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122 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which enzyme is produced in the pancreas in an inactive form?
A. Trypsin B. Amylase C. Lipase |
Trypsin
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Four days after a nun eventful BillrothII gastric resection,a 55-year-old man suddenly develops severe upper abdominal pain.On examination, his abdomen in rigid and he has a fever. The probable diagnosisis:
A. postoperative acute cholecystitis B. delayed rupture of a contused spleen C. wound infection D. acute pancreatitis E. duodenal stump leak |
duodenal stump leak
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Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with splenomegaly?
A. Sickle cell disease B. Lymphomas C. Portal hypertension D. Spherocytosis E. Malaria |
Sickle cell disease
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Which statement is true for pancreatic cancer in general?
A. Thanks to the modern oncologic treatment modalities, the average survival now exceeds 2 years even in unresectable cases B. The traditional procedure for a resectable pancreatic head malignancy is the Whipple operation C. Regarding histological types, 30% is ductal adenocarcinoma D. The majority of the tumors are located in the body of the pancreas |
The traditional procedure for a resectable pancreatic head malignancy is the Whipple
operation |
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Please select the structures that surgeons dissect during a normal laparoscopic cholecystectomy.
A. Right hepatic artery and cystic duct B. Cystic duct and cystic artery C. Cystic duct and common bile duct D. Common bile duct and hepatic duct E. Cystic artery and common bile duct |
Cystic duct and cystic artery
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Which statement is true for acute pancreatitis?
A. The most common causes are alcohol abuse and biliary tract disorders B. Surgery should be performed as early as possible in complicated pancreatitis C. The basic pathomechanism is the bacterial digestion of the pancreatic tissue D. ERCP is contraindicated in acute gallstone pancreatitis |
The most common causes are alcohol abuse and biliary tract disorders
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From the following options select the scoring system currently used to help predict the severity of acute pancreatitis:
A. ASA B. APACHE-II C. SAPS-II D. SIRS-I |
APACHE-II Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation II
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From the following options which is the most typical complication of a cancer in the head of the pancreas?
A. Obstruction of the proximal ileum B. Obstruction of the hepatic duct C. Obstruction of the celiac trunk D. Obstruction of the common bile duct |
Obstruction of the common bile duct
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Partial gastric resection is indicated in the following case:
A. small antrum tumor with diffuse type Lauren classification B. small antrum tumor with intestinal type Lauren classification C. linitis plastica D. large peptic ulcer as a first line of treatment |
small antrum tumor with intestinal type Lauren classification
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Which of the following statement is NOT true for laparoscopic cholecystectomy when compared to an open procedure?
A. Requires shorter hospitalization time B. Rate of complications is lower C. Yields better cosmetic results D. Postoperative pain is less severe |
Rate of complications is lower
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From the following treatment options which is the most appropriate for a patient with suddenly developing
jaundice, proven gallstones and no signs of acute abdomen? A. Immediate open cholecystectomy with common bile duct exploration B. Conservative treatment with antibiotics C. Urgent ERCP followed by laparoscopic cholecystectomy D. Urgent laparoscopic cholecystectomy followed by ERCP E. Delayed open cholecystectomy with common bile duct exploration |
Urgent ERCP(-Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography) followed by laparoscopic cholecystectomy
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Which of the following conditions presents an indication for hepatic resection?
A. Primary biliary cirrhosis B. Hepatitis C infection C. Budd-Chiari syndrome D. Hepatitis B infection E. Solitary liver metastasis |
Solitary liver metastasis
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Which is the most characteristic sign of gastric perforation in the first hour?
A. Colic right upper quadrant pain B. Sharp lower right quadrant pain C. Diarrhea D. Sharp epigastric pain E. Fever |
Sharp epigastric pain
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Which disease is treated by the Heller operation?
A. Hiatal hernia B. Esophageal carcinoma C. Crohn's disease D. Achalasia of the cardia E. Congenital megacolon |
Achalasia of the cardia
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Which of the following conditions Helicobacter pylori infection is NOT associated with?
