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280 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Why are penicillins practically ideal antibiotics
active against a variety of bacteria and toxicity is low
Principal adverse effect of penicillin
allergic reaction
what family of antibiotics do penicillin and cephalosporins belong
beta-lactams
Which of the following bacteria is Penicillin G inactive against
gram-negative bacilli
What serious adverse effect may occur when large IV doses of potassium penicillin G are administered rapidly
hyperkalemia - possibly causing dysrhythmias and even cardiac arrest
what percent of patients who recieve penicillins experience an allergic reaction
0.4%-0.7%
Describe anaphylaxis? What is the primary treatment?
laryngeal edema, bronchoconstriction, severe hypotension

epinephrine
if a petient has experienced an intense allergic reaction to penicillin in the past does this mean that an intense reaction will occur again
no
if any patient is ordered penicillin, what question should be asked?
if they have a penicillin allergy
For patients who have a history of mild allergic reaction to penicillins what may be used as an appropriate alternative
cephalosporins (if allergic reaction was mild)
what unit of measurement is used to meausre a dose of penicillin G
units
What is most common side effect of ampicillin
Rash and diarrhea
what is more stable in stomach acid, amoxicillin or ampicillin
amoxicillin
How do penicillins kill bacteria
by weakening the bacterial cell wall
what is not same administration time as penicillin
gentamicin
What has 4 generations
cephalosporins
most common allergic reaction to cephalosporins
maculopapoular rash
when will the reaction to cephalsoporins occur
several days after the onset
How frequently is vancomycin used? why?
only for severe infections

because it is a potentially toxic drug
Three principal indication for vancomycin?
antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis, infection with MRSA and treatment of serious infection with susceptible organisms in patients allergic to penicillins
For most infections by what route is vancomycin given? why?
parenterally (by slow IV infusion) because absorption from the GI tract is poor
what is the only reason vancomycin would be given by the oral route?
infection of the intestine
What adverse effect at the IV site is common with vancomycin? How can it be minimized?
Thrombophlebitis; by administering vancomycin in dilute solution and by changing the infusion site frequently
can patients allergic to penicillins be given vancomycin?
yes because they don't show cross-reactivity
name 5 things that should not be tken at the same time as oral tetracycline because insoluble metal compunds (chelates) may form and decrease absorption
calcium supplements
milk products
iron supplements
magnesium-containing laxative
antacids
Why are tetracyclines contraindicated for use by pregnant women and children under 8 years?
teeth discoloration
What is the most common result of photosensitivity when taking tetracycline? how should patients be advised?
exaaggerated sunburn

to avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight, wear protective clothing and apply a sunscreen to exposed skin
What action should be taken in regards to administering tetracyclines to avoid drug interaction with chelates?
should be administered at least 2 hours before or 2 hours after ingestion of chelating agents
how common is erythromycin used
treatment of first choise for several infections
name 4 gastrointestinal disturbances that are the most common adverse effect of erythromycin?
epigastric pain, nausea, vomiting and diarrhea
Describe the most severe adverse reactions with clindamycin?
antibiotic-associated Pseudomembranous Colitis. Characterized by profuse, watery diarrhea (10-20 watery stools per day) abdominal pain, fever and leukocytosis
Name 2 serious injuries that aminoglycosides can cause
inner ear and kidney
3 of the most commonly used aminoglycosides
gentamicin, amikacin and tobramycin
Why are the inner ear and kidney vulnerable to aminoglycoside toxicity?
because aminoglycosides become concentrated w/in cells of these structures
Thiazide Diuretic, Frequently used in combination preparations
hydrochlorothiazide
Loop Diuretic, great diuresis, uncommon use in chronic hypertension
furosemide (Lasix)
Betablocker, widely used antihypertensive drug
metroprolol (Lopressor)
Alpha blocker, increased orthostatic hypotension
doxazosin
Centrally Acting, work in brainstem
clonidine
Calcium Channel Blockers, use cautiously in bradycardia, heart failure
amlodipine
ACE Inhibitors, persistent cough, less effective in African Americans than White Americans
lisinopril
Direct Acting Vasodilator, used for hypertensive emergencies
nitroprusside (Nipride)
What pharmacologic class of drugs has been shown to have the best response for hypertension in African Americans and therefore are the drugs of first choice?
