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623 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Explains how certain stimuli acquire the capacity to automatically elicit a particular response.
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Classical conditioning
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Explains why a person feels anxious every time he has to drive over a bridge or why someone feels happy whenever she hears a particular son.
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Classical conditioning
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Classical conditioning was first described over a century ago by the Russian physiologist ____.
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Ivan Pavlov
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Pavlov's classical conditioning was used by _____________to explain how humans acquire phobic reactions to objects and events.
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John Watson
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When Pavlov discovered that animals salivate without meat in the room he originally called it ____ .
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"psychic secretion"
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At first Pavlov described the "psychic secretions" as the result of _______.
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mental activity
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Pavlov eventually rejected the subjective interpretation of "psychic secretion" and redefined the phenomenon as a ________.
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"conditioned reflex"
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Pavlov paired presentation of a tone or other ___________ that did not produce salivation with the presentation of meat powder that naturally elicited salivation.
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neutral stimulus
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After several pairings, presentation of the neutral stimulus alone produced a __________.
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salivation response
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Pavlov called the stimulus that naturally elicited salivation the _______.
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unconditioned stimulus
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US
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unconditioned stimulus
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Salivation the meat.
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unconditioned response
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UR
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unconditioned response
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Neutral stimulus that will produce salivation.
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conditioned stimulus
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Salivation to a conditioned stimulus.
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conditioned response
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CS
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conditioned stimulus
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CR
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conditioned response
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Has been used to explain a variety of human responses including emotional reactions, attitudes, drug addiction, allergies, food and sexual preferences and aversions, and psychosomatic disorders.
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Classical conditioning
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The temporal relationship between the CS and US, the number of conditioning trials, and pre-exposure to the CS or US can all impact the ___________.
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effectiveness of Classical Conditioning
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Pavlov found that the order and timing of the presentation of the CS and US were important determinants of the success of classical conditioning.
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Temporal Relationship Between the CS and US.
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Is a type of forward conditioning and involves presenting the CS so that it precedes and overlaps presentation of the US.
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Delay conditioning
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When using Delay conditioning the optimal time interval between the onset of the CS and the US depends on the nature of the ________.
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target response
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Generally in Delay conditioning the optimal time interval between and the onset of the CS and US is about ______.
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0.5 seconds
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The most efficient procedure for establishing a conditioned response.
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Delay conditioning
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Another type of forward conditioning that entails presenting and terminating the CS prior to presenting the US.
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Trace conditioning
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Trace conditioning produces a weaker CR than does _________.
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Delay conditioning
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Involves presenting and withdrawing the CS and US at the same time.
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Simultaneous conditioning
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Simultaneous conditioning is less effective than both _______.
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Trace conditioning and Delay conditioning
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Presenting the US prior to the CS.
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Backward conditioning
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Does not usually produce a conditioned response; and its ineffectiveness implies that it's the contingency of stimuli (rather than their contiguity) that underlies classical conditioning.
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Backward conditioning
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contiguity =
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adjoining
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Occurs when the presentation of the US seems to depend on presentation of the CS.
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Classical conditioning
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The greater the number of conditioning trials, the stronger and more persistent the ____.
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Conditioned response
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Regardless of the number of trials, the CR is usually weaker in intensity and magnitude than the _____.
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unconditioned response
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Once the CS-CR connection has been established. If the CS is repeatedly presented without the US, the CS-CR connection eventually ______.
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decays
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The gradual disappearance of a conditioned response as the result of repeated presentation of the CS alone is referred to as ____________.
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classical extinction
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To avoid extinction of classically-conditioned response, occasional "________________," in which the CS is again paired with the US, are required.
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refresher trials
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Following extinction, fewer trials are need to re-establish a _________________ than were needed to establish it initially.
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CS-CR relationship
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A conditioned response rarely extinguishes all at _______.
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once
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On the day following the apparent extinction of a CR, the dogs in Pavlov's study often displayed a weak CR when presented with the CS alone.
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spontaneous recovery
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Demonstrated that a conditioned response is suppressed rather than eliminated by extinction trials.
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spontaneous recovery
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Spontaneous recovery demonstrated that learning is never lost but is merely __________.
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inhibited
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When an experimental subject responds with a conditioned response not only to the CS but also to stimuli that are similar to the CS.
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stimulus generalization
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In stimulus generalization the more similar the stimuli is to the CS the greater the magnitude of the _____.
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conditioned response
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Stimulus generalization is not confined to a single ________.
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sense modality
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Humans conditioned to respond to a bell might also respond to a picture of a bell or the spoken word bell.
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stimulus generalization
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The opposite of stimulus generalization.
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stimulus discrimination
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The ability to discriminate between the CS and similar stimuli and respond only to the CS with a CR.
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stimulus discrimination
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Is established through discrimination training, which involves selective reinforcement and extinction.
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stimulus discrimination
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Studies on stimulus discrimination led to Pavlov's discovery that very difficult discriminations can produce _________.
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experimental neurosis
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Pavlov attributed the experimental neurosis that developed during very difficult discrimination to a conflict between _________.
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cortical excitation and inhibition
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When a second neutral stimulus was repeatedly paired with a previously conditioned stimulus, the second neutral stimulus eventually produces a conditioned response.
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Higher-Order conditioning
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Used by Pavlov to explain how conditioned responses are acquired in the absence of an unconditioned stimulus.
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Higher-Order conditioning
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When higher-order conditioning involves a second neutral stimulus it is also called _______.
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second-order conditioning
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When higher-order conditioning entails a third neutral stimulus it is also called _______.
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third-order conditioning
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The presence of the CS blocks an association between a second neutral stimulus and the US when the CS and the second neutral stimulus are presented together.
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blocking
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A tone has already been paired with electric shock so that the presentation of the tone alone produces a fear reaction and that the tone is then repeatedly presented simultaneously with a flashing light prior to presenting the shock. In this situation, presentation of the flashing light alone will not elicit a fear reaction.
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blocking
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According to Rescore and Wagner blocking occurs because the conditioned stimulus already predicts the occurrence of the unconditioned stimulus. As a result the second neutral stimulus only provides ____________ and an association between the second neutral stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus is not made.
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redundant information
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Occurs when two neutral stimuli (rather than a CS and a new stimulus) are repeatedly presented together prior to the US. Subsequently, presentation of the two stimuli together produces a CR, but when the two stimuli are presented separately, only one produces the CR.
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Overshadowing
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Blocking and Overshadowing are sometimes ____.
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confused
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It is believed to occur because one of the stimuli is more salient to the subject and, as a result, an association is established only between the more salient stimulus and the US.
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Overshadowing
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Father of American Behaviorism.
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John Watson
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Rejected his contemporaries' use of introspection as the primary method of psychology and argued that the only appropriate domain for psychologists is the study of observable, measurable behaviors.
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John Watson
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Pavlov's classical conditioning model provided Watson with an effective system for analyzing observable behaviors, and he argued that all learning is the result of ___________.
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Classical conditioning
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Is probably best know for his use of classical conditioning to establish a phobia in an 11-month old boy named Albert.
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John Watson
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Help individuals to "unlearn" previously acquired connections between specific stimuli and undesirable behaviors by weakening those connections or replacing the undesirable behavior with a more appropriate one.
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Interventions
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Include counterconditioning, aversive counterconditioning, and classical extinction.
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Interventions based on classical conditioning
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Eliminate a maladaptive behavior by pairing a stimulus (CS) associated with that behavior with a stimulus (US) that naturally elicits incompatible behavior so that the maladaptive behavior is replaced by the incompatible behavior.
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Counterconditioning
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This intervention strategy underlies Wolpe's technique of ______________, which he believed could be used to weaken and eliminate anxiety reactions.
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reciprocal inhibition
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Identified a number of incompatible responses that could be used to eliminate anxiety including relaxation, assertiveness, and sexual arousal.
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Wolpe
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Originally developed by Wolpe as an application of reciprocal inhibition for eliminating anxiety responses.
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Systematic desensitization
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Hierarchically-arranged anxiety-evoking events are paired with relaxation to eliminate the anxiety.
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Systematic desensitization
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Relaxation Training, Construction of an Anxiety Hierarchy, Desensitization in Imagination, & Vivo Desensitization.
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Four stages to the systematic desensitization process
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Therapist teaches the client to use a technique that produces a state of relaxation.
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Relaxation Training
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A commonly used technique of relaxation training that involves systematically tensing and relaxing all of the body's major muscle groups.
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Progressive relaxation
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Alternatively, the client may imagine a relaxing scene such as lying on a beach on a warm, sunny day.
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Progressive relaxation
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Consists of events related to the target behavior that are ordered on the basis of the amount of anxiety they evoke.
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Anxiety Hierarchy
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Used to ensure that hierarchy items represent a full range of anxiety levels and are equidistant in terms of the amount of anxiety they elicit.
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Subjective Units of Distress Scale
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SUDS
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Subjective Units of Distress Scale
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Involves having the client rate each event on a scale from 0 (complete relaxation) to 100 (highest level of anxiety the client can imagine). Events are then selected on the basis of the client's ratings so that the hierarchy contains about 10 to 15 items.
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I am not sure if this definition refers to the Subjective Units of Distress Scale or just the idea of Construction of an Anxiety Hierarchy
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Relaxation is paired with presentation of items in the anxiety hierarchy beginning with the least anxiety-evoking item.
