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77 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which of the following is/are true?
1. Stem cell growth factor (SCF) is used to stimulate progenitor cells for transplant 2. Interleukin 11 may cause edema and blurred vision 3. Erythropoietin has been shown to constrict small arterioles and may increase the risk for MI and stroke 4. SCF and GM-CSF would selectively increase basophiles, granulocytes and eosinophils A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the choices are correct F = None of the choices are correct |
A = 1,2,3
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Sargramostim (GM-CSF)
a. Has actions only on mature granulocytes and macrophages b. Doubles the life span of neutrophils c. Increases the releases of stem cells from bone marrow into blood d. Enhances superoxide production in macrophages e. A and C are correct f. B and D are correct |
f. B and D are correct
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Filgastim (G-CSF)
a. Enhances chemotaxis of mature neutrophils b. Is indicated for treatment of Hairy cell leukemia c. Reduces maturation time for immature neutrophils d. May produce alopecia and severe bone pain e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
e. All of the choices are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Metaplasia refers to the adaptive substitution of one cell type for another b. A major characteristic of neoplasia is immortalization c. Benign tumors are usually localized and encapsulated d. The “clone-ogenic” tumor cell theory suggests that even a single tumor cell not killed during therapy can cause the tumor to return e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
e. All of the choices are correct
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Which of the following is/are true about the Gompertzian model of cancer cell growth?
a. Cell kill is first order meaning a constant number of cells are killed with each treatment b. Symptoms usually appear with a tumor size of 1012 cells c. Tumor cell growth rates are significantly decreased between treatments d. Killing 99.9% of tumor cells is the desired therapeutic endpoint e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
f. None of the choices are correct
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Which of the following is/are true about the cell cycle?
a. Go is the phase where nucleotides are synthesized b. Paclitaxel is M phase specific c. Carmustine is S phase specific d. P-53 gene activity controls cells passage from G2 to M phase e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
b. Paclitaxel is M phase specific
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Alkylating agents
1. Are mutagenic, carcinogenic and teratogenic 2. All cause significant bone marrow suppression 3. All irreversibly bind to DNA 4. May cause abnormal base pairings in DNA A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the choices are correct F = None of the choices are correct |
E = All of the choices are correct
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Cyclophosphamide
a. Spontaneously breaks down into phosphoramide and acrolein a toxic metabolite b. Acrolein causes pulmonary fibrosis c. Is effective in breast, lung and testicular tumors d. Is highly lipophilic and easily enters the brain e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
c. Is effective in breast, lung and testicular tumors
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Which of the following is/are true about Alkylating agents?
a. Mechlorethamine binds adjacent guanine molecules in the same strand of DNA b. Melphalan is used to destroy bone marrow in preparation for bone marrow transplants c. Dacarbazine is used mainly for breast, lung and testicular tumors d. Temozolomide is the drug of choice for malignant gliomas e. A and C are correct f. B and D are correct |
f. B and D are correct
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Methotrexate
a. Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase b. Is actively transported into cancer cells with a higher affinity that normal cells c. Is teratogenic d. Bone marrow toxicity and kidney toxicity can be limited by administration of leucovorin e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
e. All of the choices are correct
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Which of the following is/are true about Alkylating agents?
a. Carmustine is not effective In brain tumors because it doesn’t cross the blood brain barrier b. Lomustine is enzymatically converted into MTIC which is the active agent c. Cisplatin may cause significant renal toxicity which can be limited by Amifostine administration d. Carboplatin produces severe nausea and vomiting and limited bone marrow suppression e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
c. Cisplatin may cause significant renal toxicity which can be limited by Amifostine administration
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Which of the following is/are true about pyrimidine analogs?
a. 5-Fluorouracil produced the first cure of a solid tumor b. Cytarabine inhibits DNA polymerase because it consists of cytosine combined with d- Arabinose. c. Gemcitabine may cause sensory problems with hands and feet (sock and glove syndrome) d. 5-Fluorouracil use is limited to metastatic pancreatic cancer e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
b. Cytarabine inhibits DNA polymerase because it consists of cytosine combined with d- Arabinose.
