4. (Added-AETC) FAA weather forecast or flight weather briefing agency (or
equivalent overseas).
2.6.1.5. (Added-AETC) The nearest flight service station (FSS)

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11. When must the PIC ensure all cell phones, pagers, wireless devices, etc. are turned off and stowed?

Back 193

2.9.1. Cellular Phones. The PIC will ensure that cellular phones, pagers, wireless internet
capable devices and similar cell phone technology devices are turned off and stowed from the time the aircraft leaves its parking spot for departure until clear of the runway after landing.

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12. Define mountainous terrain?

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2.11. Mountainous Terrain. In the absence of other MAJCOM guidance, USAF aircrews shall consider as mountainous: those areas defined in 14 CFR §95.11 for CONUS, Alaska, Hawaii and Puerto Rico. For all other areas of operation, use a 500 ft surface elevation change over a ½ NM distance to define the location of mountainous terrain.

Front 195

13. What equipment is required for flight in USAF aircraft cockpits?

Back 195

2.15. Equipment Required for Flight. USAF aircraft cockpits and RPA control stations must always provide full-time attitude, altitude, and airspeed information and the capability to recognize, confirm, and recover from unusual attitudes in all pilot positions.

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14. What equipment is required to fly in IMC?

Back 196

2.15.2. Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC). Flights in IMC also require
operational: pitot heat, anti-icing and/or de-icing equipment designed to cope with the type
and severity of known or forecast icing conditions. Such equipment is not required for brief
exposures when climbing or descending to an operating altitude above or below the icing
condition.

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15. When can you use RNAV as a substitute?

Back 197

2.16.4.3.3. RNAV Substitution. On procedures developed by a US TERPS
authority (FAA/USAF/USN), or on WGS-84 compliant procedures reviewed by
MAJCOM TERPS, MAJCOM-approved suitable RNAV systems may be used as a
substitute means of navigation for a named fix, VOR, TACAN, NDB, DME or
compass locator.

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16. When may you fly an Air Force aircraft without first filing a flight plan?

Back 198

3.1. Flight Plan Requirements. The PIC will ensure a flight plan is filed for any flight of a USAF aircraft.

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17. When may a PIC make changes to a route or destination not shown on the original flight plan without refiling?

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3.1.3.1. The change does not penetrate an ADIZ.
3.1.3.2. The controlling ATC agency approves the change for an IFR flight.
3.1.3.3. The PIC ensures the facility providing flight following is notified of the change.
Failure to ensure a FSS (or its overseas equivalent) is aware of the change may result in
erroneous SAR efforts or an unannounced arrival at the destination.
3.1.3.4. The change complies with applicable host-nation rules.

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18. The PIC's signature on the flight plan is evidence of the following:

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4.4.1. The flight was properly ordered, authorized, and released IAW AFI 11-401.
4.4.2. Current NOTAMs, weather, and other pertinent flight data were obtained.
4.4.3. The flight will be conducted according to all governing directives.
4.4.4. The flight plan has been reviewed for completeness and accuracy.
4.4.5. Foreign clearance briefings have met the minimum requirements of the FCG.
4.4.6. The PIC is responsible for safety of the aircraft (or formation) and its occupants.
4.4.7. The flight complies with ADIZ restrictions published in FLIP and NOTAMs.
4.4.8. The flight complies with the scheduling and coordination procedures specified for
Special Use Airspace or Military Training Routes in FLIP.
4.4.9. The Formation Lead ensured each member of the formation flight was briefed on all
pertinent aspects of the planned flight, and the PIC of each aircraft in the formation possesses
an instrument rating (Army and Navy Special and Instrument Ratings, and FAA
Instrument/Airline Transport Pilot Ratings meet this requirement) if any portion of the flight
is to be conducted in IMC or under IFR (see paragraph 4.2. above).

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19. Define a joint-use airport?

Back 201

4.5.1. (AETC) Use of Military and Joint Use Airports. A joint use airport is defined as a
military airport that authorizes civilian use (e.g., Charleston AFB). A joint use airport is not
by definition a civil P airport. A civil airport with a military tenant is a civil P airport, not a
joint use airport.

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20. When can Air Force aircraft land at civil (P) fields?