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Desensitization in Imagination
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The therapist instructs the client to relax using the technique the client learned in the first stage of treatment; and once the client is relaxed, the therapist instructs him or her to imagine the appropriate anxiety hierarchy item. The client signals the therapist whenever he or she feels anxious, and the therapist helps the client re-establish a state of relaxation using the relaxation technique. When the client is able to imagine an item without experiencing anxiety, the next item in the hierarchy is presented. This process is repeated until the client is able to imagine the most anxiety-arousing item without experiencing anxiety.
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Desensitization in Imagination
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After the client has been desensitized to about 75 to 85% of the anxiety hierarchy items, he/she begins to confront anxiety-arousing situations in ________.
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vivo if it's feasible to do so
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Is highly structured and involves facing in "real life" only those situations that correspond to hierarchy items that have been successfully desensitized in imagination.
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In Vivo Desensitization
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Several investigators have used the ___________ to identity the mechanisms responsible for the benefits of systematic desensitization.
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dismantling strategy
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This strategy involves comparing effects of the various components of a treatment by administering different components to different groups of participants.
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dismantling strategy
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The results of these studies have shown that training in an incompatible response and gradual exposure to anxiety-evoking events are not the essential components of systematic desensitization (although they may have a facilitating effect) and that extinction, ore repeated exposure to the CS without the US, is the primary factor responsible for the effects.
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dismantling strategy studies of the benefits of systematic desensitization
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Has also been found useful for treating sexual disorders that are related to performance anxiety.
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Counterconditioning
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Involves pairing situations that evoke performance anxiety with pleasurable physical sensations and relaxation.
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Masters and Johnson's (1970) sensate focus
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Research has found that the sex therapy is most effective for treating _______.
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premature ejaculation and vaginismus
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For premature ejaculation a key component of treatment is the ________.
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"squeeze technique"
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for vaginismus the optimal treatment is a combination of ______________.
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relaxation and progressive dilators
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The maladaptive behavior or a stimulus associated with it (CS) is paired with a stimulus (US) that naturally evokes pain or other unpleasant response.
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Aversive Counterconditioning
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As a result of THIS, the maladaptive behavior and stimuli related to it are avoided because they elicit an undesirable response (CR).
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Aversive Counterconditioning
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Overt Sensitization
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In Vivo Aversion Therapy
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Is used to treat drug and alcohol addictions, paraphilias, and self-injurious behavior.
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In Vivo Aversion Therapy
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When using this technique the target behavior is paired with an aversive stimulus such as electric shock, noxious odor, or emetic (nausea-inducing) drug.
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In Vivo Aversion Therapy
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Aversion therapy has been found to be moderately effective initially for some patients and some problems (especially cigarette smoking), but it's associated with high ________________.
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relapse rates and limited generalizability
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Aversion therapy is most effective when the aversive stimulus or its consequence is similar to the _______.
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target behavior
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Aversion therapy is also more effective when it's supplemented by __________.
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"booster sessions"
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Aversion therapy is more effective when administered in conjunction with ______.
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other treatments
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The client imagines engaging in the maladaptive behavior and then imagines (rather than actually confronts) an aversive stimulus.
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Covert Sensitization
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Proposes that the development of a phobic response is the result of both classical and operant conditioning.
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The Two-factor theory of learning
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A person develops an anxiety reaction to a neutral stimulus (CS) when it's paired with a stimulus (US) that naturally elicits anxiety or other aversive response (classical conditioning). The person then avoids the CS because doing so enables him or her to avoid anxiety (negative reinforcement).
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The Two-factor theory of learning
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Repeatedly exposing the client to the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus while inhibiting his or her usual avoidance response in order to extinguish the client's conditioned response.
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Interventions based on Classical Extinction
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The client is exposed in "real life" to anxiety-arousing stimuli for a prolonged period of time and is prohibited from making his/er usual avoidance or other anxiety-reducing response.
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In vivo exposure with response prevention
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Exposing a client with Obsessive-Compulsive disorder to obsessional cues while prohibiting the client from engaging in his/her usual rituals.
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In vivo exposure with response prevention
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Involves exposure to the most anxiety- or fear -arousing stimuli for a prolonged period of time.
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Flooding
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Begins with exposure to situations that produce minimal anxiety and then gradually progresses to situations that evoke increasingly more intense anxiety.
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Graduated exposure
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Is helpful for reducing the fear of avoidance that may be caused by initial exposure to high-anxiety arousing situations.
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Graduated exposure
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Exposure to the distressing stimulus and response prevention are both essential to ________.
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treatment
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Prolonged continuous (massed) exposure to the anxiety-arousing stimulus is usually more effective that ______________.
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several brief exposures
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There is some evidence that exposure of short duration can actually increase sensitivity to ____________.
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feared stimuli
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Simultaneous use of a tranquilizer, which lowers anxiety, can actually enhance effectiveness of ______.
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exposure
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In some situations, _________ exposure is as effective as therapist directed exposure.
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self-directed
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Group exposure can be as effective as _____.
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individual treatment
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Has been found to be an effective approach for Agoraphobia and OCD.
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Partner-assisted exposure
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It involves use of strategies that are designed to evoke the feared bodily cues that are associated with fear and anxiety reactions (e.g., spinning in a chair, breathing into a paper bag, cardiovascular exercise).
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interceptive exposure
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Has been found effective for reducing anxiety associated with panic attacks, PTSD, and other anxiety-related disorders.
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interceptive exposure
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Like in vivo exposure with response prevention is based on the assumption that certain events (conditioned stimuli) are consistently avoided to reduce anxiety and that prolonged exposure to those events without the unconditioned stimulus will produce extinction of the anxiety response.
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Implosive Therapy
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Is conducted in imagination and involves presenting the feared stimulus vividly enough so as to arouse high levels of anxiety.
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Implosive Therapy
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Stampfl, the developer of this technique, believed that avoidance behaviors are learned during childhood and represent conflicts related to sexual or aggressive impulses.
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Implosive Therapy
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The images used during THIS therapy are embellished with psychodynamic themes.
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Implosive Therapy
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Originally was developed as an intervention for PTSD but is now also used to treat a variety of other disorders including panic attacks, phobias, depression, and substance abuse.
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Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing
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EMDR
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Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing
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It's based on the assumption that exposure to a trauma can block a neurophysiological adaptive information-processing mechanism.
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Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing
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It combines rapid lateral eye movements - which are believed to trigger this mechanism - with exposure and other techniques drawn from cognitive, behavioral, and psychodynamic approaches.
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Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing
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EMDR has been found to be an effective treatment for PTSD, but an ongoing controversy is whether its beneficial effects actually depend on ______.
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eye movements
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Davidson and Parker conclude that "eye movements are unnecessary and that EMDR may be viewed as an __________.
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imaginal exposure technique
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Identifies the factors responsible for the acquisition and maintenance of complex behaviors.
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Operant Conditioning
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The basic principals of operant conditioning were first described by ___________.
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Edward Thorndike
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The basic principals of operant conditioning were first described by Edward Thorndike and were subsequently expanded upon by ___________.
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B.F. Skinner
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Thorndike believed that the study of learning in lower animals would reveal important information about ______.
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human learning
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From his study with cats Thorndike concluded that learning is not due to mental events, or thinking about a problem, but, instead, to _____________.
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connectionism
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The connections that develop between responses and stimuli as the result of trial-and-error.
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connectionism
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Because the behaviors he studied were instrumental in helping the animals achieve a goal, Thorndike referred to this phenomenon as ______.
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instrumental learning
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According to Thorndike's original version of this law, any response that is followed by "a satisfying state of affairs" is likely to be repeated, while any act that results in an "annoying state of affairs" is less likely to recur.
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law of effect
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Thorndike later eliminated the second part of his law of effect, based on subsequent research which suggested that, while positive consequences increase behavior, negative ones often have ____.
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little effect
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Skinner believed that most complex behaviors are voluntarily emitted or not emitted as the result of the way they "__________" on the environment.
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operate
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The ways actions "operate" on the environment (i.e., ________________)
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as the result of the consequences that follow them
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Learning behaviors because of the consequences that follow them.
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Operant Conditioning
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According to Skinner environments provide organisms with a variety of positive and negative consequences that cause them to either display or withhold the behaviors that ___________.
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preceded them
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Skinner referred to to the consequences of behavior as ___________.
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reinforcements or punishment
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Skinner used the terms "positive" and "negative" not as synonyms for good and bad or pleasant and unpleasant. Instead positive refers to the application of a stimulus , while negative means _____________.
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withholding or removing a stimulus
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Stimulus applied behavior increases. Operant conditioning.
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Positive Reinforcement
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Stimulus removed behavior increases. Operant Conditioning.
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Negative Reinforcement
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Stimulus applied behavior decreases. Operant conditioning
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Positive Punishment
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Stimulus removed behavior decreases Operant conditioning.
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Negative Punishment
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By definition _____________increases the behavior it follows.
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reinforcement
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Performance of a behavior increases as the result of the application of a stimulus.
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positive reinforcement
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A behavior increases as the result of the withdrawal or termination of a stimulus following the behavior.
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Negative Reinforcement
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Like reinforcement punishment can be either _________.
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positive or negative
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Unlike reinforcement punishment ________the behavior it follows.
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decreases
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When the application of a stimulus following a response decreases the behavior.
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Positive Punishment
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When to removal or termination of a stimulus following a behavior decreases that behavior.