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6-Mercaptopurine
a. Is converted into thio-inosine monophosphate which inhibits adenosine and guanine synthesis b. Is used exclusively for solid tumors (lung, breast, testicular) c. Is contraindicated for use with Allopurinol because it increases toxicity d. Dosing is limited by severe bone marrow suppression e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
a. Is converted into thio-inosine monophosphate which inhibits adenosine and guanine synthesis
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Which of the following is/are true about antibiotic tumor agents?
a. They inhibit Topoisomerase II and intercalate into DNA b. Daunorubicin is indicated for acute myelogenous leukemia c. Doxorubicin has a lifetime dose limit because of free radical induced myocardial cell damage d. Doxorubicin is a part of the ABVD regimen for Hodgkin’s disease e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
e. All of the choices are correct
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Bleomycin
a. Is G2 cell phase specific b. Is contraindicated in Hodgkin’s disease c. Has significant vesicant properties that can damage tissue when given outside a vein d. Cross-links DNA strands e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
a. Is G2 cell phase specific
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Which of the following is/are true of the Vinca alkaloids?
a. Vincristine dosing is limited by peripheral neuropathies b. Vinblastine may cause cranial nerve damage that causes jaw pain c. Vincristine blocks disassembly of tubulin microtubules d. Vinblastine causes minimal bone marrow suppression e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
a. Vincristine dosing is limited by peripheral neuropathies
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Which of the following is/are true about taxanes?
a. Paclitaxel increases tubulin polymerization b. Docetaxel is S phase specific c. Docetaxel produces less neuropathies and less severe hypersensitivity reactions compared to Paclitaxel d. They show limited effectiveness in breast cancer e. A and C are correct f. B and D are correct |
e. A and C are correct
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Etoposide
a. Inhibits activity of Topoisomerase 1 b. May induce alterations in chromosome 11 that leads to leukemia c. May cause liver damage d. Very useful for CNS tumors because of lipid solubility e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
b. May induce alterations in chromosome 11 that leads to leukemia
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Campothecins (Irinotecan, Topotecan)
a. Cause single strand DNA breaks by inhibiting Topoisomerase 1 b. Topotecan undergoes significant metabolism while Irinotecan is secreted in the urine c. Irinotecan causes more diarrhea than Topotecan d. They can suppress deep tendon reflexes e. A and C are correct f. B and D are correct |
e. A and C are correct
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Which of the following is/are true about the tyrosine kinase inhibitors?
a. Imatinib inhibits a tyrosine kinase responsible for myeloid cell proliferation in patients with BCR-ABL mutations b. Erlotnib is specific for epidermal growth factor HER2 (ErbB2) c. Lapatnib binds the tyrosine kinase receptor at the cell surface d. Gefitinib increases IkB and decreases NFkB e. Bortezumab is approved for metastatic breast cancer no longer sensitive to Trastuzumab f. None of the above are true |
a. Imatinib inhibits a tyrosine kinase responsible for myeloid cell proliferation in patients with BCR-ABL mutations
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Which of the following is/are true about biological response modifies?
a. Rituximab is specific for the CD 20 antigen expressed on 90% of non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas b. Trastuzumab specifically targets epidermal growth factor 2 (HER2, BrbB2) c. Almetuzumab is specific for the CD 52 antigen on T and B cell lymphomas d. Cetuximab targets the epidermal growth factor 1 receptor (HER, ErbB1) e. Bevacizumab is specific for vascular endothelial growth factor f. All of the above choices are correct |
f. All of the above choices are correct
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Which of the following is/are true about hormonal therapy?
a. Tamoxifen has positive estrogenic effects on bone and uterine smooth muscle, but block estrogen effects in breast tissue b. Fulvestrant is a selective estrogen receptor down regulator (SERD) c. Postmenopausal women with breast cancer should only be given aromatase inhibitors after treatment failure with Tamoxifen d. Exemesteme has positive estrogenic effects on bone in postmenopausal women e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
b. Fulvestrant is a selective estrogen receptor down regulator (SERD)
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Flutamide continuously occupies the LHRH receptor blocking release of FSH and LH b. Leuprolide should not be used in combination with androgen receptor blockers c. Goserelin selectively blocks the testosterone receptor d. Aldesleukin stimulates Lymphokine activated killer cells and natural killer cells e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
d. Aldesleukin stimulates Lymphokine activated killer cells and natural killer cells
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Which of the following is/are true about Histamine?
