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137 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Define immunity
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the state of protection from infectious disease
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Innate immunity
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Immediately available defense that is the first-line border and always produces the same response on pathogen exposure. (i.e. tears, mucous membranes)
also known as non-specific or natural immunity, |
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Components of innate immunity
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barriers (i.e. mucous membranes), cellular involvement (phagocytic cells), humoral (alternate complement pathway)
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Adaptive immunity
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Defense with a high degree of specificity and an immunologic memory.
Also known as specific or acquired immunity |
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Components of adaptive immunity
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T-cells (memory), B-cells (memory and plasma), humoral (antibodies, classic complement)
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Components of external innate defense
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physical (skin, mucous membranes, cilia, coughing/sneezing)
biochemical (pH, secretions such as lysozymes) |
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Components of internal innate defense
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Cellular (Neutrophils, monocytes, tissue macrophages, dendritic cells, eosinophils, basophils, NK cells)
Humoral (cytokines, acute inflammatory reaction, alternate complement pathway) |
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Name the 5 steps of phagocytosis
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attachment of bacterium, ingestion, fusion and release of lysosomal enzymes, digestion, release of digested products
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Neutrophils are stimulated by the presence of what?
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antibodies or activated complement components
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Monocytes found in the tissues are known as what?
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Macrophages
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Monocytes are the predominant cell at the inflammation site in the ______ stage of the reaction
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late
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Dendritic cells are able to activate what cells?
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T-cells
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NK cells are also known as _____.
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large granular lymphocytes
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NK cells play a role in easily stages of _______ and _______.
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viral infection, tumerogenesis
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Basophils have surface membrane receptor sites for the Fc portion of ________
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IgE immunoglobulins
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The granules of basophils contain _____, _____ and _____.
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histamine, chemotactic factor, heparin
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Eosinophils are increased in individuals with ______ infections.
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parasitic
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Soluble factors involved in innate immunity are increased after tissue injury in both ________ and _____. These factors are also known as ________.
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the site of injury, plasma, acute phase reactants
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C-reactive protein binds to what?
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the C-polysaccharide cell-wall component found in many fungi and bacteria
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C-reactive protein is an activator of what?
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complement (opsonization)
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C-reactive protein increases with _______ of injury
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4-6 hours
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C-reactive protein peaks _______ after tissue injury.
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24-72 hours
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High CRP levels are a risk factor for _______.
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acute myocardial infarction
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False negatives in a latex agglutination test for CRP may result from _________.
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very high CRP levels
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What is complement?
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A group of serum proteins that circulate in an inactive state that may be turned on by specific or non-specific immunologic mechanisms to damage membranes of pathogens facilitating destruction of clearance
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5 proteins unique to the classical pathway
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C1 (C1q, C1r, C1s), C4, C2
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What does alpha-1-antitrypsin do?
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counteracts degrading enzyme activity, it is a serine protease inhibitor (inhibits proteases secreted during phagocytosis)
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Ceruloplasmin transfers what element/molecule?
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Copper
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What is an inflammatory response?
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Sequence of events induced by tissue damage or by invading pathogenic microorganisms. Its purpose is to destroy pathogens, clean the debris and repair damaged tissues
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Four cardinal signs of inflammation
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redness, swelling, heat, pain
(rubor, tumor, calor, dolor) |
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Three major events of an inflammatory response
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vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, migration and influx of phagocytes
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Sequence of migration of phagocyte from plasma to tissue
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rolling, activation, adhesion, diapedesis, margination, chemotaxis
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What makes up pus?
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dead cells, digested material, fluid
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________ increase the expression of cell adhesion molecules (CAM) on _____ cells
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Cytokines, endothelial
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Integrin and IgG superfamily CAM cause __________.
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firm adherence to the endothelial cell
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What are chemokines?
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A superfamily of small polypeptides (cytokines) that control adhesion, chemotaxis and activation of many leukocytes
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What is bradykinin?
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A vasoactive peptide that increases vascular permeability, causes vasodilation, induces pain and induces contraction of smooth muscle
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Plasmin breaks down fibrin clots and activates _______.
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complement
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Acute inflammation is asymptomatic T/F
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False, acute inflammation is symptomatic and exhibits that cardinal signs of inflammation
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The main cellular defense in acute inflammation is ________.
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polymorphonuclear neutrophils
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T/F Chronic inflammation may be asymptomatic or exhibit few symptoms
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True
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The key cellular components of chronic inflammation
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monocytes, macrophages and plasma cells
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What is a granuloma?
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tumor-like mass consisting of a central area of activated macrophages surround by activated lymphocytes
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Granulomas and high endothelial venules are characteristic of ________.
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chronic inflammation
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Causes of chronic inflammation
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persistent infection, prolonged irritation, immune problems (i.e. RA), acute inflammatory response
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Name the forces that hold antigen and antibody together
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electrostatic force, hydrogen bonding, van der Waals forces, hydrophobic bonds
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Describe the primary specific reaction. What are the requirements?