A. Acute gastritis B. Gastric ulcer C. Gastric cancer D. Chronic gastritis E. Duodenal ulcer |
Acute gastritis
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From the following options which characteristics or studies can preoperatively distinguish a benign gastric ulcer from a cancer?
A. Acid secretory studies B. Diameter (more than 2 cm) C. Distance from the pylorus D. Clinical response to PPI treatment E. Multiple biopsies |
Multiple biopsies
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Which condition is NOT associated with an increased risk of gastric cancer?
A. Acute alcoholic gastritis B. Adenomatous gastric polyps C. Helicobacter pylori infection D. Atrophic chronic gastritis |
Acute alcoholic gastritis
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Which of the following is the characteristic feature of the Mallory-Weiss syndrome?
A. Bleeding from a gastric polyp B. Mucosal rupture in the esophagus C. Rupture of the esophageal mucosa and the gastric mucosa in the region of the cardia D. Rupture of the gastric mucosa |
Rupture of the esophageal mucosa and the gastric mucosa in the region of the cardia
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The most frequent severe complication of a Roux-en-Y type gastric resection is:
A. dumping syndrome B. dehiscence of the ileal stump (anastomotic leakage) C. septic shock D. dehiscence of the duodenal stump (anastomotic leakage) E. hemorrhage |
dehiscence of the duodenal stump (anastomotic leakage)
wound reopening |
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Regarding hepatic diseases, which statement is true?
A. When in doubt about the nature of a hepatic hemangioma, a percutaneous needle biopsy is recommended to confirm the diagnosis B. The liver has such a good regeneration potential that often as much as 75-80% of the hepatic volume can be removed during surgery C. The liver has 7 functional segments D. Focal nodular hyperplasia usually turns into a hepatic malignancy |
The liver has such a good regeneration potential that often as much as 75-80%
of the hepatic volume can be removed during surgery |
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The most prevalent cause of mortality due to a duodenal ulcer can be:
A. hemorrhage B. an esophageal rupture associated with the regurgitation of the acidic gastric contents C. pyloric obstruction and inanition D. peritonitis resulting from acute perforation E. an untreatable disease |
hemorrhage
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The treatment of choice for a symptomatic pancreatic abscess is:
A. pancreatic resection B. external drainage C. cystoenterostomy D. antibiotic therapy without drainage E. cystogastrostomy |
external drainage
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Select the condition which is most likely to be candidate for laparoscopic splenectomy
A. splenic infiltration of pancreatic malignancy B. polycythemia vera C. Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura D. portal hypertension E. thalassemia with significant splenomegaly |
Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
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All of the following factors cause acute pancreatitis, EXCEPT:
A. hyperlipidemia B. hemochromatosis C. alcohol D. hypercalcemia associated with parathyroid dysfunction E. biliary stones |
hemochromatosis
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Which of the following features reflect a poor prognosis in acute pancreatitis?
A. Prolonged coagulation time B. Hyperglycemia and glycosuria C. Reduced serum calcium level D. High surges of serum amylase levels E. High urinary amylase level |
Reduced serum calcium leve
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What is the most severe possible complication of acute cholangitis?
A. Hepatic abscess B. Acute pancreatitis C. Duodenal perforation D. Prolonged jaundice E. Development of stones in the common bile duct |
Hepatic abscess
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The incidence of biliary stones is supposed to increase after which of the following operations?
A. Resection of the jejunum B. Resection of the ileum C. Subtotal gastrectomy D. Resection of a liver lobe E. Splenectomy |
Resection of the ileum
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Which of the following compounds is contraindicated following a liver resection?
A. Antibiotics B. Albumin C. Vitamin K D. Carbohydrates E. Hypnotic analgesics |
Hypnotic analgesics
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Characteristic features of thrombocytopenic purpura include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. subnormal platelet count in peripheral blood B. significant splenomegaly is present C. petechiae, ecchymoses or hemorrhages occur D. the megakaryocyte count in the bone marrow is normal or increased E. it is more prevalent in females |
significant splenomegaly is presen
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A splenectomy has a beneficial effect in all the following hemolytic conditions, EXCEPT:
A. thalassemia B. sickle-cell disease C. hemolytic anemia due to glucose-6-phosphate deficiency D. hereditary elliptocytosis E. hereditary spherocytosis |
hemolytic anemia due to glucose-6-phosphate deficiency
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Spontaneous rupture of the spleen may occur in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:
A. malaria B. infectious mononucleosis C. polycythemia vera D. portal hypertension E. leukemia |
portal hypertension
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Gastric carcinoma develops most frequently in the region of the:
A. corpus B. gastroesophageal junction C. fundus D. cardia E. pyloric and antral region |
pyloric and antral region
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33. From the following options which CANNOT be used in the treatment of achalasia?