Controlled trials have shown that diuretics can decrease morbidity and mortality in blacks. Accordingly, diuretics are drugs of first choice.
What pharmacologic classes of antihypertensive drugs has been shown to be least effective in African Americans?
Monotherapy with beta blockers or ACE inhibitors is less effective in blacks than in whites.
The ultimate goal in treating hypertension is to
to reduce cardiovascular and renal morbidity and mortality
What happens when nitroglycerin is administered orally?
Most of each dose is destroyed on its first pass through the liver
What other drugs can nitroglycerin intensify the effects of therefore care should be exercised
Other hypotensive agents
Where is nitroglycerin ointment applied? Is there any advantage to applying nitroglycerin directly over the heart
The ointment is applied to the skin of the chest, back, abdomen, or anterior thigh. Since nitroglycerin works by dilating peripheral veins, there is no mechanistic advantage to applying topical nitroglycerin directly over the heart.
digoxin is expected to have a positive inotropic effect? what does that mean?
increased force of ventricular contraction
what does high fiber foods do to digoxin
it decreases the effectiveness significantly
how frequently should serum digoxin levels be scheduled to be checks if they had been normal/ in range?
annually
3 most common GI affects of digoxin?
anorexia, nausea and vomiting
how does monitoring and reporting common GI and CNS side effects reduce the risk of developing more the serious side effects of dysrhythmias
since adverse affects on these symptoms frequently precede development of dysrhthmias, they can provide advance warning of more serious toxicity
2 frequent CNS effects from digoxin
fatique
visual disturbance such as blurred vision, yellow tinge, arrpearance of halos around dark objects
most seriou adverse effect of digoxin
dysrhythmias
Because serious dysrhythmias are a potiential consequence of digoxin therapy, what should be frequently evaluated on all patients
change in heart rate and rhythm
in digoxin levels when might additional measurements be useful
digoxin dose is changed
symptoms of heart
kidney function deteriorates
signs of toxicity appears
drugs that can effect digoxin levels are added to or deleted from the regimen
before giving digoxin what would you do?
assess apical pulse for one full minute
when would you withhold the dose of digoxin and notify the physician?
if the heart rate is less than 60 bpm or if a change in rhythm is detected
how is the effectiveness of hypertension treatment evaluated?
monitor BP periodically. Goal is to reduce it to less than 140/90
for first dianosis of hypertension what would you use?
hydrochorothiazide only
higher risk of anaphylactic reaction
penicillins
caution with penicillin allergy
cephalsporins
photosensitvity, staining of developing teeth
tetracycline
drug/drug interaction - cardiac side effects
erythromycin
high risk of c. diff with prolonged use
clindamycin
ototoxicity, permanent chochlear and vestibular damage
gentamicin
drug/drug interaction - potentiative
timethroprim/sulfamethoxazole
severe reaction with alcohol
metronidazole
necrosis possible at IV site
vancomycin
rebound congestion with prolonged use
nasal sprays
dose may be meausred in units
penicillin
improvements with new generations
cephalsporins
not with dairy/antacids/metal ions
tetracycline
safe alternative if pencillin allergy
erythromycin
caution patient about diarrhea
clindamycin
not same adminstration time as penicillin
gentamicin
oral dose not absorbed, treats intestines
vancomycin
given PRN in cough, medication
codeine
Describe red person syndrome, when does it occur, how is it prevented?
flushing, rash, pruritus, urticaria, tachycardia, and hypotension

result from release of histamine

by infusing vancomycin slowly (over 60 min. or more)
why can oral vancomycin be given to patients with renal impairment?
because it is not absorbed from the GI tract
what are cephalosporins
beta-lactam antibiotics that weaken the bacterial cell wall, causing lysis and death
what are the major cause of cephalosporin resistance
production of beta-lactamases
Why has the use of tetracycline, broad spectrum antibiotics, declined
because of the resistance and because antibiotics have greater selectivity and less toxicity are now available
by what 2 routes are tetracyclines used to treat acne
topically and orally
when combined with metronidazole and bismuth subsalicylate, what else is tetracycline used to treat
H. pylori
Brand name of clarithromycin
Biaxin
Brand name of azithromycin
Zithromax
How commonly is clindamycin currently used? Why?