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The union of antigen and antibody molecules to form a single complex.
Sufficient attraction forces at receptor and determinant sites, proper spatial configuration for close "fit," absence of other strong repelling forces |
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Describe the secondary reaction. What are the requirements?
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Agglutination or "lattice" formation.
This requires antigens with multiple antigenic determinants and antibody with at least 2 binding sites. |
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What factors affect the secondary reaction?
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proportions of Ag and Ab, proximity of antigen particles, fit of receptor and determinant sites, salt concentration, pH, temperature
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Precipitins have a more complete reaction in ______.
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cold temperatures
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Proximity of antigen/antibody particles is enhanced in the laboratory by ________ and ______.
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appropriate tube size, centrifugation
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In terms of salt, secondary reaction is enhanced at what concentration?
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slightly above or below physiological concentration
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Agglutinins usually require what temperature to react?
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37 degrees Celsius
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Zonal reactions may produce false ______ results. Why?
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Negative, due to too highly diluted or too highly concentrated serum. Highly diluted serum gives antigen excess, while highly concentrated serum gives antibody excess.
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Precipitation reactions occur in what modern tests?
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gel diffusion, RID, Ouchterlony
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(T/F) Precipitation reactions give a stable, permanent result that may be stained
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True
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Practical limitations of precipitation reactions
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prolonged incubation, easily disrupted, difficult to see, requires large concentrations of antibody
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In a precipitation reaction in a semi-solid gel, is the antigen soluble or insoluble?
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Soluble
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Advantages of precipitation in a semi-solid gel
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Permits antigen and antibody to migrate in close proximity to each other, stable precipitate, easily observed
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In immunofixation, what is spread over the area where protein is electrophoresed? Why?
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antisera to particular portions of immunoglobulins, this allows the unknown protein to be visualized/partially identified (IgG, IgA, or IgM and kappa or lambda)
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What is a hybridoma?
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Fusion of a B-cell activated to respond to one specific antigen with a neoplastic B cell. This produces a long lived cell that produces an antibody to one specific antigen.
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Hybridomas produce what type of antibodies? Why is this important?
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Monoclonal antibodies, this is the source of many antisera
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When producing hybridomas, what prevents two fused neoplastic cells from surviving as well as the hybridomas?
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The neoplastic cells lack the ability to produce all necessary amino acids
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What actions can antibodies potentially take against foreign particles?
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agglutinate or precipitate antigens, activate complement resulting in antigen lysis, prevent penetration of mucosal linings, neutralize toxins, prevent viral colonization, enhance phagocytosis
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Potential antigens
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soluble proteins, lipo-proteins, polysaccharides, bacterial products, as well as portions of: bacteria, fungi, viruses, human cells, red blood cells
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What makes a good antigen?
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10,000 Dalton molecular weight or greater, chemically complex, repetitive, foreign or occult
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Antibodies of the IgG class usually react optimally at what temperature?
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37 degrees Celsius
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The use of direct agglutination is to detect the presences of a _____ antigen or a _____ antibody.
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particulate, soluble
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Direct agglutination requires an incubartion time of __________.
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minutes to an hour
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Compared to precipitation reactions, direct agglutination reactions require _______ amounts of antigen and antibody
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smaller
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Factors that can affect direct slide agglutination
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Ag/Ab not spread over whole area of slide
Ag/Ab not mixed together adequately Mixture not rotated in a figure 8 adequately Rotation time is too short or too long Reaction is not read immediately after rotation |
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Many structures of bacteria can convey antigenic specificity. These are known as ________.
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epitopes or determinant sites
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(T/F) All IgG antibodies cause direct RBC agglutination
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False
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Indirect agglutination requires the addition of what to cause agglutination?
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Anti-human IgG (AHG)
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When both antigen and antibody are soluble, the precipitation reaction can be converted to a agglutination reaction by attaching one of these to a _________.
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latex bead
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In reverse passive agglutination, the unknown in the patient serum is the (antigen/antibody).
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Antigen
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In reverse passive agglutination, the (antigen/antibody) is attached to the latex bead
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antibody
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In passive agglutination, the (antigen/antibody) is attached to the latex bead
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antigen
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In direct immunofluorescence, ______ is attached to the antibody
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fluoroscein
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In direct immunofluorescence, the antibody is ______, while the antigen is ______.
(soluble or particulate) |
soluble, particulate
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Fluoroscein emits absorbed energy at a wavelength ______ (longer or shorter) than the wavelength of the light
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longer
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Indirect immunofluorescence is also known as the ______ technique
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sandwich
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In indirect immunofluorescence, ________ must be attached to the slide. After the patient's serum is added to the slide and incubated/rinsed, _______ is added.
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a known antigen, fluoroscein labeled antihuman IgG
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What is a conjugate?
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A labeled antibody
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The function of the bursal equivalent
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to teach lymphocytes how to differentiate self from non-self and respond with Ab production
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Educated B-cells are also known as
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immunocompetent B-cells
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The antigen independent phase of maturation occurs as B-cells mature in the ___________.