A. Intraluminal cryotherapy B. Heller's myotomy C. Balloon dilatation D. Self-expandable stent implantation |
Intraluminal cryotherapy
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All of the following procedures are appropriate for the treatment of verified choledocholithias is,EXCEPT:
A. choledochotomy and T-tube drainage B. transduodenal sphincteroplasty C. percutaneous extraction of biliary calculi using a Dormia-basket D. endoscopic papillotomy and extraction of biliary calculi |
percutaneous extraction of biliary calculi using a Dormia-basket
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Regarding the prognosis of gastric adenocarcinoma, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. The intestinal histological type carries a better prognosis than the diffuse type B. Cure rates of 80 to 90 % are obtained for lesions confined to the mucosa C. The polypoid macroscopic type carries a better prognosis than the diffusely infiltrating type D. Length of survival is improved by chemotherapy and radiation therapy after curative resection |
Length of survival is improved by chemotherapy and radiation therapy after curative
resection |
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The pathologic lesion characteristic of the Mallory-Weiss syndrome is:
A. hemorrhage from a gastric polyp B. laceration of the mucosa at the gastroesophageal junction C. acute gastritis D. rupture of the gastric mucosa E. rupture of the esophagus |
. laceration of the mucosa at the gastroesophageal junction
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Which of the following disorders is associated with an elevated serum a-fetoprotein level?
A. Carcinoma of the pancreas B. Carcinoma of the gall bladder C. Carcinoma of the liver D. Carcinoma of the colon E. Crohn's disease |
Carcinoma of the liver
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Which of the following is the anatomic border between the left and right lobes of the liver?
A. The line connecting the fossa of the gall bladder and the fossa of the inferior vena cava B. The line connecting the "ligamentum teres hepatis" and the inferior vena cava C. The line connecting the falciform ligament and the inferior vena cava D. The line connecting the falciform ligament and the "bare area" E. The line connecting the fossa of the gall bladder and the "bare area" |
A. The line connecting the fossa of the gall bladder and the fossa of the inferior
vena cava |
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Which statement is NOT true for gastric cancer in general?
A. In linitis plastica only total gastrectomy is considered oncologically radical B. A CT scan helps to assess the infiltration of the surrounding organs/tissues C. The generally accepted complex treatment of gastric cancer is surgery, irradiation, chemotherapy and hormone therapy D. The most frequent signs are weight loss, abdominal pain, vomiting or bleeding |
C. The generally accepted complex treatment of gastric cancer is surgery, irradiation,
chemotherapy and hormone therapy |
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What is NOT considered a frequent complication after splenectomy?
A. Bleeding B. Pulmonary embolisation C. Subphrenic abscess D. Postsplenectomy fever |
Pulmonary embolisation
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Which operation is the most commonly accepted in acute necrotizing pancreatitis?
A. Pancreatic resection + drainage B. Cholecystectomy + drainage of the cystic duct C. Necrectomy + drainage D. Pancreatoduodenectomy |
Necrectomy + drainage
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What is NOT a typical symptom of in peptic ulcer disease?