limited use because it can promote severe antibiotic-associated colitis, a condition that can be fatal
Damage to what part of the ear causes impairment of hearing?
sensory hair cells in the cochlea
Darmage to what part of the ear causes disruption of balance?
sensory hair of the vestibular apparatus
What is the risk of ototoxicity in aminoglycosides primarily related to?
excessive trough levels
Define trough level
lowest level between doses and occurs just prior to administering the next dose
What is responsible for the nephrotoxicity associated with aminoglycosides? how significant is the interpatient variation with aminoglycoside therapy?
levels in the kidney being 50 times higher than levels in serum; it must be individualized because of the variability among patients
What other antibiotic is combined with aminoglycosides frequently to enhance bacterial kill?
penicillin
why is aminoglycosides and penicillin combination effective
because penicillin disrupts the cell wall and thereby facilitate access of aminoglycosides to their site of action
what drug interaction may occur when penicillin is combined with aminoglycosides?
when penicillin is present in high concentrations it can inactive aminoglycosides by direct chemical interaction
how can the chemcial interaction between penicillin and aminoglycosides when combined be avoided
they should not be mixed together in the same IV solution
what other 2 antibiotics besides penicillin be combined with aminoglycosides to enhance bacterial kill
cephalosporins and vancomycin
traditionally what has been the dosing schedule for aminoglycosides
divided doses given at equally spaced intervals around the clock
what doses schedule is common today in aminoglycosides
total daily dose all at once
what provides the best basis for adjusting aminoglycoside dosage
monitoring serum drug levels
What is the principal advantage of gentamicin over the other majuor aminoglycosides
when resistance is not a problem in the hospital, gentamicin is prefrred because it is cheaper
in hospitals when is amikacin the preferred agent
when the resistance to gentamicin and tobramycin is common
what important uses do the sulfonamides still have
UTI
how do sulfonamides suppress bacterial growth
inhibiting synthesis of folic acid a compound required by all cells to synthesize DNA, RNA and proteins
for what opportunistic infection, which thrives in immunocompromised hosts, is TMP/SMZ the treatment of choice
UTI, otitis media, bronchitis, shigellosis and pneumonia
when TMP/SMZ is given to aids patients what may occure
produces high incidence of adverse effects
what is the incidence of adverse effects (rash, recurrent fever, leukopenia) of TMP/SMZ in patients suffering from AIDS?
55%
What are the majority of uncomplicated community - acquired UTI's are caused by
Escherichia coli
how many hospital acquired UTIs are caused by E. coli
less than 50%
in what instances would it be more likely that a urinary infection was caused by multiple organisms
patients with indwelling catheter, renal stones or chronic renal abscesses
What are the traditional agents of choice for UTIs
Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
where resistance to UTIs with Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole exists what drugs are a good alternative
Fluroquinolones
how wide a spectrum of activity do fluoroquinolones have
broad spectrum
what can be said about the safety and chance of microbial resistance with fluroquinolones
side effects are generally mild, resistance develops slowly
brand name of ciprofloxacin
Cipro
2 routes can ciprofloxacin be administered
PO and IV
because of concerns about tendon injury for what age group is systemic ciprofloxacin generally avoided
children under 18 years old
Brand name of Metronidazole
Flagyl, Protostat
For what suprainfection is metronidazole considered a drug of choice
C. difficile
for what prophylaxis is metronidazole used for
in surgical procedures associated with a high risk of infection by anaerobes (eg. colorectal surgery, abdominal and vaginal surgery)
for what disease is metronidazole used in combination with a tetracycline and bismuth subsalicylate
PUD
seasonal rhinitis occur
occurs in spring and fall
perennial rhinitis occur
nonseasonal
3 symptoms of allergic rhinitis can antihistamines relieve
sneezing, rhinorrhea and nasal itching
what symptoms will not be relieved by antihistamines
nasal congestion
what adverse effect is the most frequent complaint about antihistamines
sedation
What is rebound congestion
develops when topical agents are used more than a few days. With prolonged use, as the effects of each application wear off, congestion becomes progessively worse
what route leads to rebound congestion: oral or topical