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bone marrow
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90% of B cells never leave the marrow. Why?
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It is hypothesized that this is part of eliminating autoantibody producing B cells
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The antigen dependent phase of maturation occurs when B cells _________.
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leave the marrow
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In order for precursor B-cells to mature, they must be in direct contact with _______ in the bone marrow
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stromal cells
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When a B-cell encounters the appropriate antigen in lymphoid tissue, it does what?
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undergoes clonal expansion and generates both plasma and memory cells
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When a B-cell initially leaves the marrow, it has membrane bound _______.
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IgM and IgD
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How many antigens can membrane bound immunoglobulins on "inexperienced" B-cells react with?
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Only one; this specificity is genetically determined
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(T/F) T-cell independent antigen responses by B-cells comprise the majority of B-cell activity
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False, T-cells are required for most B-cell responses (~95%)
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What types of antigens are able to produce T-cell independent B-cell responses?
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usually lipid rich, such as bacterial cell walls
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T-cell independent B-cells responses are limited to what immunoglobulin class?
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IgM
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(T/F) Memory cells are not produced in the T-cell independent B-cell response
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True
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The majority of antigenic B-cell responses are T-cell ________ (independent/dependent).
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dependent
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T-cell dependent B-cell responses require what for the antigenic response to occur?
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cytokine input
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In addition to T-cell assistance, most B-cell responses require what?
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involvement of antigen presenting cells
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The activated T-cell stimulates the B-cell by _______ and _______.
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helper factors, membrane contact
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What is clonal restriction?
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B-cell clones are capable of recognizing only a limited number of antigen stimuli
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What type of molecule is an immunoglobulin?
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glycoprotein
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What is the function of an antibody?
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To bind specifically to antigens and initiate a variety of actions that enhance elimination of antigens
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The predominant immunoglobulin class in mammalian circulation
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IgG
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The _____ chain determines the class of immunoglobulin
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heavy
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List the characteristic heavy chain for the following immunoglobulin classes: IgA, IgD, IgE, IgM, IgG
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IgA: alpha
IgD: delta IgE: epsilon IgM: mu IgG: gamma |
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What are the two types of antibody light chains?
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kappa, lambda
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(T/F) A single B-cell can produce both kappa and lambda light chains
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False, a B-cell can produce only one of these
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Chains of immunoglobulins are held together by what two forces?
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non-covalent forces, covalent interchain disulfide bones
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Papain digestion breaks immunoglobulins into ____ fragments.
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3 (2 FAB and 1 Fc)
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What portion of an immunoglobulin actually binds the antigen?
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The hypervariable region of the FAB (Fragment antigen binding region)
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The amino acid sequence is uniform in all IgG in the _____ region. However, this region is different between immunoglobulin classes.
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Fc
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The hinge region between constant heavy chain 1 and constant heavy chain 2 allows what?
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The hinge allows the immunoglobulin to change shape, permitting it to bind to two antigen sites that are separated by distance
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Light chains have _____ domains, while heavy chains have _______ domains.
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2, 4 or 5
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IgG makes up _____ of total serum immunoglobulins
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75%
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IgG is the predominant immunoglobulin of ________ response, while IgM is the predominant immunoglobulin of ______ response.
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secondary, primary
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The only immunoglobulin that is able to cross the placental barrier is _____. This occurs by _______.
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IgG, active transport
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IgG occurs in equal concentration in ______ and ______.
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serum, tissue spaces
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Which IgG is unable to activate complement?
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IgG 4
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The Fc portion of IgE is able to bind to receptors on _____ cells.
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mast
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IgM is composed of ____ structural units held together by ______ and a ______.
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5, disulfide chains, joining chain
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IgM tends to be restricted to ______.
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serum
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_____ is thought to assist naive B-cells in recognition of the appropriate antigen.
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IgM (and IgD)
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IgE is mostly found on ______ and _____.
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tissue mast cells, basophils
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IgE is found where?
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in the skin, respiratory tract, gut and tissue surrounding small blood vessels
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IgE binds to _______ and ______.
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allergens, parasites
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____ is commonly found on the surface of naive B cells along with IgM
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IgD
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IgA _____ (is/is not) able to activate complement
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is not
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What is the chief antigen presenting cell of the lamina propria?
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dendritic cell
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What structure does serum IgA have?
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monomer, dimer, timer
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_____ is the predominant Ig produced by B cells in Peyer's patches, tonsils and oter submucosal lymphoid tissue
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IgA
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_______ allow IgA to form dimers and trimers
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Joining chains
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Many people (around 1/700) have antibodies to the _____ immunoglobulin, which can lead to a transfusion reaction.
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IgA
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______ is the predominant immunoglobulin of colostrum
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IgA
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_____ is equally present in the tissue spaces and the serum
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IgG
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______ is usually attached to tissue basophils and mast cells
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IgE
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