A. Fresh blood in the stool B. Melena C. Nausea, vomiting D. Bloating E. Abdominal or epigastric pain |
Fresh blood in the stoo
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The most severe complication after a Billroth-II gastric resection is:
A. thrombophlebitis B. hemorrhage C. dehiscence of the Roux-en-Y anastomosis D. dehiscence of the esophageal stump E. dehiscence of the duodenal stump |
dehiscence of the duodenal stump
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The landmarkd elineating the junction of the antral and fundic regionson the lesser curvature of the stomach is the:
A. Mayo-vein B. gastroduodenal artery C. left gastric artery D. angular incisure E. gastroepiploic artery |
angular incisure
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45. Stress ulcers have been observed in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:
A. in central nervous system lesions B. during penicillin administration C. after alcohol ingestion D. after severe burns E. after salicylate ingestion |
during penicillin administration
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A45-year-old female patient has undergone a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Three days following the procedure, she gradually develops signs of acute abdomen and has fever. The possible cause maybe ,EXCEPT:
A. development of acute pancreatitis B. injury of the common bile duct C. perforation of the transverse colon D. pulmonary embolism E. injury of the hepatic duct |
pulmonary embolism
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All of the following are true for the pain associated with pancreatitis, EXCEPT:
A. the pain radiates through to the back B. unremitting (generalized) pain C. diffuse mid-abdominal pain D. colic subcostal pain E. an abrupt onset |
colic subcostal pain
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From the following options which is the most common type of weight reduction surgery?
A. Bilateral femoral amputation B. Laparoscopic adjustable esophageal banding C. Total gastrectomy with Roux-en-Y anastomosis D. Laparoscopic adjustable gastric banding E. Billroth-I resection with jejunal loop |
Laparoscopic adjustable esophageal banding
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Which of the following procedures is performed on the stomach?
A. Miles operation B. Choledochojejunostomy with Roux-en-Y anastomosis C. Wilson fundoplication D. Selective vagotomy |
Selective vagotomy
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Approximately what is the normal diameter of the common bile duct in adults?
A. 2-4mm B. 4-6mm C. 6-8mm D. 10-12mm E. 1-2mm |
6-8mm
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Which is not a typical complication of laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
A. Postoperative bile leakage B. Dissection of the cystic duct C. Common bile duct lesion D. Hematoma under the liver |
Dissection of the cystic duct
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Metabolic consequences of a gastric resection include:
A. metabolic alkalosis B. macrocytic anemia C. steatorrhea D. calcium deficiency E. iron-deficiency anemia |
macrocytic anemia
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All of the following statements are valid regarding gastric polyps, EXCEPT:
A. gastric polyps may develop first after puberty B. gastric polyps can develop as a feature of familial disease C. gastric polyps are not expected to undergo malignant transformation D. gastric polyps develop on atrophic gastric mucosa E. gastric polyps have a propensity for multiple occurrence |
gastric polyps are not expected to undergo malignant transformation
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Which vessel provides the blood supply of the pancreas?
A. Superior mesenteric artery B. Both C. Celiac trunk |
Both
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Which is the most common form of the gallbladder perforation?
A. Development of a cholecysto-phrenic fistula B. Development of a cholecysto-enteric fistula C. Free perforation with diffuse peritonitis D. Localized perforation with pericholecystic abscess |
Localized perforation with pericholecystic abscess
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Which is an absolute contraindication of laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
A. Previous upper abdominal surgeries B. Old age C. Inability to tolerate general anesthesia D. Gallbladder longer than 10cm E. Second trimester pregnancy |
Inability to tolerate general anesthesia
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What is the gold standard treatment of symptomatic cholelithiasis?
A. Single-port cholecystectomy B. Endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatograpy C. Shock wave lithotripsy D. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy E. Open cholecystectomy |
Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
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In an operable pancreatic head malignancy which is considered the most successful operation?
A. Biliodigestive bypass B. Pancreatoduodenectomy C. Total pancreatectomy |
Pancreatoduodenectomy
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Which disease is characterized by a mid-abdominal, "beltlike" pain?
A. Gastric perforation B. Pancreatitis C. Colonic cancer D. Diverticulitis E. Appendicitis |
Pancreatitis
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What is the most common benign tumor of liver?
A. Focal nodular hyperplasia B. Hepatocellular cancer C. Hepatic metastasis from a benign colorectal lesion D. Focal sparing E. Hemangioma |
Hemangioma
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Which is NOT considered a wound healing complication?
A. Keloid formation B. Seroma C. Primary wound healing D. Dehiscence |
Primary wound healing
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The most significant advantage of the tension- free inguinal hernia repair over the conventional techniques is:
A. It's cheaper than the Bassini operation B. The patient can leave the hospital sooner C. Yields better cosmetic results D. The rate of recurrence is lower |
The rate of recurrence is lower
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From the following options which factor does NOT impair the wound-healing process?