topical
when should coughs be considered beneficial and not be suppressed
cough is beneficial to remove foreign matter and excess secretions from the bronchial tree; producitve cough is characteristic of chronic lung disease and should be suppressed
What is the name of the therapeutic class of drugs that suppress cough
antihussives
name 2 opioids used most often for cough suppression
codeine and hydrocodone
name the most effective cough suppressant available
codeine
what effect does codeine have on a cough
can decrease the frequency and intensity of the cough
how does the doses recommended in codeine for a cough compare with the dose needed to relieve pain
doses are low, about 1/10 those needed to relieve pain
Why is the routine use of antibiotics not justified in the treatment of colds
because colds are caused by viruses, there is no justification for the routine use of antibiotics
name 5 agents that are commonly used in combination over the counter cold remedies
nasal decongestant
anti-tussive
analgesic
antihistamine
caffeine
why is caffeine included in over the counter cold remedies
to offset the sedative effects of the antihistamine
define angina pectoris
a sudden pain beneath the sternum, often radiating to the left shoulder and arm
what precipitates anginal pain
oxygen supply to the heart is insufficient to meet oxygen demand
name 4 factors that determine cardiac oxygen demand
heart rate
contractility
preload
afterload
what is the cardiac oxygen supply determined by
myocardial blood flow
What is another name for stable angina
exertional angina or angina of effort
name four things that may trigger or precipate an anginal attack
physical activity
emotional excitement
large meals
cold exposure
what is the underlying cause of exertional angina
coronary artery disease (CAD) a condition characterized by deposition of fatty plaque in the arterial wall
non drug therapy for stable angina
avoid over exertion
avoid heavy meals
avoid emotional stress
avoid exposure to cold
what is the cause of variant angina
coronary artery spasm, which restricts blood flow to the myocardium
in contrast to stable angina, when does pain occur with variant angina
at any time even during rest and sleep
in contrast to stable angina, how is the variant angina treated
increasing cardiac oxygen supply
how do organic nitrates relieve angina
relieve angina by causing vasodilation
what is the drug of choice for treating acute anginal attacks
nitroglycerin
in stable angina which vessels are primarily affected by nitroglycerin which resuls in pain relief
peripheral blood vessels
how does nitroglycerin decreses the pain of exertional angina
by decreasing cardiac oxygen demand.
what happens when nitroglycerin is adminstered orally
most of each dose is destroyed on its first pass through the liver
why can nitroglycerin be given by so many uncommon routes
it is highly lipid soluble and crosses membranes with ease
3 principle adverse effects of nitroglycerin
headache
hypotension
tachycardia
when is severe headache most likely during nitroglycerin therapy? how long does this condition last
initial therapy
diminshes over the first few weeks of treatment
what other drugs can nitroglycerin intensify the effects of therefore care should be exercised
hypotensive drugs
What should be done to prevent tolerance to nitrates
use in lowest effective dosages; long-acting forumlations should be used on an intermittant schedule that allows at least 8 drug free hours every day, usually at night
how can tolerance of nitrates be reversed
by withholding for a short time
Name the three forms of nitroglycerin used to abort an ongoing anginal attack and to provide prophylaxis in anticipation of exertion
sublingual tablets, transmucosal tablets, translingual spray
Name the four forms of nitroglycerin used for sustained prophylaxis against angina
transdermal patches, topical ointment, transmucosal tablets and sustained release oral capsules
What other drugs can nitroglycerin intensify the effects of therefore care should be exercised
Other hypotensive agents
Where is nitroglycerin ointment applied? Is there any advantage to applying nitroglycerin directly over the heart?
The ointment is applied to the skin of the chest, back, abdomen, or anterior thigh. Since nitroglycerin works by dilating peripheral veins, there is no mechanistic advantage to applying topical nitroglycerin directly over the heart.
Since nitroglycerin tablets are chemically unstable and can lose effectiveness over time, how are they stored?
Shelf life can be prolonged by storing tablets in a tightly closed, dark container
What will be the result if a patient swallowed the nitroglycerin tablet that was supposed to be placed under the tongue?