a. Histamine acting through H1 receptors causes pain and itching b. The flair in the triple response is due to H1 receptor mediated vasodilatation c. H3 receptors agonists promote sleep d. H1 receptor mediated vasodilatation is due to direct activation of vascular smooth muscle to increase cAMP e. A and C are correct f. All of the choices are correct |
e. A and C are correct
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First generation H1 receptor antagonists:
a. All produce sedation b. May produce excitation in children and in an overdose c. Produce antiemetic actions by acting on both H1 and muscarinic receptors d. May cause hypersensitivity reactions e. All of the choices are correct f. None of the choices are correct |
e. All of the choices are correct
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Which of the following drug - effect combinations is/are correct?
a. Chlorphenarimine – high sedative, medium anticholinergic b. Diphenhydramine – medium antiemetic, medium sedative c. Meclizine – high sedative, high anticholinergic d. Loratadine – very low sedative, medium anti-emetic e. Fexofenadine – very low sedative, very low anticholinergic f. Azelastine - medium antiemetic, medium anticholinergic |
e. Fexofenadine – very low sedative, very low anticholinergic
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When you stick your hand into a tub of hot water, you feel the sensation of touching the water before the sensation of the heat because:
a. You have 1000 times more tactile receptors (pressure sensors) than thermal receptors (heat sensor) on your fingertips. b. The transmission of tactile sensation from the receptors to the brain occurs at a much faster rate than that for thermal sensation. c. The brain preferentially processes the tactile sensation first. d. Touch sensation is directly transmitted from the receptors to the brain by a single neuron with an exceptionally long axon. e. All of the above are correct. f. None of the above is correct. |
b. The transmission of tactile sensation from the receptors to the brain occurs at a much faster rate than that for thermal sensation.
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An ideal general anesthetic should induce the following in the subject and have the following properties
a. Unconsciousness. b. Analgesia. c. Amnesia d. Suppression of general reflexes and muscle relaxation. e. Rapid on and off, high safety margin and little side effects. f. All of the above are correct |
f. All of the above are correct
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Which statement(s) concerning general anesthetics is (are) correct?
a. Nitrous oxide is not very potent because it has a high MAC value (>100). b. Halothane has a slow induction rate because it has a high blood/gas partition coefficient. c. Intravenous general anesthetics have a very rapid onset because of their high lipophilicity. d. Termination of anesthetic effect is the result of redistribution out of CNS, not metabolism. e. All of the above are correct. f. None of the above is correct. |
e. All of the above are correct.
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The so called “use-dependent inhibition” mechanism of action for local anesthetics means:
a. The higher amount of the agent you apply to the site, the more effective it is. b. A greater inhibition is achieved for neurons that are active following pain stimulation. c. Neurons that are at rest are inhibited to a greater degree than neurons that are receiving pain stimulation. d. Local anesthetics have a higher affinity for neuronal sodium channels that are closed. e. All of the above are correct. f. None of the above is correct. |
b. A greater inhibition is achieved for neurons that are active following pain stimulation.
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The ways that local anesthetics can be applied include:
a. Topical. b. Infiltration (subcutaneous injection). c. Iontophoresis (using electricity to force it into tissue). d. Field block. e. All of the above. f. None of the above. |
e. All of the above.
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Individuals who carry certain mutations in their ryanodine receptor 1 (RYR1) may develop malignant hyperthermia in response to certain general anesthetics such as halogenated anesthetics because:
a. Halogenated anesthetics decrease calcium release from sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) in muscle cells. Insufficient calcium causes muscle cells to stop contraction. b. RYR1 is a plasma membrane receptor and a calcium channel. Mutated RYR1 becomes hyper sensitive to halogenated anesthetics-induced calcium influx. c. RYR1 is a receptor located in the membrane of SR inside the muscle cells. Interaction of halogenated anesthetics with mutated RYR1 causes massive calcium release from SR. Excessive SR calcium release leads to ATP depletion, dysregulation of body temperature, and breakdown of muscle cells. d. RYR1 is a receptor for inositol trisphosphate. Mutated RYR1 can bind to halogenated anesthetics and release calcium from intracellular storage. e. All of the above are correct. f. None of the above is correct. |
c. RYR1 is a receptor located in the membrane of SR inside the muscle cells. Interaction of halogenated anesthetics with mutated RYR1 causes massive calcium release from SR. Excessive SR calcium release leads to ATP depletion, dysregulation of body temperature, and breakdown of muscle cells.