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Negative Punishment
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"Operant Chamber" for bar pressing or key-pecking by rats and pigeons.
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"Skinner Box"
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Skinner evaluated the effectiveness of operant conditioning by measuring ___________.
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operant strength
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The rate of determining (a) the rate of responding during acquisition trials and/or (b) the total number of responses made during extinction trials.
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operant strength
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The period when no reinforcement is provided.
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extinction trials
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Positive means _____.
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apply
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Negative means _____.
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withdraw
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If the target behavior is more or less likely to occur will determine if that behavior is being ______.
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reinforced or punished
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If the stimulus following the behavior is being applied or withdrawn will indicate if the reinforcement or the punishment is ________.
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positive or negative
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Occurs when reinforcement is consistently withheld from a previously reinforced behavior to decrease or eliminate that behavior.
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Operant extinction
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Experiments on operant conditioning have demonstrated that withdrawal of a reinforcer does not usually cause immediate ___________.
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cessation of the response
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When reinforcement is removed the response disappears gradually after an initial phase in which responding is more ___________.
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variable and forceful
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The temporary increase in responding during extinction trials.
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extinction (response) burst
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When a subject has been reinforced for two different behaviors and reinforcement for one behavior is withdrawn in order to extinguish it, the other behavior is likely to increase.
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behavioral contrast
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Reinforcers that are inherently desirable and do not depend on experience to acquire their reinforcing value.
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Primary reinforcers
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Unconditional reinforcers.
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Primary reinforcers
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Reinforcers that acquire their value only through repeated association with primary reinforcers.
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Secondary reinforcers
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Tokens, applause, and gold stars are all _____.
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Secondary reinforcers
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When a secondary reinforcer is paired with several different primary primary reinforcers.
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generalized secondary reinforcer
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The effectiveness of a reinforcer is impacted by the schedule on which it is __________.
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delivered
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The rate of acquisition of a behavior is fastest when the behavior is reinforced on a _________.
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continuous schedule
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Reinforcement is presented after each response.
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continuous schedule
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Satiation and rate of extinction are also high for a _____________, once an operant behavior has been acquired.
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continuous schedule
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Once adequate operant strength has been achieved an operant behavior has been ______.
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acquired
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The best way to maintain an operant behavior once it has been acquired is to switch to an _________.
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intermittent schedule
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Reinforcement is is delivered after a fixed period of time regardless of the number of responses made.
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Fixed Interval schedule
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Tend to produce low rates of responding since the number or responses in unrelated to the delivery of reinforcement.
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Fixed Interval schedule
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Subjects typically stop responding after a reinforcer is delivered and then begin responding toward the end of the reinforcement interval, which produces a "scallop" in the cumulative recording.
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Fixed Interval schedule
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In a work environment, an fixed interval schedule (hourly or weekly wage) tends to produce _____________.
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minimal levels of work
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The interval of time between delivery of reinforcers varies in an unpredictable manner from interval to interval.
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Variable Interval schedule
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In interval schedules the response must be made ________.
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at least one time during an interval
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Produces a steady but relatively low rate of responses.
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Variable Interval schedule
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Giving a specific number of quizzes during a semester but the time between the quizzes varies.
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Variable Interval schedule
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A reinforcer is delivered each time the subject makes a specific number of responses.
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Fixed Ratio schedule
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Produces a relatively high, steady rate of responding, usually with a brief pause following delivery of the reinforcer.
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Fixed Ratio schedule
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Piecework, in which workers receive payment following completion of a specific number of units.
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Fixed Ratio schedule
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Reinforcers are provided after a variable number of responses.
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Variable Ratio schedule
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Because the relationship between responding and reinforcing is unpredictable, it produces the highest rate of responding as well as responses that are most resistant to extinction.
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Variable Ratio schedule
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Gamblers playing slot machines, and wrestlers throwing headlocks are responding to a _____.
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Variable Ratio schedule
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Providing two or more simultaneous and independent schedules of reinforcement, each for a different response.
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concurrent schedules of reinforcement
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VI
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Variable Interval schedule
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FI
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Fixed Interval schedule
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FR
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Fixed Ratio schedule
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VR
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Variable Ratio schedule
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When there are concurrent schedules of reinforcement, the correspondence between the two or more alternatives and the frequency of reinforcement for responding is predicted by the ______.
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matching law
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If there are concurrent schedules of reinforcement the subjects responses will correspond to the effectiveness of the different schedules of reinforcement.
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matching law
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Accidental, noncontingent reinforcement can lead to _________.
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superstitious behavior
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Whether or not a response will be reinforced may be signaled by cues in the environment.
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Stimulus control
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Reinforcing a pigeon for pecking a key when a green light is on but not when a red light is on.
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Stimulus control
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The factor that must be in place (e.g. a green light on) for the behavior will be reinforced.
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Positive Discriminative stimulus
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A factor that when in place determines that the behavior will not be reinforced (e.g. a red light on).
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Negative discriminative stimulus
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It signals that reinforcement will occur as the consequence of a given response.
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Positive Discriminative stimulus
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It signals that the response will not be reinforced.
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Negative discriminative stimulus
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S D
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Positive Discriminative stimulus
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S-delta stimulus
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Negative discriminative stimulus
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S-
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Negative discriminative stimulus
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When the occurrence of a behavior is affected by the presence of discriminative stimuli, the behavior is said to be under ________.
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Stimulus control
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Stimulus control is also referred to as ________.
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stimulus discrimination
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Stimulus control is also referred to as stimulus discrimination as is another example of ______.
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two-factor learning
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In Stimulus control because learning the response is the result of operant conditioning and stimulus discrimination is the result of classical conditioning is _______.
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two-factor learning
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The reason a baby will whine in the presence of his dad who picks him up when he whines and not in the presence of his mom who will not pick him up when he whines.
|
Stimulus control
|
|
As in classical conditioning, occurs in operant conditioning when similar stimuli elicit the same response.
|
stimulus generalization
|
|
In operant conditioning, the stimuli that evoke the response are ____________.
|
Positive Discriminative stimuli
|
|
If a pigeon learns to pecking a key in the presence of a green light results in reinforcement and then also pecks the key when a blue light is on.
|
stimulus generalization
|
|
Often, reinforcement of a response not only increases the occurrence of that specific response but also the frequency of similar responses.
|
Response generalization
|
|
A baby that is reinforced for calling his father "dada" may also be more likely to say "baba," "mama," and "gaga" in the presence of his father.
|
Response generalization
|
|
Behaviors that are maintained by negative reinforcement.
|
Escape and avoidance behaviors
|
|
Behavior that results from escape conditioning.
|
Escape behavior
|
|
Behavior that increases because it's performance allows the organism to escape a negative reinforcer.
|
Escape conditioning
|
|
An avoidance response is the result of two factor learning in __________.
|
avoidance conditioning
|
|
The onset of the negative reinforcer is preceded by a cue (positive discriminative stimulus) that signals that the negative reinforcer is about to be applied.
|
avoidance conditioning
|
|
The organism learns that if it performs the target behavior in the presence of the cue, it can avoid the negative reinforcer all together.
|
avoidance conditioning
|
|
Exam questions might require you to identify the intermittent schedule that's associated with the greatest resistance to _________.
|
extinction
|
|
Identifying an example of avoidance conditioning might also be an _______.
|
exam question
|
|
Involve increasing a desirable behavior using positive reinforcement or decreasing an undesirable behavior with punishment or extinction.
|
interventions based on operant conditioning.
|
|
While positive and negative reinforcement are both useful for increasing the frequency of a behavior, most behavioral interventions rely on ___________.
|
positive reinforcement
|
|
The reinforcer should be available only when the target behavior has been performed.
|
contingency
|
|
To maximize the benefits of positive reinforcement, the reinforcer should be delivered immediately after the target behavior.
|
immediacy
|
|
Immediacy is particularly important when reinforcement is being used to establish a _______.
|
new behavior
|
|
Generally, the establishment of a new behavior is most rapid when reinforcement is applied on a ________.
|
continuous schedule
|
|
Maintenance of the behavior (resistance to extinction) is maximized when the behavior is reinforced on an ___________.
|
intermittent schedule
|
|
The best procedure is to begin with a continuous schedule of reinforcement and then change to an intermittent schedule once the behavior is ________.
|
well-established
|
|
The process of reducing the proportion of reinforcements.
|
thinning
|
|
Up to a point the greater the amount of positive reinforcement, the greater it's ___________.
|
effectiveness
|
|
Past a certain point the reinforcer may lose is reinforcing value.
|
satiation
|
|
Primary reinforcers are more susceptible to satiation than ________________.
|
Secondary reinforcers
|
|
Generalized secondary reinforcers tend to be the least susceptible to __________.
|
satiation
|
|
A continuous schedule of reinforcement is more susceptible to satiation than an_________.
|
intermittent schedule
|
|
The effectiveness of reinforcement is enhanced when the contingent relationship between the behavior and a reinforcer is verbally clarified.
|
verbal clarification
|
|
Verbal and or physical actions that signal that a behavior will be reinforced.
|
prompts
|
|
When a prompt signals that a behavior will be reinforced it is serving as a _______.
|
Positive Discriminative stimulus
|
|
Prompts facilitate the acquisition of a _________.
|
new behavior
|
|
The gradual removal of a prompt is referred to as ______.
|
fading
|
|
Often, the target behavior is one that never occurs naturally. This will require ______.