Nitroglycerin tablets formulated for sublingual we are ineffective if swallowed.
list 4 characteristics of heart failure
ventricular dysfunction
reduced cardiac output
insufficient tissue perfusion
signs of fluid retention
list three things that digoxin can do when used for heart failure?
can reduce symptoms, increase exercise tolerance and decrease hospitalizations
what mechanical effect does digoxin exert on the heart
positive inotropic action on the heart
define positive inotropic action. Also think: what would be definition of negative inotropic action?
the drug increases the force of ventricular contraction and can thereby increases cardiac output
in patients with heart failure what does increased myocardial contractility increases
cardiac output
how does a reduced heart rate effect ventricular filling
it allows a more complete ventricular filling
how does increased cardiac output affect urine production
the increase in cardiac output increases renal blood flow, and thereby increases production of urine
what is the most serious adverse effect of digoxin
dyshythmias
because serious dysrhythmias are a potential consequence of digoxin therapy what should be frequently evaluated on all patients
all patients should be evaluated frequently for changes in heart rate and rhythm
what should outpatients be taught to monitor and report
monitor their pulses and instructed to report any significant changes in rate or regularity
what is the most common cause of dysrhythmas in patients receiving digoxin
hypokalemia secondary to the use of diuretics
because low potassium can precipitate dysrhythmias, what is imperative
it is imperative that serum potassium levels be kept w/in a normal range
what is one symptom of hypokalemia that a patient should be taught to look for and notify their physician
muscle weakness
what is an important implication of digoxin having a nrrow therapeutic range
drug levels only slightly higher than therapeutic greatly increase the risk of toxicity
3 most common GI affects of digoxin
anorexia
nausea
vomiting
what are the 2 frequent CNS effects from digoxin
visual disturbances
fatique
how does monitoring and reporting common GI and CNS side effects reduce the risks of developing the serious side effect of dysrhythmias
since adverse effects on these symptoms frequently precede development of dysrhythmias, symptoms involving the GI tract and CNS can provide advance warning of more serious toxicity, accordingly patients should be taught to recognize these effects and instructed to notify the prescriber if they occur
name 2 drugs that can significantly raise serum digoxin levels
thiazide diuretics and loop diuretics
how do meals high in fiber affect the bioavailability of digoxin
decreases absorption significantly
name 4 things knowledge of serum digoxin levels is used for
establishing dosage
monitoring compliance
diagnosing toxicity
determining the cause of therapeutic failure
how offen are routine serum digoxin levels recommended once a stable blood level has been achieved
annual measuremement
when might additional measurement be useful in digoxin
dosage change
symptoms of Heart failure intensify
kidney function deteriorates
signs of toxicity appear
drugs that can affect digoxin levels are added to or deleted from the regimen
what form of digoxin is inside capsules of Lanoxicaps (perhaps accounting for the greater absorption)
solution
what route of administration of digoxin shuld be avoided
intramuscular adminstration
when should administration of digoxin be withheld
if HR is less than 60 bpm, or if a change in rhythm is detected
define digitalization
refers to the use of a loading dose to achieve high plasma levels of digoxin quickly
if left untreated, what can hypertension lead to?
heart disease
kidney disease
stroke
can hypertension be cured? how does this factor affect treatment?