A. Chemotherapeutic drugs B. Anemia C. Jaundice D. Mobilization of the patient |
Mobilization of the patient
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Which pathogen is the common cause of gas gangrene?
A. Streptococcus B. Pseudomonas C. Clostridium D. Aspergillus |
Clostridium
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Select the diseases that pose an absolute indication for surgery.
A. Large, symptomatic pancreatic pseudocyst B. Stones in the common bile duct causing jaundice C. Duodenal ulcer D. Obstructing colonic cancer E. Enlarged axillary lymph nodes |
Obstructing colonic cancer
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Select the FALSE statement!
A. Reducible hernias require urgent operation within 12 hours B. Incisional hernia can develop wherever there is a scar on the abdomen C. Obesity and liver cirrhosis can aggravate the development of umbilical hernias D. Indirect inguinal hernia is the most common of the external abdominal wall hernias |
Reducible hernias require urgent operation within 12 hours
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Using of which anticoagulants requires close monitoring of the hemostatic parameters?
A. Low molecular weight heparin B. Ca-Heparin C. Aspirin D. Clopidogrel |
Ca-Heparin
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Which of the following operations CANNOT be used in the treatment of an inguinal hernia?
A. TAPP (transabdominal pre-peritoneal hernia repair) B. Mayo operation C. Bassini operation D. Shouldice operation E. Lichtenstein operation |
Mayo operation
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From the following options which is characteristic to modern age surgery?
A. Lack of general anesthesia limits the feasibility of major abdominal interventions B. Generally low degree of specialization C. Limited use of related resources (imaging techniques, laboratory tests, endoscopy) D. Research oriented, evidence based development of surgery |
Research oriented, evidence based development of surgery
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Characteristics of the medieval medicine and surgery in Europe:
A. Surgery practiced by barber surgeons B. Clerical blessing on autopsies C. High social status of surgeons D. Treatment was based on anatomical and physiological knowledge |
Surgery practiced by barber surgeons
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What is the typical rate of recurrence after a Lichtenstein inguinal hernia repair?
A. Under 2% B. Between 5-10% C. Between 2-5% D. Above 10% |
Under 2%
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Which of the following statements is true for Hesselbach's triangle?
A. Is found in a single plane of the inguinal floor and is bounded by the superior epigastric artery, inguinal ligament, and rectus sheath B. Is bounded medially by the inferior epigastric vessels C. Defines the inguinal floor in the region of a direct inguinal hernia D. Defines the boundaries of a low lumbar hernia |
Defines the inguinal floor in the region of a direct inguinal hernia
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Which of the following statements is/are true for hernias in general?
A. Mesh implantation has no benefit in direct inguinal hernia B. Femoral hernias are more common in males than in females C. The indirect inguinal hernia is the most common hernia in males D. Risk of incarceration is higher in hernias with a large orifice |
The indirect inguinal hernia is the most common hernia in male
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Which of the following microorganisms is considered the pathogen of the pseudomembranous colitis associated with antibiotic therapy?
A. Clostridium tertium B. Clostridium difficile C. Staphylococcus species D. Clostridium perfringens E. Bacteroides fragilis |
Clostridium difficile
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Pilonidal sinuses frequently develop in:
A. young adult females B. young adult males C. elderly patients D. middle-aged patients |
young adult males
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Generalized (diffuse) bleeding following surgical procedures may result from all of the following ,EXCEPT:
A. insufficient closure of the wound B. fibrinolysis or defibrination C. an undiagnosed coagulopathy D. sepsis E. a massive transfusion |
insufficient closure of the wound
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All of the following factors contribute to the disruption of abdominal surgical wounds, EXCEPT:
A. frequent coughing B. hypoproteinemia C. early mobilization D. anemia E. surgical site infection |
early mobilization
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Case Study :A23-year-old girl developed shaking chills, high-grade fever, and chest pain after obtaining a 75 ml blood transfusion. Select the most likely cause of these symptoms:
A. an infected blood product B. the presence of cold agglutinins C. a hemolytic transfusion reaction D. a pyrogenic reaction E. citrate toxicity |
a hemolytic transfusion reaction
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Which of the following facilitates collagen deposition during the process of wound healing?