|
shaping
|
|
Involves reinforcing successive approximations of the desired behavior.
|
shaping
|
|
Providing reinforcement only for behaviors that come closer and closer to the desired behavior.
|
shaping
|
|
Skinner referred to the sequence of discriminative stimulus-behavior-consequences as the ______________.
|
"three-term contingency"
|
|
Skinner claimed it accounts for the acquisition of the most complex behaviors.
|
"three-term contingency"
|
|
Consist of a number of a number of distinct responses.
|
behavior chains
|
|
The establishment of a behavior chain.
|
chaining
|
|
Chaining can be either _______________.
|
forward or backward
|
|
Begins with the first component of the chain and gradually works through the entire chain.
|
forward chaining
|
|
The components in the chain are established in reverse order.
|
backward chaining
|
|
Chaining is sometimes erroneously confused with _______.
|
shaping
|
|
Both shaping and chaining are used to establish _________.
|
complex behaviors
|
|
Only the final (terminal) behavior is of interest in ____.
|
shaping
|
|
The entire sequence of responses in important.
|
chaining
|
|
In some cases, the establishment of a complex behavior may require a combination of shaping and chaining, with _______ being used to establish each response in the behavior chain.
|
shaping
|
|
A high probability behavior is used to reinforce a low probability behavior.
|
Premack Principle
|
|
Rewarding studying with TV video game time would be following the _________.
|
Premack Principle
|
|
Is particularly useful when it's difficult to identify a stimulus that would act as a reinforcer for a particular individual.
|
Premack Principle
|
|
Combines positive reinforcement with extinction and involves reinforcing alternative behaviors while ignoring the target behavior.
|
Differential reinforcement
|
|
There are several verities including differential association of incompatible behaviors, differential association of alternative behaviors, and differential reinforcement of other behaviors.
|
Differential reinforcement
|
|
DRI
|
Differential reinforcement of incompatible behaviors
|
|
DRA
|
Differential reinforcement of alternative behaviors
|
|
DRO
|
Differential reinforcement of other behaviors
|
|
Immediacy, consistency, intensity, verbal clarification, removal of all positive reinforcement, and reinforcement alternative behaviors all influence the effectiveness of ____________.
|
Punishment
|
|
The sooner punishment is supplied the more _____
|
successful
|
|
Punishment should be applied at the beginning of the behavior _______.
|
chain
|
|
Punishment must be applied on a ________.
|
continuous schedule
|
|
Punishment is usually most effective when it is initially applied in ________.
|
moderation
|
|
When punishment is too strong it's more likely to produce _________.
|
avoidance aggression
|
|
Initially administering punishment in a weak form and then gradually increasing its intensity increases the likelihood of ________.
|
habituation
|
|
Occurs when a punishment loses its effectiveness.
|
habituation
|
|
The effectiveness of punishment is maximized when the contingent relationship between the target behavior and the punishment is verbally _____.
|
clarified
|
|
Punishment works best when all stimuli that previously reinforced the behavior are identified and consistently withheld as the same time the behavior is being punished.
|
Removal of All Positive Reinforcement
|
|
Because punishment only teaches a person what not to do, its effectiveness increases substantially when it's combined with _______________.
|
reinforcement for alternative behaviors.
|
|
It is important to determine if an undesirable behavior is due to inadequate skills; and , if so, punishment must be preceded or accompanied by ___________.
|
training for those skills
|
|
It has been challenged on ethical, legal, and practical grounds.
|
Punishment
|
|
Punishment does not actually eliminate a behavior it merely _______.
|
suppresses it
|
|
Because punishment does not actually eliminate a behavior but merely suppresses it, the effects of punishment are often short-term, inconsistent, and limited to the specific situation in which the ___________.
|
punishment was applied
|
|
Is also associated with several negative side effects including fear of the punishing agent and increases in aggressiveness, negative emotions, and escape avoidance behaviors (e.g. lying, running away).
|
Punishment
|
|
For example saying "no" or "stop"
|
verbal reprimands
|
|
Their effects are inconsistent, however, and in some situations, act as positive reinforcers and actually increase the target behavior. (intended to be stopped)
|
verbal reprimands
|
|
Their effects are likely to be temporary if they are not backed-up or followed by other consequences (e.g. time out).
|
verbal reprimands
|
|
Is a form of positive punishment that entails applying a penalty following an undesirable behavior in order to eliminate it.
|
Overcorrection
|
|
Its use may involve one or both of two procedures; Restitution and positive practice.
|
Overcorrection
|
|
Involves having the individual correct any negative effects of his or her behavior.
|
Restitution
|
|
Requires the person to practice more appropriate behaviors, usually in an exaggerated fashion.
|
Restitution
|
|
Often includes providing verbal instructions, and it may require constant supervision and/or manually guiding the individual through the corrective behaviors (physical guidance), which can be problematic because it may elicit avoidant or aggressive behaviors.
|
Overcorrection
|
|
Requiring the individual to deliberately repeat the undesirable behavior to the point that it becomes aversive to the individual or the individual becomes fatigued.
|
Negative practice
|
|
It's especially useful for eliminating habits and other behaviors that the individual would like to eliminate but has been unable to control such as nail biting, hair twisting, pica, motor tics, stuttering and smoking.
|
Negative practice
|
|
Is an application of negative punishment and involves removing a specific reinforcer each time the target behavior is performed.
|
Response cost
|
|
Is most commonly associated with token economies (in which token fines are imposed for undesirable behavior).
|
Response cost
|
|
It can be used whenever the control of positive reinforcers is possible. (form of punishment)
|
Response cost
|
|
Involves removing all sources of positive reinforcement for a brief, prespecified period of time following a behavior in order to decrease that behavior.
|
Time-out from reinforcement
|
|
Research shows that duration of time is not critical. Short ones are as effective as longer ones (five to 10 minutes being optimal).
|
time- outs
|
|
Like other forms of punishment time-out is most effective when it's combined with reinforcement for ____________.
|
alternative behaviors
|
|
Its effectiveness is also increased when the time-out begins with a brief explanation of why it is ________.
|
being applied
|
|
Entails withholding reinforcement from a previously reinforced response in order to eliminate or decrease that response.
|
Operant extinction
|
|
In operant extinction, positive reinforcement must be ___________ withheld following the behavior since a single exception can re-establish the behavior and maintain it for a considerable length of time.
|
consistently
|
|
Because it is difficult to identify and consistently withhold all sources of reinforcement, extinction can be a _______________.
|
slow and frustrating process
|
|
The schedule of reinforcement that previously established and maintained the behavior affects the rate of ___________.
|
extinction
|
|
When a behavior has been reinforced on a continuous schedule extinction will be more rapid than if the behavior has been reinforced on an _________.
|
intermittent one
|
|
The greater the magnitude and the longer the duration of the previous reinforcement, the more resistant the behavior to ____________.
|
extinction
|
|
Like punishment, extinction is most successful when it's used in conjunction with ______________.
|
reinforcement for other behaviors
|
|
Contingency contracts, token economy, social skills training , and function-based interventions are comprised primarily from components of ________.
|
operant techniques
|
|
A formal written agreement between two or more people that clearly defines the behaviors that are to be modified and the rewards and punishments that will follow performance of those behaviors.
|
Contingency Contracts
|
|
Behavioral change may be required by one or all parties to a __________.
|
Contingency Contract
|
|
1. the contract must be explicit in defining what each party will receive as a result of meeting their responsibilities. 2. Behaviors in the contract must be capable of being monitored. 3. A system of sanctions for failure to meet the terms of the contract should be defined. 4. the contact should define bonuses for consistent compliance with the contract. 5. A record-keeping should be established to provide feedback to all parties about the frequency of target behaviors and delivery of reinforcers.
|
Five elements necessary to ensure an effective contingency contract
|
|
Is a structured environment in which desirable behaviors are increased by reinforcing them with tokens that can be exchanged for desired items, activities and other back-up (primary) reinforcers, while undesirable behaviors are decreased by withholding or removing tokens following those behaviors.
|
Token Economy
|
|
Tokens are _____________.
|
generalized secondary reinforcers
|
|
1. Defining the target behaviors. 2. selecting the secondary and back up reinforcers. 3. developing a system of monitoring and assessing the token economy. 4. developing a plan for reducing then eliminating ("thinning") the reinforcers.
|
Steps involved in establishing a Token economy
|
|
They permit an immediate delivery of reinforcement. Can be tailored to meet individual needs by allowing each person to select his or her own back up reinforcers. Because tokens can be exchanged for a variety of reinforcers, they are less susceptible than primary reinforcers to satiation.
|
Advantages of token economies
|
|
Is used to improve communication, assertiveness, problem-solving, and other socially adaptive skills.
|
Social Skills training
|
|
It is classified as a type of behavior therapy and incorporates techniques derived from operant and classical conditioning as well as social learning theory.
|
Social Skills training
|
|
Specific techniques include modeling, coaching, behavioral rehearsal, feedback, reinforcement, and homework assignments.
|
Social Skills Training
|
|
There is evidence that IT is an effective intervention for reducing symptoms, decreasing risk for relapse, and improving social adjustment of patients with Schizophrenia, for improving the behavior of children with conduct problems, and for reducing depression in children, adolescents, and adults, especially when used as part of a multimodal treatment approach.
|
Social Skills Training
|
|
SST
|
Social Skills Training
|
|
Behavior change strategies that are derived from the results of a functional behavioral assessment.