Back 202

4.5.3. Use of Civil P Airports. Unless restricted by the MAJCOM, pilots may file to or
land USAF aircraft at US civil airports (P-coded in the En route Supplement):
4.5.3. (AETC) Use of Civil P Airports. In addition to guidance listed in AFI 11-202,
Volume 3, paragraph 4.5.3, aircrews are authorized to file to or land at P airports on the
AETC volume training LOA list. Airports listed with a Fixed Base Operator (FBO) on the
AETC volume training LOA list are approved for remain overnight (RON).
4.5.3.1. In an emergency.
4.5.3.2. When flying a helicopter or C-coded aircraft (e.g. C-130, C-12, C-40)
4.5.3.3. When necessary in the recovery of active air defense interceptor aircraft.
4.5.3.4. When this instruction requires an alternate and no other suitable airport is
available.
4.5.3.5. When the wing commander or higher authority approves the flight and the
airport manager grants permission in advance.

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1. Aircrew shall not consume alcoholic beverages within ___ hours of Takeoff (5.1.4.1)

Back 203

12

Front 204

2. Aircraft in distress have the right-of-way over all other air traffic. (Ref: AFI 11-202

Back 204

ol 3)
True (5.7.1)

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5. (In the NAS) The PIC will Not allow their aircraft to exceed _____ at or below 2,500 ft. AGL within 4 NMs of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area unless authorized by ATC, or required to maintain the minimum safe maneuvering airspeed specified in the aircraft T.O. (5.9.2.2)

Back 205

200

Front 206

6. If a taxi route requires crossing any runway, pilots will hold short until obtaining specific clearance to cross each runway. Do not taxi across or onto the assigned runway without clearance from ATC.

Back 206

True (5.11.3)

Front 207

7. May USAF fixed wing pilots accept a LAHSO clearance?

Back 207

No, but we can participate passively, i.e. land/TO when another a/c has been given a LAHSO clearance. (5.11.5)

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8. Mission permitting, do not operate aircraft less than _____ ft. AGL over National Park Service monuments, seashores, lake shores, recreation and scenic river ways US Fish and Wildlife Service refuges and ranges and US Forest Service wilderness and primitive areas. (5.14.5)

Back 208

2000

Front 209

9. (T/F) If equipped, anti-collision and strobe lights must be on:

Back 209

ground: IAW 11-218 air: TO to LDG, but may be turned off for safety (5.20.4.2)

Front 210

10. Right-of-Way Rules? (5.7)

Back 210

Distress. Aircraft in distress have the right-of-way over all other air traffic.
Converging. When converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on or approximately so), the aircraft to the other's right has the right-of-way. Aircraft of different categories have the right-of-way in the following order of priority: balloons, gliders, aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft, airships, rotary- or fixed-wing aircraft.
Approaching Head-On. If aircraft are approaching each other head-on or approximately so, each shall alter course to the right.
Overtaking Aircraft. An overtaken aircraft has the right-of-way. The overtaking aircraft must alter course to the right.
Landing. An aircraft established on final approach has the right-of-way over other aircraft on the ground or in the air, except when two or more aircraft are approaching to land. In this case, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way but it shall not use this advantage to cut in front of or overtake the other.

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11. If ATC tells you to descend from 5000 ft to 3000 ft for traffic and as you begin your descent you get a TCAS RA instructing you to climb, which do you follow?

Back 211

TCAS: deviations acceptable for emergencies, safety of flight, or TCAS RA (5.8.1)

Front 212

12.Immediately report distress or ELT transmissions to ______. (5.8.3)

Back 212

ATC

Front 213

13. In the NAS, when may a pilot fly in excess of 250 KIAS below 10,000 ft?

Back 213

When MAJCOM has approved higher speed IAW 5.9.5 (5.9.2.1)

Front 214

14. Unless otherwise authorized by T.O. or ATC, you may not exceed 200 KIAS within __ miles and below_____ feet AGL of the primary airport in Class C and D airspace. (5.9.2.2)

Back 214

4, 2500

Front 215

15. What is the maximum authorized speed in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?

Back 215

200 KIAS (5.9.2.3)

Front 216

16. When can you turn after a takeoff, touch and go, or low approach?

Back 216

at least 400 ft. above the Departure End of the Runway (DER) elevation, at a safe airspeed and past the end of the runway (if visible) unless: specifically cleared by the controlling agency or required by a published procedure. (5.11.7)

Front 217

17. Does this apply to closed pattern?

Back 217

No (5.11.7)

Front 218

18. When must the "gear down" call be made?

Back 218

Prior to crossing the threshold (5.13)

Front 219

19.What is the minimum altitude allowed over congested areas?