A. Fibroblasts B. Epithelial cells C. None of the above D. Capillary network E. Endothelial cells |
Fibroblasts
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Which one of the following options stands for a laparoscopic hernia repair surgery?
A. TAPP and TEP B. TAP and TEPP C. Lichtenstein and Shouldice operation D. Onlay or sublay eversion technique |
TAPP and TEP
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Among all the severe complications of blood transfusions, the most common problem is:
A. alkalosis B. circulatory overload C. hypokalemia D. disease transmission E. hemolytic reactions |
hemolytic reactions
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Which of the following diseases can be most likely transmitted by a blood transfusion?
A. Myeloblastic leukemia B. Erythrocytosis C. Hodgkin's lymphoma D. Lymphoblastic leukemia E. Serum hepatitis |
Serum hepatitis
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The commonly occurring paronychia of the fingers is caused by:
A. frequent injury to the delicate skin of the fingers B. excessive use and exposure of the hand and fingers during work C. extremely heavy contamination of the skin of the hand |
frequent injury to the delicate skin of the fingers
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Mild infections of the hand can progress to potentially severe infections because:
A. the hand often sustains injury when it is infected B. the skin of the hand is a particularly heavily contaminated area of the body C. there are numerous tendons with a poor blood supply and the maintenance of any required immobilization is difficult |
C. there are numerous tendons with a poor blood supply and the maintenance
of any required immobilization is difficult |
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The most efficient method for the prevention of a wound infection after the operation of a perforated appendicitis:
A. none of the above B. rinsing the subcutaneous tissues with disinfectant solution C. drainage of the peritoneal cavity D. flushing the wound with antibiotic solutions E. sprinkling the wound with sulphonamide powder |
rinsing the subcutaneous tissues with disinfectant solution
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In the case of clean, closed wounds, the most common source of a Staphylococcus infection is:
A. bedclothes B. bacterial flora of the patient or hospital personnel C. bedside instruments D. dust E. the ambient air of the operating theatre |
bacterial flora of the patient or hospital personnel
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Paronychia of the finger is best treated by which of the following types of incisions?
A. At a considerable distance from the distal unguicular margin B. Any incision that ensures adequate drainage from the phalanx C. A "J-shaped" incision at a 3 mm distance from the distal unguicular margin D. A wide "fishmouth" shaped incision E. Halfway between the unguicular margin and the pulp of the finger |
A "J-shaped" incision at a 3 mm distance from the distal unguicular margin
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From the following options which is the most appropriate definition of tetanus?
A.medical condition characterized by a prolonged relaxation of smooth muscle fibers B. medical condition characterized by a prolonged relaxation of skeletal muscle fibers C.medical condition characterized by a prolonged contraction of smooth muscle fibers D.medical condition characterized by a prolonged contraction of skeletal muscle fibers |
A medical condition characterized by a prolonged contraction of skeletal muscle fibers
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From the following famous physicians who was NOT a surgeon?
A. Theodor Billroth B. Theodor Kocher C. Ignác Semmelweis D. János Balassa E. William Halsted |
Ignác Semmelweis
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The keloid:
A. develops in clean wounds B. is sensitive to antibiotic therapy C. is an agglomeration of fibrous tissue D. has a tendency for malignant transformation E. is less prevalent in blacks |
is an agglomeration of fibrous tissue
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Select the correct statement regarding an open incisional hernia repair:
A. The contents of the hernia sac must always be checked for signs of infarction B. During the Lichtenstein operation the mesh is fixed to the rectus sheath C. Hernia repair with strong sutures yields equal results as the tension-free techniques D. Incisional hernias cannot develop after laparoscopic procedures |
The contents of the hernia sac must always be checked for signs of infarction
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From the following options which is NOT a typical sign of a Zenker's diverticulum?