|
Function-Based Interventions
|
|
Also referred to as a functional behavioral analysis and is conducted to determine the purpose of an undesirable behavior and identify a more desirable substitute behavior that serves the same purpose.
|
Functional Behavioral Assessment
|
|
FBA
|
Functional Behavioral Assessment
|
|
Incorporates interviews, observations, and other sources of data that provide information about the characteristics of the behavior and on its antecedents and consequences.
|
Functional Behavioral Assessment
|
|
The goal of interventions derived from IT is to decrease or eliminate the undesirable behaviors while increasing an alternative behavior, which is achieved by eliminating the antecedents and consequences that are maintaining the undesirable behavior and providing antecedents and consequences that support the alternative behavior.
|
Functional Behavioral Assessment
|
|
Preparing for the exam requires you to become familiar with concepts that often become confused- e.g. satiation versus habituation, thinning versus fading, and shaping versus chaining. A useful strategy for this is _______
|
FLASH CARDS
|
|
The key characteristics of these learning theories are their stress on the internal thought processes that occur during learning and their rejection of the notion that external reinforcement is a necessary condition for learning to occur.
|
Cognitive Learning Theories
|
|
Learning that takes place without being manifested in performance.
|
Latent Learning
|
|
Forming "cognitive maps" without reinforcement for doing so.
|
Latent Learning
|
|
Includes a mode of learning that incorporates the role of internal cognitive processes.
|
Gestalt Psychology
|
|
Reflects an internal cognitive restructuring of the perceptual field (environment) that enhances the organism's ability to achieve its goal.
|
Insight Learning
|
|
Learning that is the result of an "aha" experience.
|
Insight Learning
|
|
Is also known as social learning theory and social cognitive theory.
|
Observational Learning
|
|
It proposes that most complex human behaviors are learned by observing another person perform those behaviors.
|
Observational Learning
|
|
Is useful not only for learning new behaviors but also for enhancing or inhibiting existing ones.
|
Observational Learning
|
|
Attentional Processes, Retention Processes, Production Processes, and Motivational Processes.
|
Four processes involved in Bandura's observational learning that reflects an alteration in cognition
|
|
The learner attends and accurately perceives the modeled behavior.
|
Attentional Processes
|
|
The learner symbolically processes the modeled behavior in memory via visual imagery or verbal coding.
|
Retention Processes
|
|
Retention is maximized through _____.
|
cognitive rehearsal
|
|
The learner must be able to accurately reproduce and rehearse the modeled behavior.
|
Production Processes
|
|
Production is enhanced through practice and performance _________.
|
feedback
|
|
While learning can occur without reinforcement, performance requires ______.
|
motivation
|
|
Is enhanced when the learner is reinforced.
|
motivation
|
|
May be either internal (self-reinforcement), vicarious, or external.
|
reinforcement
|
|
Observers are more likely to imitate a model when the model is high in ___________.
|
status, prestige, or expertise
|
|
Observers are more likely to imitate a model when the model is similar to the ____________.
|
observer, especially in terms of age and gender
|
|
Observers are more likely to imitate a model when the model's behavior is visible, salient, and relevant to the observer's _______.
|
needs and goals
|
|
Observers are more likely to imitate a model when the model has been ___________.
|
reinforced for engaging in the behavior
|
|
When the model has been reinforced for engaging in the behavior.
|
vicarious reinforcement
|
|
Motivation is enhanced when the learner is reinforced.
|
Motivational Processes
|
|
When modeling is used to treat phobic reactions,, coping models who initially exhibit apprehension but then overcome their fears and perform the desired behavior are more effective than mastery models who initially engage in behavior without fear.
|
vicarious reinforcement
|
|
Bandura's research also found that modeling is most effective when it is combined with _________.
|
guided participation
|
|
This procedure is known as participant modeling.
|
Guided participation
|
|
It consists of having the learner observe the model perform the behavior and then perform the behavior him/herself with assistance from the model.
|
guided participation
|
|
Self-Efficacy is a central concept in Bandura's ________.
|
Observational Learning theory
|
|
A person's beliefs about his or her ability to perform a behavior or task or to achieve certain goals.
|
Self-Efficacy
|
|
According to Bandura, self-efficacy beliefs are a primary source of ____________.
|
motivation
|
|
Enactive attainment, vicarious experience, verbal persuasion, & emotional and physiological states
|
According to Bandura the four informational sources that impact self-efficacy
|
|
Prior success in performing the task.
|
Enactive attainment
|
|
Observing others similar to oneself successfully perform the task.
|
vicarious experience
|
|
Encouragement by others.
|
verbal persuasion
|
|
Arousal, anxiety, fatigue, and other forms of emotional and physical feedback.
|
emotional and physiological states
|
|
Some research suggests that the effectiveness of guided participation is due to the improvements in self-efficacy that is provided by successful performance of the _____________.
|
target responses
|
|
It predicts that there is a reciprocal (interactive and influential) relationship between a person's (a) environment,. (b) overt behaviors, and © cognitive, affective, and other personal characteristics.
|
Reciprocal Determinism
|
|
For example, a person's past experiences in various career-related activities (past behavior) influence his her career preferences and choices (personal factors and current behavior), and the career chosen by the person (environment) then affects his or her future career-related preferences, decisions, and behaviors.
|
Reciprocal Determinism
|
|
Reciprocal Determinism is another important component in __________.
|
Bandura's observational learning theory
|
|
The learned helplessness model is not a general theory of learning but, instead, applies to the cognitive processes associated with _________.
|
depression
|
|
Refers to the tendency to give up any effort to control events in the environment.
|
Learned Helplessness
|
|
It was first observed in animals that had been exposed to uncontrollable electric shock and subsequently did not even try to escape the shock when it was possible to do so.
|
Learned Helplessness
|
|
Learned helplessness was subsequently suggested as an etiological factor in some forms of __________.
|
depression
|
|
According to the reformulated version (attributional reformulation) of the learned helplessness model, depression occurs when a person makes internal, stable, and global attributions for _________.
|
negative events
|
|
The reformulated version of the learned helplessness model.
|
attributional reformulation
|
|
Depressed people attribute the cause of negative events to themselves, believe that they will always cause negative events to happen to them, and think they cause negativity in all aspects of their lives.
|
Attributional reformulation of the Learned Helplessness model
|
|
When Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy again revised the learned helplessness model in 1989 they acknowledged the role of attributions in depression but proposed that attributions are important only to the extent to which they contribute to the person's __________________.
|
sense of hopelessness
|
|
You should be familiar with Tolman's latent learning, Kohler's insight learning, Bandura's research on observational learning (especially the types of modeling that are most effective), and the revised versions of the learned helplessness model for the __________.
|
EXAM
|
|
Share the assumption that cognition mediates emotional and behavioral dysfunction, that some types of cognitions may be monitored and altered, and that dysfunctional emotions and behavior's change when relevant cognitions are modified.
|
Cognitive Behavioral Interventions
|
|
These interventions a variety of cognitive and behavioral techniques.
|
Cognitive Behavioral Interventions
|
|
Conceptualizes emotions and behaviors in terms of a chain of events.
|
Rational-emotive behavioral therapy
|
|
REBT
|
Rational-emotive behavioral therapy
|
|
A-B-C -- where A is the external (activating) event to which the individual is exposed. B is the belief the individual has about A, and C is the emotion or behavior that results from B.
|
Rational-emotive behavioral therapy
|
|
An emotional or behavioral response to an external event is due to to beliefs about that event rather than the event itself.
|
Rational-emotive behavioral therapy
|
|
According to Ellis the primary cause of neurosis is the continual repetition of certain common _______.
|
irrational beliefs
|
|
Are characterized by dogmatic demands (must's and should's), awfulizing "(it's awful if…"), low frustration tolerance, and negative evaluations of oneself and others.
|
irrational beliefs
|
|
As defined by Ellis, irrational beliefs are the result of certain biological tendencies that include negativism, moodiness, and excitement-seeking and that interfere with the ability to think ____________.
|
productively and rationally
|
|
Two more events -- D and E --are added to the ABC chain: D is the therapist's attempt to dispute and alter the individual's irrational beliefs, and E refers to the alternative thoughts and beliefs that result from D.
|
Rational-emotive behavioral therapy
|
|
To help clients replace irrational beliefs with more appropriate ones, therapists adopt an educational, confrontative, and persuasive approach and use a variety of techniques including modeling, behavioral rehearsal, problem-solving, in vivo desensitization, rational-emotive imagery, and cognitive homework assignments.
|
Rational-emotive behavioral therapy
|
|
Developed cognitive therapy in 1984.
|
Beck
|
|
Cognitive therapy is also referred to as ______.
|
Cognitive-behavioral therapy
|
|
Cognitive therapy was originally developed as a treatment for _______.
|
depression
|
|
CT
|
Cognitive Therapy
|
|
Was originally developed as a therapy for depression but has since been successfully applied to other disorders including anxiety, anorexia, bulimia, sexual dysfunction and substance abuse.
|
Cognitive Therapy
|
|
Its primary goal is to help clients identify and alter dysfunctional and distorted assumptions.
|
Cognitive Therapy
|
|
Cognitive Schemas, Automatic Thoughts, Cognitive Distortions, & Cognitive Profiles
|
Types of cognitions targeted by practitioners of Cognitive Therapy
|
|
Underlying cognitive structures and rules that consist of core beliefs and that determine how individuals codify, categorize and interpret their experiences.