Back 219

1000’ above highest obstacle w/in 2000’ radius (5.14.3)

Front 220

20. When must position lights be displayed?

Back 220

between official sunset and sunrise:
Immediately before engine start and when an engine is running. Aircraft that do not have power available before start shall turn them on as soon as power is available.
When parked in an area likely to create a hazard or while being towed, unless clearly illuminated by an outside source. (5.20.3)

Front 221

21. (T/F) Pilots will not takeoff, land, or fly an approach at an airport where thunderstorms or other hazardous conditions are producing hail, strong winds, gust fronts, heavy rain, lightning, windshear, and (or) microbursts.

Back 221

True (5.26.1)

Front 222

1. When must we fly IFR?

Back 222

Wx does not allow VFR
Airspace does not require IFR flight (e.g. class A)
Night ops (unless mission can’t be flown IFR)
Airways – operating in excess of 180 KTAS (8.1)

Front 223

2. How can you file IFR to an airport without a published instrument approach?

Back 223

If there is no compatible published approach at the destination, pilots may file a composite IFR/VFR flight plan to:
A point en route where forecast weather at ETA (+ 1 hour) allows continued flight to the destination under VFR.
A point served by a published approach procedure where forecast weather at ETA (+ 1 hour) allows the pilot to descend to VFR conditions and continue to the destination under VFR. (8.5.2)

Front 224

3. What weather will force you to designate an alternate?

Back 224

AETC: worst weather, TEMPO or prevailing, at the ETA (±1 hour) for the first point of landing or each point of landing on a stopover flight plan is less than a ceiling of 2,000 feet and a visibility of 3 SM, even if the weather permits a VFR descent from an MIA (8.7.1)

Front 225

4. Exception to above rule?

Back 225

If two or more suitable independent precision approaches are available and operable for the airport of intended landing at ETA (±1 hour), the ceiling may be lowered to 1,500 feet but the visibility must still be at least 3 SM. (8.7.1.1.1)

Front 226

5. What additional considerations require an alternate?

Back 226

If weather at a destination or a point enroute (at the ETA ±1 hour) is above a ceiling of 2,000 feet and 3 SMs visibility but does not permit a VFR descent from the MSA,MEA, MOCA or OROCA to a VFR
approach and landing, pilots must designate an alternate airport when filing IFR to a destination:
Where all compatible approaches require radar.
Where required NAVAIDs are unmonitored.
When the destination has no weather reporting capability.
When the point of intended landing’s lowest compatible approach weather
minimums are greater than or equal to a 1,500 ft. ceiling or 3 SM visibility.
Regardless of weather, where forecast winds exceed aircraft
limits ± 1 hour of ETA.
Regardless of weather, when denial of accommodation to RVSM airspace would prevent the aircraft or flight from reaching its planned destination, a suitable alternate will be designated that does not require accommodation.
Where forecast winds exceed aircraft limits ± 1 hour of ETA.
When denial of accommodation to RVSM airspace would prevent the aircraft or flight from reaching its planned destination, a suitable alternate will be designated that does not require accommodation. (8.7.2)

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6. What weather is required when selecting an alternate?

Back 227

Except for TEMPO conditions for thunderstorms and snow/rain showers, the worst forecasted prevailing weather conditions for an alternate airport (ETA ±1hour) must meet or exceed:
Alternate with a Compatible Published Instrument Approach Procedure:
Fixed-Wing Aircraft. A ceiling of at least 500 ft. above the lowest compatible
approach minima and a visibility of at least 2 SM or published visibility minima
whichever is greater.
Alternate without a Published or Compatible Instrument Approach
Procedure. Forecast weather for the ETA (±1 hour) must permit a VFR descent from the
MIA to a VFR approach and landing, or, if the mission justifies the increased risk, under
specific conditions, an otherwise unqualified airfield may be designated as an alternate by the
MAJCOM/A3. MAJCOMs establish UAS alternate airfield policies. (8.8)

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7. Airports do not qualify as alternates if_______________?