A. Regurgitation of undigested food B. Gurgling sounds when swallowing C. Sharp pain when swallowing D. Dysphagia |
Sharp pain when swallowing
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Which diagnostic modality CANNOT be used to assess the depth of malignant infiltration in esophageal cancer?
A. Endosonography B. CT scan C. PET-CT D. Endoscopy and biopsy |
Endoscopy and biopsy
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Which of the following conditions requires urgent surgery?
A. Paraesophageal hernia with erosion B. Paraesophageal hernia with severe reflux C. Large symptomatic paraesophageal hernia D. Paraesophageal hernia with incarceration |
Paraesophageal hernia with incarceration
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What is the most common type of surgery in esophageal malignancies?
A. Total esophageal resection B. Segmental esophageal resection C. Subtotal esophageal resection D. Mucosal excision |
Subtotal esophageal resection
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1. The most common complications of a peptic ulcer are:
A. Jaundice B. Bleeding C. Obstipation D. Perforation |
Bleeding , Perforation
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Common symptoms of gastric cancer are:
A. Postprandial abdominal heaviness B. Anorexia, weight loss C. Vomiting D. Jaundice |
Postprandial abdominal heaviness
Anorexia, weight loss Vomiting |
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Which statement(s) is/are true about gastric cancer?
A. H. pylori is an etiologic factor B. It is twice as common in women as in men C. Surgical resection is the only curative treatment D. Most of the patients diagnosed are operable |
H. pylori is an etiologic factor ,Surgical resection is the only curative treatment
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Which is/are true about wound healing?
A. Primary intention occurs when tissue is clearly incised B. Secondary intention occurs in open wounds C. Primary healing is simpler and requires less time D. Most infected wounds and burns heal secondary |
Primary intention occurs when tissue is clearly incised
Secondary intention occurs in open wounds Primary healing is simpler and requires less time Most infected wounds and burns heal secondary |
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Possible methods for preventing surgical infections:
A. Surgical hand washing B. Surgery in a sterile operating room C. Use of antibiotic prophylaxis D. Use of LMWH |
Surgical hand washing
Surgery in a sterile operating room Use of antibiotic prophylaxis |
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Symptoms of tetanus:
A. Happiness without a cause B. Spasms of the facial muscles C. Diarrhea D. Opisthotonos |
Spasms of the facial muscles
pisthotonos |
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Diagnostic symptoms of achalasia:
A. Dysphagia B. Retention of ingested food in the esophagus C. Radiologic evidence of dilated body of the esophagus D. Weight gain |
Dysphagia
Retention of ingested food in the esophagus Radiologic evidence of dilated body of the esophagus |
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Which statement(s) is/are true about the treatment of hiatal hernias:
A. PPI is always enough B. Operative repair is indicated in most cases since complications are frequent C. The surgery could be performed only laparoscopically D. It is unnecessary to excise the hernia sac |
Operative repair is indicated in most cases since complications are frequent
It is unnecessary to excise the hernia sac |
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Choose the right answers about esophageal cancer:
A. Esophageal carcinoma is treated by surgery, radiotherapy, chemotherapy or a combination of these methods. B. The operation is easy to perform and has great results C. Preoperative radiation therapy may convert an unresectable growth to a resectable one D. After potentially curative resection, survival for 5 years is more than 50% |
Esophageal carcinoma is treated by surgery, radiotherapy, chemotherapy or a
combination of these methods. Preoperative radiation therapy may convert an unresectable growth to a resectable one |
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Which of the following conditions form an absolute indication for a scheduled surgery?
A. Symptomatic gall stones B. Asymptomatic gall stones C. Confirmed cancer of the ascending colon D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease E. Asymptomatic inguinal hernia |
Symptomatic gall stones
Confirmed cancer of the ascending colon |
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Which of the following intervention are performed on with a diagnostic intent?