|
Cognitive Schemas
|
|
Are revealed in automatic thoughts and supported by cognitive distortions.
|
Cognitive Schemas
|
|
Develop early in live as a result of biological development, and environmental factors. They can be either functional or dysfunctional and may be dormant until they're activated by internal or external stress, especially stress caused by conditions similar to those under which they originally developed.
|
Cognitive Schemas
|
|
Once activated, dysfunctional ONES impair the ability to think rationally and predispose the individual to depression or other disorders.
|
Cognitive Schemas
|
|
Are "surface level cognitions" that "intercede between an event or stimulus and the individual's emotional and behavioral reactions."
|
Automatic Thoughts
|
|
Are not necessarily associated with psychological dysfunction but contribute to dysfunction when they're the result of maladaptive schemas and are frequent, persistent, and not critically examined.
|
Automatic Thoughts
|
|
Are systematic errors or biases in information processing and are the link between maladaptive cognitive schemas and negative automatic thoughts.
|
Cognitive Distortions
|
|
Common ones include arbitrary inference, overgeneralization, personalization, selective abstraction, dichotomous thinking, and emotional reasoning.
|
Cognitive Distortions
|
|
Drawing conclusions without corroborative evidence.
|
arbitrary inference
|
|
Drawing general conclusions on the basis of a single event.
|
overgeneralization
|
|
Attending to detail while ignoring the total context.
|
selective abstraction
|
|
Erroneously attributing external events to oneself.
|
personalization
|
|
Thinking in polarized, "either/or" ways.
|
dichotomous thinking
|
|
Believing things are a certain way because one feels they are that way.
|
emotional reasoning
|
|
Like automatic thoughts, they become problematic when they are pervasive and not critically examined or challenged.
|
Cognitive Distortions
|
|
According to Beck, each psychological disorder is characterized by a ________.
|
Cognitive Profile
|
|
Its cognitive profile involves the "cognitive triad" of a negative view of oneself, the world, and the future.
|
depression
|
|
Its cognitive profile reflects an excessive form of normal survival mechanisms and consists of unrealistic fears about physical and psychological threats.
|
anxiety
|
|
It relies on collaborative empiricism.
|
Cognitive Therapy
|
|
It involves developing a collaborative therapist-client relationship and gathering evidence to test hypothesis about the client's beliefs and assumptions.
|
collaborative empiricism
|
|
It is a time-limited treatment, with the average length of therapy being 15 sessions and sessions being structured and goal oriented.
|
Cognitive Therapy
|
|
1. establishing rapport and trust. 2. socializing the client to cognitive therapy. 3. educating the client about his/her disorder, the cognitive model, and therapy process. 4. normalizing the client's difficulties and instilling hope. 5. determining and, if necessary, correcting the client's expectations about therapy. 6. collecting additional information about the clients problems. and 7. developing a goals list.
|
Goals ordinarily addressed in the first session of Cognitive Therapy
|
|
While the focus is on the Client's current experiences, historical material may be addressed to clarify his or her core beliefs.
|
Cognitive Therapy
|
|
It assumes that the relevant cognitions become accessible and modifiable only with affect arousal, and consequently, imagery and other techniques are used to elicit affect.
|
Cognitive Therapy
|
|
Questioning is a primary therapeutic tool and often takes the form of Socratic dialogue.
|
Cognitive Therapy
|
|
Is known as guided discovery and involves asking questions that are designed to help the client reach logical conclusions about a problem and its consequences.
|
Socratic dialogue
|
|
Relapse prevention is a focus of throughout treatment.
|
Cognitive Therapy
|
|
Methods to meet this goal in cognitive therapy include the therapist emphasizing the client's part in causing change in mood and behavior, and toward the end of therapy, the therapist works with the client to develop a self-therapy plan.
|
relapse prevention
|
|
Cognitive therapy incorporates a variety of ________.
|
behavioral and cognitive techniques
|
|
Activity scheduling, behavioral rehearsal, social skills training, and relaxation.
|
Behavioral strategies used in Cognitive Therapy
|
|
The downward arrow questioning and evidence, decatastrophizing, mental imagery, and cognitive rehearsal.
|
Cognitive strategies in Cognitive Therapy
|
|
"If so, then what?" questioning.
|
Downward arrow questioning
|
|
Clients are often given homework assignments, and an early assignment requires the client to keep a "Daily Record of Dysfunctional Thoughts" in order to identify the client's automatic thoughts.
|
Cognitive Therapy
|
|
The specific techniques used in therapy depend on the nature and severity of the client's symptoms. For example, behavioral techniques designed to increase the client's overall activity level are often the initial interventions for those with mild and moderate depression. (Beck & Weishaar, 1989)
|
Cognitive Therapy
|
|
REBT, CT, SIT, Thought Stopping, & Attribution Retraining
|
Cognitive restructuring techniques
|
|
REBT, CT, SIT, Thought Stopping, & Attribution Retraining all conceptualize maladaptive behaviors as the result of ______________.
|
disturbances in thinking
|
|
SIT, Thought Stopping, & Attribution Retraining are narrower in focus and utilize more a more restricted range of strategies then ________.
|
REBT, and CT
|
|
Was first used by Meichenbaum and Goodman in 1971 to help impulsive and hyperactive children perform academic and other tasks more successfully by teaching them to interpolate adaptive self-controlling thoughts between stimulus situation and their response to that situation.
|
Self-Instructional Training
|
|
SIT
|
Self-Instructional Training
|
|
SIT incorporates the work of Bygotsky and Luria, who proposed that true voluntary behavior does not occur until there is a shift from external to internal __________.
|
Language control
|
|
Cognitive modeling, Cognitive Participant Modeling, Overt Self-Instruction, Fading Overt instruction, Covert Self-Instruction.
|
Five steps of Self-Instructional Training
|
|
The client observes a model perform the task while the model makes self-statements aloud.
|
Cognitive Modeling
|
|
Include questions about the nature of the task, answers to those questions, specific instructions on how to do the task, and self-reinforcement.
|
Self-statements
|
|
The client performs the task as the model verbalizes the instructions.
|
Cognitive Participant Modeling
|
|
The client performs the task while instructing him or herself aloud.
|
Overt Self-Instruction
|
|
The client whispers the instructions while carrying out the task.
|
Fading overt Self-Instruction
|
|
The client performs the task while saying the instructions covertly.
|
Covert Self-Instruction
|
|
It entails eliminating obsessive ruminations, self criticism, depressive or anxiety-arousing ideas, and other unwanted or unproductive thoughts by using such techniques as covertly yelling, "stop, stop, stop" or snapping a rubber band placed around the wrist whenever unwanted thoughts occur.
|
Thought Stopping
|
|
Thought stopping is often combined with ______.
|
covert assertion
|
|
Making alternative assertive self-statements following thought stopping.
|
covert assertion
|
|
Focuses on altering the individual's perceptions of the causes of his or her problematic behavior and has been successfully used to treat depression, anxiety, alcoholism and several other disorders as well as to improve the academic performance of underachieving students.
|
Attribution Retraining
|
|
Attribution retraining is consistent with the assumptions of the _____________.
|
reformulated learned helplessness model (Abramson, Seligman, & Teasdale 1990)
|
|
Attribution retraining is consistent with the optimistic explanatory style that is promoted in Seligman's (1990) theory of __________.
|
learned optimism
|
|
Its goal is to help clients attribute their failures to external, unstable, and specific factors and successes to internal, stable, and global factors.
|
Attribution Retraining
|
|
Use a combination of cognitive and behavioral strategies to help clients deal effectively with problematic external events.
|
Coping and Problem-Solving Techniques
|
|
Was designed to help people deal with stress by increasing their coping skills.
|
Stress Inoculation
|
|
Treatment involves three phases: a. The cognitive preparation phase is also known as the conceptualization phase. It is primarily educational and involves helping the client understand his or her behavioral and cognitive responses to stressful situations. b. During the skills acquisition and rehearsal phase the client learns to rehearse a variety of coping skills. Specific interventions during this phase include direct-action techniques and cognitive techniques. c. in the final application and follow-through phase, the client applies the coping skills he or she has acquired to imagined, filmed, and in vivo stress producing situations.
|
Stress Inoculation
|
|
Relaxation, pleasant imagery, arranging "escape routes."
|
direct-action techniques
|
|
Replacing negative self-statements with coping self-statements.
|
cognitive techniques
|
|
Its most recent version (D'Zurilla & Nezu 2007) proposes that problem-solving outcomes are determined primarily by two factors: Problem orientation and problem-solving style.
|
Problem-Solving Therapy
|
|
PST
|
Problem-Solving Therapy
|
|
Refers to relatively stable cognitive schemas that can be either positive or negative and that represent the person's view about problems and his/her ability to successfully solve them.
|
Problem orientation
|
|
Refers to the activities the individual engages in when solving problems.
|
Problem-solving Style
|
|
Distinguishes between rational, impulsive/careless, and avoidance styles, with the rational style being identified as the only one that's likely to result in adaptive problem solutions.
|
Problem-Solving Therapy
|
|
It is characterized by a reliance on five skills: recognizing the problem, defining the problem, generalizing alternative solutions, choosing the best solution, and implementing and evaluating the chosen solution.