cannot be cured only symptoms can be reduced

treatment must continue lifelong, making nonadherence a significant problem
normal BP
< 120 / 80
prehypertension BP
systolic 120-139
diastolic 80-89
hypertension BP
systolic above 140
diastolic above 90
stage 1 hypertension BP
systolic 140-159
diastolic 90-99
stage 2 hypertension BP
systolic > or equal 160
diastolic > or equal to 100
2 broad categories of hypertension
primary (essential) hypertension - no identifable cause; chronic progessive disorder

secondary hypertension - brought on by a primary cause/ may be possible to treat
what will happen if patients with high BP do not get treatment
can lead to heart disease, heart failure, angina, kidney disease and stroke
who is at a greater risk of hypertension
older people
african american & Mexican Americans
obese people
postmenopausal women
how long does treatment for high BP last
treatment must continue lifelong
when is drug therapy used to treat secondary hypertension
if it is not possible to treat the cause, or a cure isn't possible, it can be managed with the same drugs used for primary hypertension
what is the treatment goal for most patients with stage 1 / stage 2 hypertension
to maintain BP below 140/90
what intervention is needed for people with prehypertension
lifestyle changes
what intervention is needed for people with hypertension - either stage 1 or 2
a combination of lifestyle changes and drugs
identify 3 benefits of lifestyle modications in the management of chronic hypertension
lower BP
thereby decreasing the need for drugs
decreases other cardiovascular risk factors
7 components for lifestyle changes for hypertension
weight loss
sodium restriction
The DASH diet (dietary approcahes to stop hypertension) eating plans
alcohol restrictions
aerobic exercies
smoking cessation
maintenance of potassium and calcium intake
what should be included in the DASH eating plan? what should be avoided
diets in rich in fruits, low fat dairy products and low in total fat, saturated fats and cholestrol

the plan encourages intake of whole grain products, fish, poultry, and nuts, and recommends minimal intake of red meat and sweets
what 2 factors produce arterial pressure? what happens if either one of these factors increases?
cardiac output and peripheral resistance

an increase in either will increase BP
list four factors that influence cardiac output
heart rate
myocardial contractility (force of contraction)
blood volume
venous return
which of the four cardiac fractors do drugs such as beta blockers, verapamil and diltiazem affect
decreases heart rate and contractile force
which of the four cardiac factors do diurectics affect
decrease in blood volume
which of the four cardiac do drugs classified as venodilators affect
venous return
what type of drugs can reduce blood BP by decreasing peripheral vascular resistance
drugs that promote arteriole dilation
list the five ways drugs can lower BP
reducing heart rate
myocardial contractility
blood volume
venous return
tone of arteriolar smooth muscle
what class of diuretics are among tghe most commonly used antihypertensive drugs
thiazide diruetics
identify the 2 mechanism by which thiazides reduce blood pressure
reduction of blood volume and reduction of arterial resistance
what is the principal adverse effect of thiazides
hypokalemia
why are high-ceiling (loop) diuretics not used routinely for most individuals with chronic hypertension
for chronic hypertension, the amount of fluid loss that loop diuretics can produce is greater than needed or desirable
what is the brand name of furosemide
Lasix
How much of a hypotensive effect do potassium-sparing diuretics have?
modest hypotensive effects, degree of diuresis is small
how widely are the beta blockers used to treat hypertension
among the most widely used anithypertensive drugs
for what population of patientsw are beta blockers are less effective
african americans
list the adverse effects beta blockers have on the following factors and the treatment recommendation for related groups of patients
heart - bradycardia
lungs - promote bronchoconstriction
blood glucose - mask the signs of hypoglycemia
mental status and sexual function - depression, insomnia, bizare dreams and sexual dysfunction
what is the mechanism of action of alpha 1 blockers
prevent stimulation of alpha 1 recepters on arterioles and veins, thereby preventing sympathetically mediated vasoconstriction. The resultant reduces both peripheral resistance and venous return to the heart
what is the band name of doxazosin
Cardura
What is the most disturbing side effect of alpha blockers?