Back 228

All compatible approaches require radar.
GPS is the only available NAVAID.
The FLIP designation ― A NA is displayed on all compatible approach plates.
The FLIP A designation (without NA) is displayed on all compatible approach plates
and an associated note applies. The A signifies that non-standard alternate minimums are
published for that runway. While non-standard alternate minimums do not apply to USAF
aircraft, there may be notes associated with the non-standard alternate minimums that do.
Pilots must check for such notes whenever the A designation is shown on an IAP.(Added-AETC) Forecast winds exceed aircraft limits ± 1 hour of ETA.
(Added-AETC) Access to RVSM airspace is required to reach the alternate for noncompliant
aircraft. (8.9)

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8. What are the five methods of departing IFR?

Back 229

SID
ODP
Diverse Departures
ATC instructions
MAJCOM certification (8.12.3)

Front 230

9. When executing a VCOA, how close must you remain to the airfield?

Back 230

Remain w/in VOCA’s vis requirement (8.12.4.1)

Front 231

10. Can you fly a VCOA at night?

Back 231

No, unless using NVDs or specifically authorized by MAJCOM (8.12.4.1)

Front 232

11. When flying a SID, what climb gradient is required?

Back 232

The gradient published on the SID (or in trouble T if not in SID) (8.12.5)

Front 233

12. When given specific ATC Departure Instructions, what must the pilot do in all cases?

Back 233

If the departure runway has any published climb gradients, the PIC must meet or exceed the highest gradient when departing via ATC instructions.
If unable to meet any ATC climb gradient, coordinate with ATC prior to flying the procedure.
Pilots are never relieved of the responsibility for terrain and obstacle avoidance. The radio call “Radar Contact” only means the aircraft has been identified on radar. Responsibility is shared between pilot and controller only after navigational guidance is issued. (8.12.6)

Front 234

13. When is a diverse departure not authorized?

Back 234

When obstacle departure, climb gradient, or non-standard takeoff wx mins are published for that rwy (8.12.7)

Front 235

14.Regardless of the IFR departure method selected, PICs will climb at what rate, unless a higher gradient is published for the departure runway (in a departure procedure or Trouble T)?

Back 235

200’/NM (8.12.10)

Front 236

15. What must the PIC do when low close in obstacles are published?

Back 236

Ensure the aircraft can vertically clear applicable published low close-in obstacles (8.12.10.1)

Front 237

16. When using any method to reduce the required climb gradient, the PIC must still ensure the aircraft is able to _____________________?

Back 237

with all engines operating (AEO), meets or exceeds the
published climb gradient and all ATC or SID climb restrictions for the method
selected. (8.12.10.5.2)

Front 238

17. (T/F) For a circling approach, weather must be at or above only the published ceiling minimums.

Back 238

False – wx must be above both published ceiling and vis mins (8.17.2.3)

Front 239

18. When will cold weather altimeter corrections be applied?

Back 239

Below 32F/0C – correct all altitudes inside of FAF Below -22F / -30C – correct all altitudes on IAP (table 8.2)

Front 240

19. When do we advise ATC of temperature corrections being applied?

Back 240

If applied correction exceeds 80’ (8.17.7.3)

Front 241

20. What climb gradient is required on a missed approach?

Back 241

200’/NM, unless higher is published/assigned by ATC (8.17.10.2)

Front 242

21. When runway approach lighting system is INOP you must increase published visibility minimums by?

Back 242

As directed by the inoperative components table in FLIP.
As stated on IAP, NOTAMs, ATIS, or other airport information source.
If no other guidance is provided, increase published visibility by ½ mile.
This paragraph applies only to the ALS itself, not to Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI) or Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI). (8.17.2.4)

Front 243

22. Define crew rest period.

Back 243

The crew rest period is normally a minimum 12-hour non-duty period before the FDP begins. Its purpose is to ensure the aircrew member is adequately rested before performing flight or flight related duties. Crew rest is free time, and includes time for meals, transportation, and rest. Rest is defined as a condition that allows an individual the opportunity to sleep. (9.4.5)

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23. Define flight duty period.

Back 244

FDP begins when an aircrew member reports for a mission,
briefing, or other official duty and ends when engines are shut down at the end of the mission, mission leg, or a series of missions. (9.4.6)