|
Problem-Solving Therapy
|
|
In therapy, several strategies are used to help clients adopt a positive problem-solving orientation and rational problem-solving style, including psychoeducation, guided discussion, role-playing, and homework assignments.
|
Problem-Solving Therapy
|
|
Is a brief form of therapy that is usually conducted as group therapy. It's based on the assumption that deficits in three aspects of self-control increase a person's vulnerability to depression and make it difficult to deal effectively wit depressive symptoms.
|
Self-control therapy
|
|
According to Rehm's Self-Control Therapy the three aspects of self-control where weakness tends to make a person vulnerable to depression are ______.
|
Self-Monitoring, Self-Evaluation, & Self-Reinforcement
|
|
Depressed people selectively attend to negative events and to the immediate (versus delayed) consequences of their behavior.
|
Self-Monitoring
|
|
People who are depressed make inaccurate internal attributions and compare their behavior to standards that are excessively rigid and perfectionistic.
|
Self-Evaluation
|
|
Depressed individuals engage in low rates of self-reward and high rates of self-punishment.
|
Self-Reinforcement
|
|
In Self-Control Therapy sessions and behavioral homework assignments correspond to the three aspects of _______.
|
self-control
|
|
In Self-Control Therapy during the self-monitoring phase of therapy, the client is taught to monitor negative __________.
|
self-statements and positive outcomes
|
|
During the self-evaluation phase of self-control therapy the client is taught to set realistic goals to make appropriate _________.
|
attributions of his or her behavior
|
|
During the self-reinforcement phase of Self-control therapy, the client learns to reinforce him- or herself with positive self-statements and activities for working toward or achieving _________.
|
his or her goals
|
|
Attributes depression to a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement due to inadequate reinforcing stimuli in the environmental and/or in the individual's lake of skill in obtaining reinforcement.
|
Lewinsohn's Behavioral Model
|
|
According to Lewinsohn, when a person's behaviors - for instance, attempts to interact with family members or co-workers - are not reinforced, those behaviors _________.
|
extinguish
|
|
Proposed that, in addition to eliminating or reducing certain behaviors, a low response-contingent reinforcement elicits pessimism, low self-esteem, and other features that are associated with depression.
|
Lewinsohn's Behavioral Model
|
|
Initially focused on "reactivating" depressed patients by increasing their activity levels and access to reinforced events but subsequently incorporated cognitive techniques similar to those developed by Beck.
|
Lewinsohn's Behavioral Model
|
|
There has been renewed interest in recent years in behavioral activation approaches for depression that utilize behavioral strategies ________.
|
only (Hopko, Lejuez, Ruggerio, & Eifert, 2003)
|
|
Encompass a variety of techniques that emphasize the client's responsibility for modifying his or her behavior.
|
Self-Management Procedures
|
|
Include self-monitoring, stimulus control, and biofeedback as well as several of the previously-described techniques, including self-instruction and thought stopping.
|
Self-Management Procedures
|
|
Is a common initial procedure in self-management programs and other cognitive-behavioral interventions and involves having the client record information about the frequency and conditions surrounding the target behavior.
|
Self-Monitoring
|
|
Results provide the therapist and client with information about the nature and magnitude of the behavior so that an appropriate treatment strategy can be developed and the effects of the treatment can be evaluated.
|
Self-Monitoring
|
|
Because IT often changes the nature of the target behavior in the desired direction, it's often used not only as an assessment tool but also to promote behavioral change.
|
Self-Monitoring
|
|
When a behavior's performance is contingent on the presence of a certain stimuli.
|
Stimulus control
|
|
These techniques are designed to alter the associations between stimuli and the behavior and/or its consequences and include a. Narrowing, b. Cue strengthening c. Fading
|
Stimulus control
|
|
involves restricting the target behavior to a limited set of stimuli (e.g. eating only at mealtimes).
|
Narrowing
|
|
Entails linking the behavior to specific environmental conditions (e.g. studying in a particular location at home).
|
Cue strengthening
|
|
Consists of changing the stimulus conditions associated with the behavior (e.g. replacing a fetish object with more appropriate sexual stimuli).
|
Fading
|
|
May be classified as a self-management technique since it involves having a client learn to modify his or her own behaviors and, like many other self-management procedures, is based on the principles of operant conditioning. The target in THIS training is usually a physiological response that is considered involuntary such as heart rate, GSR, skin temperature, brain wave activity, or blood glucose level.
|
Biofeedback
|
|
When using this technique the client is connected to an electromyograph (EMG), electroencephalograph (EEG), or other apparatus that provides immediate and continuous performance feedback about the target response, usually in the form of visual or auditory signal.
|
Biofeedback
|
|
A number of studies have found _______________ to be as effective as biofeedback for several problems including tension headaches, hypertension, general anxiety, insomnia, and lower back pain.
|
Relaxation Training
|
|
There is evidence that ____________ may be the treatment of choice for some disorders. Raynaud's disease, urinary and fecal incontinence have been successfully treated in this manner.
|
Biofeedback
|
|
A combination of thermal biofeedback and autogenic training (a relaxation technique) has been found to be the best approach for ______.
|
migraine headaches
|
|
Cognitive-behavioral interventions are a "popular" topic on the _________.
|
licensing exam
|
|
Questions on the licensing exam covering cognitive-behavioral interventions will most likely address fairly _____.
|
detailed information
|
|
________________ you might be required to identify Beck's cognitive profile for depression, the three phases of stress inoculation, or the results of research on the effectiveness of biofeedback for Raynaud's disease or migraine headaches.
|
On the licensing exam
|
|
Encoding, Storage, & Retrieval
|
Three processes in memory
|
|
Is the translation of incoming stimuli into a code that can be processed by the brain.
|
encoding
|
|
All though it is often automatic, it is more effective when it involves deliberate rehearsal (like flash cards)
|
encoding
|
|
The process of maintaining information in memory.
|
storage
|
|
It can be disrupted by several factors including retroactive and proactive interference and brain trauma.
|
storage
|
|
Refers to the recovery of stored information in the memory.
|
retrieval
|
|
Is facilitated by the use of retrieval cues.
|
retrieval
|
|
Information-processing and levels-of-processing.
|
Models of Memory
|
|
Attempt to explain how memory works.
|
Models of Memory
|
|
Describes memory as consisting of three components - sensory memory, short-term memory, & long-term memory.
|
The Information-processing (Multi-Store) Model
|
|
Is also known as sensory register and provides brief storage of sensory stimuli.
|
Sensory Memory
|
|
Although IT seems to be capable of storing a great deal of information, it is retained for no more than a few seconds.
|
Sensory Memory
|
|
There may be separate sensory memories, one for each of the ________.
|
senses
|
|
The sensory store for auditory information.
|
"echoic store"
|
|
The store for visual stimuli.
|
"iconic store"
|
|
When information in sensory memory becomes the focus of attention, it is transferred to _____.
|
short-term memory
|
|
Holds a limited amount of information, and without rehearsal, information HERE begins to fade within 30 seconds.
|
short-term memory
|
|
STM
|
short-term memory
|
|
Encoding in short-term memory is believed to be primarily acoustic but may also be, to a lesser degree, semantic, visual and/or _________.
|
kinesthetic
|
|
Consists of primary memory and working memory.
|
short-term memory
|
|
Passive memory storage.
|
primary memory
|
|
With regard to primary memory Miller proposed in 1956 (the year Marty McCurdy was born) that the average capacity for short term memory is between 5 and 9 distinct units and that the ability to hold larger amounts of information in short-term memory was due to ________.
|
chunking
|
|
Groupings of related items of information.
|
chunking
|
|
To remember 21 numbers you might group the numbers into groups of three, resulting in seven distinct units of information.
|
chunking
|
|
Is responsible for the manipulation and processing of information.
|
working memory
|
|
It is what allows you to repeat the phone number you just found in the phone book until you dial the number on the phone.
|
working memory
|
|
Although the process involved in converting information from STM to long-term memory is not well understood, it's likely due to they type of ________.
|
rehearsal
|
|
LTM
|
Long-term memory
|
|
Information is more likely to be transferred into Long-term memory with _________.
|
elaborate rehearsal
|
|
Involves relating new information to existing information.
|
elaborate rehearsal
|
|
information is more likely to be transferred into LTM with elaborate rehearsal then with ___________.
|
maintenance rehearsal
|
|
Simply repeating the information with little or no processing.
|
maintenance rehearsal
|
|
Encoding in LTM is largely __________ although some information may be encoded visually or acoustically.
|
semantic
|
|
The capacity of LTM seems to be ________.
|
unlimited
|
|
Some experts believe that material stored in LTM is ______.
|
permanent
|
|
Consists of recent (secondary) memory and remote memory.
|
Long-term memory
|
|
The existence of separate short- and long-term stores is supported by studies of the ____________.
|
serial position effect
|
|
When people are asked to recall a list of items immediately after reading the list, the items in the beginning and end of the list are ________.
|
recalled much better than those in the middle
|
|
Words at the beginning of the list have already been rehearsed and are stored in long-term memory.
|
"primacy effect"
|
|
Items at the end of the list are still in short-term memory.
|
"recency effect"
|
|
When there is a brief time delay between reading the list and recalling it, there is only a primacy effect, and this is apparently due to the fact that items at the end of the list are no longer in ________.
|
short-term memory
|
|
An alternative information-processing model to the information-processing (multi store) model.