orthostatic hypotension
what is the mechanism of action that are both alpha and beta blockers
blocks stimulation of beta 1 (myocardial) and beta 2 (pulmonary, vascular, and uterine) - adrenergic receptor sites. Also has alpha 1 - adrenergic blocking activity, which may result in more orthostatic hypotension
Brand name of labetalol
Trandate
what is the mechanism of action of Centrally activing Alpha 2 agonists
act w/in the brainstem to suppress sympathetic outflow to the heart and blood vessels. The result is vasodilation and reduced cardiac output, both of which helps lower BP
Brand name of clonidine
Catapres, Catapres - TTS, Duracion
Brand name of methyldopa
Aldomet
What is the mechanism of action of direct acting vasodilators
promoting dilation of arterioles
brand name of hydralazine
Apresoline
what side effects is minimal because direct-acting vasodilators do not cause significant dilation of veins
orthostatic hypotension
what is the mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers
promote dilation of arterioles
What does the abbreviation ACE mean
angiotensin-converting enzyme
what is the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors
preventing the formation of angiotensin II and thereby prevent angiotensin II - mediated vasoconstriction and aldosterone - mediated volume expansion
for what population of patients are ACE inhibitors less effective
african americans
name four principal adverse effects of ACE inhibitors
peristent cough
1st dose hypotension
angioedema
hyperkalemia
what is the mechanism of action of angiotensin II receptor blockers
works like ACE inhibitors, prevent angiotensin II - mediated vasoconstriction and release of adlosterone, block the actions of angiotensin II
what is the small difference between the action of angiotensin II receptor blockers and ACE inhibitors
ARBs block the actions of angiotensin II, whereas ACE inhibitors block the formation of angiotensin II
brand name of hydralazine
Apresoline
brand name of losartan
Cozaar
what side effects is minimal because direct-acting vasodilators do not cause significant dilation of veins
orthostatic hypotension
what is the mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers
promote dilation of arterioles
What does the abbreviation ACE mean
angiotensin-converting enzyme
what is the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors
preventing the formation of angiotensin II and thereby prevent angiotensin II - mediated vasoconstriction and aldosterone - mediated volume expansion
for what population of patients are ACE inhibitors less effective
african americans
name four principal adverse effects of ACE inhibitors
peristent cough
1st dose hypotension
angioedema
hyperkalemia
what is the mechanism of action of angiotensin II receptor blockers
works like ACE inhibitors, prevent angiotensin II - mediated vasoconstriction and release of adlosterone, block the actions of angiotensin II
what is the small difference between the action of angiotensin II receptor blockers and ACE inhibitors
ARBs block the actions of angiotensin II, whereas ACE inhibitors block the formation of angiotensin II
brand name of losartan
Cozaar
What is the mechanism of action of aldosterone antagonists
lower BP by promoting renal excretion of sodium and water
what is the first approach to treating hypertension
lifestyle changes
what is the next step if lifestyle fail to lower BP enough
drug therapy with lifestyle changes
what does drug treament often begin with for lowering BP
a single drug
what are 2 reasons a second drug may be added to or substituted for the initial drug to help in treating hypertension
if the intial drug was tolerated but inadequate, or the inital drug was poorly tolerated
what are 4 reasons the intial drug may have been inadequate that should be explored before anohte drug is considered to help with treating hypertension
insufficient dosage
poor adherence
excessive salt intake
presence of secondary hypertension
how many different drugs may be used if treatment for hypertension with 2 drugs is unsuccessful
up to 4
name 2 conditions that are especially problematic with hypertension
renal disease and diabetes
for what population of people is hypertension a major halth problem
African American
What pharmacologic clss of drugs has been shown to have the best responses for hypertension in AFrican Americans and therefore are the drugs of first choice?
diuretics
what pharmacologic classes of antihypertensive drugs has been shown to be least effective in African Americans
monotherapy with beta blockers orACE inhibitors
what antihypertensive drugs are generally preferred in older adults
beta blockers and diuretcis
Name 3 side effects that antihypertensive drugs can produce
hypotension
sedation
sexual dysfunction
the best way to identify unacceptable responses to antihypertensive drugs
encourage the pateint to report them
list 5 ways to promote adherence to hypertension treatment
patient education
teach self monitoring
minimize side effects
establish a collaborative relationship
simplify the regimen
define hypertensive emergency
when diastolic BP exceeds 120 mm Hg. The everity of the emergency is dedtermined by the likelihood of organ damage
What is usually the drug of first choice for acute severe hypertension
nitroprusside (Nitropress)
What route is nitroprusside
IV
What is nitroprusside mechanism
a direct acting vasodilator that relaxes smooth muscle of arterioles and veins
how fast is the onset and how long is the duration of nitroprusside
begins in seconds and then fades rapidly when administration ceases
define hypertension
greater than 140/90
what is the blood pressure goal of antihypertensive therapy
to decrease morbidity and mortality w/out decreasing the quality of life
What pharmacologic class of drugs are preferrred drugs for inital therapy of uncomplicated hypertension
thiazide diuretics
what is the major cause of treatment failure for antihypertensive therapy
lack of pt adherence