A. Submandibular lymph node biopsy B. Total colectomy in FAP C. Staging mediastinoscopy D. Breast augmentation |
Submandibular lymph node biopsy
Staging mediastinoscopy |
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Which is/are true statement(s) about inguinal hernias:
A. Inguinal hernias should always be repaired unless there are specific contraindications B. The complications of incarceration, obstruction and strangulation are greater threats than are the risks of operation C. Successful repair requires that any correctable aggravating factors be identified and treated D. The most common cause is the weakness of the posterior inguinal wall |
all
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Operations for inguinal hernia repair are:
A. Lichtenstein operation B. TAPP C. Shouldice D. Miles operation |
Lichtenstein operation
TAPP Shouldice |
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. Possible etiologic factors for incisional hernia are:
A. Postoperative physical activity B. Poor surgical technique C. Length of the incision D. Postoperative wound infection |
all
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Symptoms of acute calculous cholecystitis:
A. Right upper quadrant pain B. Fever and leukocytosis C. Stone(s) in the gallbladder on ultrasonography D. Obstipation |
Right upper quadrant pain
Fever and leukocytosis Stone(s) in the gallbladder on ultrasonography |
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Common complications of acute cholelithiasis:
A. Gallbladder perforation B. Development of pancreatitis C. Development of hepatic malignancy D. Development of retroperitoneal abscess |
Gallbladder perforation
Development of pancreatitis |
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Main advantages of laparoscopic cholecystectomy:
A. Exploration of the abdominal cavity is easier B. Less pain than after the traditional cholecystectomy C. Need for expensive laparoscopic instruments D. Better cosmetic results |
Less pain than after the traditional cholecystectomy
Better cosmetic results |
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Choose the correct establishment(s) about the anatomy of the liver
A. The common hepatic artery comes right from the abdominal aorta B. The portal vein is formed by the confluence of the splenic and superior mesenteric veins C. The left lobe of the liver is bigger and contains more segments D. There are three major hepatic veins: left, right and middle |
The portal vein is formed by the confluence of the splenic and superior mesenteric
veins There are three major hepatic veins: left, right and middle |
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Etiologic factors of primary liver cancer are:
A. Cirrhosis from almost any cause (alcohol abuse, hemochromatosis, primary biliary cirrhosis, toxins) B. Longstanding chronic cholelithiasis C. Chronic hepatitis B and C virus infection D. Metastasis of colorectal cancer |
Cirrhosis from almost any cause (alcohol abuse, hemochromatosis, primary biliary
cirrhosis, toxins) Longstanding chronic cholelithiasis |
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Potential treatment for metastatic neoplasms of the liver are:
A. Hepatic resection B. Radiofrequency ablation C. Chemotherapy D. Angiographic embolization |
all
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Most common etiologic factors of acute pancreatitis are:
A. Alcohol abuse B. Colorectal malignancy C. Cholelithiasis D. Pulmonary disease |
Alcohol abuse
Cholelithiasis |
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Symptoms of acute pancreatitis:
A. Severe epigastric or mid-abdominal pain B. Nausea and vomiting C. Elevated serum and urinary amylase levels D. Decreased or absent bowel sounds |
all
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True establishments about the prognosis of pancreatic adenocarcinoma are:
A. The mean survival following palliative therapy is 7 months B. Overall 5-year survival is about 10 % C. Following a Whipple procedure, survival averages about 18 months D. If tumor cells extend to the margins of the resected specimen, long term survival is common |
The mean survival following palliative therapy is 7 months
Overall 5-year survival is about 10 % Following a Whipple procedure, survival averages about 18 months |
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Disorders associated with secondary hypersplenism are:
A. Portal or splenic vein obstruction B. Myeloproliferative disorders C. Chronic hemolytic diseases D. Trauma |
Portal or splenic vein obstruction
Myeloproliferative disorders Chronic hemolytic diseases |
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Indications for splenectomy are:
A. Primary splenic tumor B. GERD C. Hereditary spherocytosis D. Gastric cancer |
Primary splenic tumor
Hereditary spherocytosis |
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Disadvantages of laparoscopic surgery:
A. 2-Dimensional rendition on the screen B. Loss of tactile information C. Expensive instruments D. Magnified image |
2-Dimensional rendition on the screen
Loss of tactile information Expensive instruments |
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Which two are among the most common laparoscopic operations?
A. Cholecystectomy B. Kidney transplantation C. Inguinal hernia repair D. Fabricius operation E. Splenectomy |
Cholecystectomy
Inguinal hernia repair |