|
Levels-of-processing model
|
|
It proposes that the differences in memory are due to the differences in depth of processing rather than to separate memory stores.
|
Levels-of-processing model
|
|
Distinguishes between three levels of processing: structural, phonemic, and sematic.
|
Levels-of-processing model
|
|
When trying to memorize a word you can focus on its structural, phonemic, or semantic ________.
|
properties
|
|
Is the word in capital letters?
|
structural or physical properties
|
|
What does the word rhyme with?
|
phonemic or sound properties
|
|
What does the word mean?
|
semantic level of processing
|
|
The deepest level of processing that produces the greatest amount of recall.
|
semantic
|
|
Is conceptualized as consisting of procedural and declarative components.
|
Long-term memory
|
|
Stores information about how to do things ("learning how").
|
procedural memory
|
|
Is used to acquire, retain, and employ perceptual, cognitive, and motor skills and habits.
|
procedural memory
|
|
Mediates the acquisition of facts and other information ("learning that or what").
|
declarative memory
|
|
Is further divided into semantic and episodic memory.
|
declarative memory
|
|
Includes general knowledge that is independent of any context and is responsible for the storage of facts, rules, and concepts.
|
Semantic memory
|
|
Consists of information about events that have been personally experienced.
|
Episodic memory
|
|
Autobiographical memory
|
Episodic memory
|
|
Vivid, detailed images of what one was doing at the time a dramatic event occurred.
|
flashbulb memories
|
|
Flashbulb memories are stored in _______.
|
Episodic memory
|
|
Is affected more by normal aging than are semantic and procedural memory.
|
Episodic memory
|
|
Some investigators also distinguish between implicit and explicit aspects of ________.
|
Long-term memory
|
|
Automatic memory.
|
Implicit memory
|
|
Memory that requires conscious recollection.
|
explicit memory
|
|
The division of memory into implicit/procedural and explicit/declarative is supported by research showing that implicit and explicit memory involve different ___________.
|
brain structures
|
|
The hippocampus and frontal lobes seem to mediate _________.
|
explicit memory
|
|
The basal ganglia and the cerebellum are important for __________.
|
implicit memory
|
|
Some investigators identify IT as another component of LTM that is responsible for the capacity to remember to do things in the future.
|
prospective memory
|
|
The remember to remember memory.
|
prospective memory
|
|
Research of the effects of aging on prospective memory has found that, while older adults often do less well than younger adults on measures of prospective memory under controlled conditions, in naturalistic settings, they often do better, apparently because they're more likely to make use of __________________.
|
external aides such as lists and calendars
|
|
The research has confirmed a strong relationship between attention and ________.
|
memory
|
|
The ability to maintain attention in the presence of distractions accounts for the difference between individuals with good versus poor ____________.
|
working memory
|
|
Working memory consists of a central executive and three subsystems - the phonological loop, the visuo-spatial sketchpad, and the episodic buffer.
|
Multi-Component Model of Working Memory
|
|
The central executive is the primary component of working memory and is described by Baddeley as an ________________.
|
"attentional control system"
|
|
Is really sick of making psychology flash-cards at 8:37 p.m. central time on Friday night June 6, 2014.
|
Marty McCurdy
|
|
It's responsible for directing attention to relevant information, suppressing irrelevant information, and coordinating the three subsystems.
|
Central executive component
|
|
Responsible for temporarily storing auditory-verbal information.
|
phonological loop
|
|
Responsible for temporarily storing visual-spatial information.
|
visuo-spatial sketchpad
|
|
Temporarily integrates auditory, visual, and spatial information.
|
Episodic buffer
|
|
According to the Multi-component-model of working memory tasks that depend on the central executive are the ones that are most adversely affected by ___________.
|
increasing age
|
|
Was the first of the "bottleneck" theories of attention.
|
Filter Theory of Selective Attention
|
|
It's based on the information-processing model and explains how information is transferred from sensory memory to short-term memory.
|
Filter Theory of Selective Attention
|
|
According to this theory, a. two sensory stimuli presented at the same time are maintained for a brief period in the sensory register; b. a filter selects one of the stimuli to pass through a temporary buffer for later processing; and c. the stimulus that passes through the channel to short-term memory is processed for meaning and comes into conscious awareness.
|
Filter Theory of Selective Attention
|
|
The purpose of the filter in the filter theory of selective attention is to prevent the overloading of the capacity of ____________.
|
short-term memory
|
|
The initial processing of visual information involves two stages; the initial preattentive stage and the attentive stage.
|
Feature-Integration stage
|
|
The basic features of the object (e.g. size, color, orientation) are perceived in parallel at an automatic or subconscious level.
|
preattentive stage
|
|
The features of an object are processed serially to form a coherent whole, and this binding of features depends on focal attention.
|
attentive stage
|
|
According to Treisman and Gelade, once an object has been correctly integrated, it ordinarily continues to be perceived and stored in memory as a __________.
|
unitary object
|
|
Is affected by several factors including schemas, which are cognitive structures or frameworks that influence how new information is encoded, stored, and retrieved.
|
The Accuracy of Memories
|
|
Many distortions in memory are the result of interpreting information through existing schemas that may introduce systematic ___________.
|
biases into memory
|
|
People tend to construct memories by combining elements of new information with existing information, which can cause inaccuracies and _______.
|
distortions
|
|
Existing knowledge affects what we pay attention to and remembering about an event and what we recall about the event at a _________.
|
later time
|
|
Ebbinghaus determined that the role of learning of nonsense syllables is followed by a predictable ____________.
|
"forgetting curve"
|
|
Most forgetting occurs during the first four to five days and then gradually tapers off.
|
"forgetting curve"
|
|
Learning produces a trace, or engram, which is a physiological change in the brain that decays over time as the result of disuse.
|
Trace Decay Theory
|
|
People forget less when asleep than when awake for an equal amount of time which suggests that forgetting is due more to interference than to the ________.
|
decay of memory traces over time
|
|
Proposes that forgetting occurs when the ability to recall certain information is affected by information acquired previously or subsequently.
|
Interference Theory
|
|
Is most likely when new and old information are similar; when the task involves recall (versus recognition); and when the information to be recalled is unimportant and meaningless.
|
interference
|
|
Retroactive and proactive are the two types of interference that adversely affect _______.
|
memory
|
|
When recently learned (new) material interferes with the recall of previously learned (old) material.
|
Retroactive interference
|
|
Because of the retroactive interference of making these flash-cards I have ___________.
|
forgotten everything I ever knew
|
|
When prior (old) learning interferes with the learning or recall of subsequent (new) material.
|
Proactive interference.
|
|
According to this view, forgetting results when cues needed to retrieve information from long-term memory are insufficient or incomplete.
|
Cue-Dependent Forgetting
|
|
The tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon is believed to be due to inadequate __________.
|
retrieval cues
|
|
This principle proposes that the greater the similarity between the way information is encoded and the cues that are present at the time of recall, the better the recall.
|
Encoding Specificity
|
|
State-dependent learning supports the ______.
|
Encoding Specificity principle
|
|
Recall of information is sometimes better when the learner is in the same emotional state during learning and recall.
|
State-dependent learning
|
|
The fact that people perform better on recognition tasks then recall tasks supports the _______.
|
Encoding Specificity principle
|
|
Performance is usually better on recognition then recall because recognition items provide more ____________.
|
retrieval cues
|
|
Information is most likely to be transferred from short-term to long-term memory when new information is made more meaningful by relating it to existing knowledge.
|
Elaborative Rehearsal
|
|
Formal strategies for improving memory and are classified as visual or verbal.
|
mnemonic devices
|
|
Make use of visual imagery for memory.
|
Visual mnemonics
|
|
Involves visually associating items to be remembered with a series of places (loci) already in memory.
|
method of loci
|
|
Patrick Jayne's memory palace is a ______.
|
method of loci
|
|
Imagery technique that is useful for paired associate tasks in which two words must be linked.
|
keyword method
|
|
To remember the French word for book--"livre"--a person would create the image of a leaf on a book.
|
keyword method
|
|
The effectiveness of imagery is illustrated by people who have the ability to form eidetic images, which allow them to recall events, objects, and information with _________.
|
great accuracy
|
|
Visual images of extreme clarity and detail.
|
eidetic images
|
|
Patrick Jayne has the ability to form ______.
|
eidetic images
|
|
Include acronyms and acrostics, which are both useful for remembering a list of words and phrases.
|
Verbal mnemonics
|
|
A word that is formed using the first letter of each item in a list.
|
Acronym
|
|
A phrase or rhyme that's constructed from the first letter of each word that is to be memorized.
|
Acrostic
|
|
"See Piaget creep forward" is an acrostic for _____.
|
Piaget's fours stages of cognitive development
|
|
Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational.
|
Piaget's fours stages of cognitive development
|
|
Moderate levels of arousal maximize the efficiency of learning and performance.
|
Yerkes-Dodson Law
|
|
Extremely low and high levels of arousal are associated with decreased efficiency in learning and performance.
|
Yerkes-Dodson Law
|
|
According to the Yerkes-Dodson Law the relationship between arousal and learning assumes the shape of an ______.
|
inverted-U
|
|
The relationship between arousal and learning is also affected by ________.
|
task difficulty
|
|
Usually, the more difficult the task, the lower the_________.
|
optimal level of arousal
|
|
When attempting to lift a car or deadlift 600 lbs. the optimal level of arousal is ________.
|
very high
|