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Hyperplasia – increase in size and number of cells b. Metaplasia – adoptive substitution for one cell type for another c. Dysplasia -loss of uniformity and architectural orientation d. Neoplasia -uncoordinated growth and decreased response to suppressor genes e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
e. All of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are true about cancer?
a. Cancer tumors all grow at similar rates b. First order cell kill kinetics suggest 100% of tumor cells can be eliminated with 5 treatments c. Slow growing tumors are easier to treat because there are less total tumor cells produced d. As few as a single surviving tumor cell may lead to tumor regrowth e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
d. As few as a single surviving tumor cell may lead to tumor regrowth
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Which is/are true about the cell cycle?
a. All cells continuously cycle through all phases of the cell cycle b. All phases of the cell cycle are similar in length c. All drugs that interfere with DNA replication are S phase specific d. Cyclin dependent kinases like the P-53 gene are only active between the G1 and S phase e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
f. None of the above are correct
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Alkylating agents
a. Are cell cycle specific b. Generally produce very little bone marrow suppression c. All form Carbonium ions d. Are mutagenic and teratogenic e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
d. Are mutagenic and teratogenic
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Cyclophosphamide
a. Requires metabolic activation to the active phosphoramide mustard b. Frequency of administration is not affected by bone marrow suppression c. May cause hallucinations, confusion and depression d. Requires Leucovorin therapy to prevent bladder toxicity e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
a. Requires metabolic activation to the active phosphoramide mustard
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Carmustine
a. Requires non-enzymatic activation b. Has been associated with development of secondary leukemia’s c. Is very useful in CNS tumors because of lipid solubility d. Dose frequency limited by bone marrow suppression e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
e. All of the above are correct
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Cisplatin
a. Cross links the two DNA strands b. Is mainly used for leukemia’s c. Major dose limiting side effect is bone marrow suppression d. You should monitor hearing before and during therapy e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
d. You should monitor hearing before and during therapy
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Methotrexate
a. Inhibits thymidylate synthesis by preventing formation of tetrahydofolate b. Is actively transported into cancer cells with a higher affinity than normal cells c. Is trapped inside cancer cells by polyglutamate synthetase d. Is useful in lymphoblastic leukemia e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
e. All of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are true about purine analogs?
a. Mercaptopurine is primarily is used for acute lymphocytic and myelogenous leukemia b. Fludarabine is fluorinated cytosine arabinose c. Cladribine is the sulfur containing analog of guanine d. A and B are correct e. B and C are correct f. None of the above are correct |
a. Mercaptopurine is primarily is used for acute lymphocytic and myelogenous leukemia
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Cytarabine
a. Is incorporated into DNA and inhibits DNA polymerase b. Is most effective in acute myelocytic leukemia c. Potent myelosuppression d. Contains D-arabinose sugar e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
e. All of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are true about antibiotic anticancer agents?
1) Daunorubicin inhibits topoisomerase II and can intercalate between DNA strands 2) Idarubicin is mainly used for solid tumors like breast, lung, testicular and bladder 3) Antibiotic anticancer agents may cause ulcerations and necrosis of tissues if they are injected outside the blood vessels 4) Doxorubicin shows enhanced cardiotoxicity because once it is taken up into cardiac cells multiple glutamates are added to lock it into the cells A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F = None of the above are correct |
B = 1,3
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Bleomycin
a. May complex with Fe and Cu to form free radicals b. Is specific for S phase c. Major toxicity is myelosuppression d. Is mainly used in Leukemia’s e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
a. May complex with Fe and Cu to form free radicals
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Vincristine
a. Is very effective in CNS tumors because of it lipid solubility b. May cause Hyperuricemia and Gout c. Major does limiting toxicity is myelosuppression d. May cause glove (hand) and sock (foot) neuropathies e. A and C are correct f. B and D are correct |
f. B and D are correct
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Which of the following is/are true about the Taxanes?
a. Paclitaxel inhibits spindle formation b. Docetaxel is S phase specific c. Paclitaxel may cause jaw pain due to cranial nerve damage d. Paclitaxel produces myelosuppression and neuropathies while Docetaxel produces neutropenia and less hypersensitivity reactions e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
d. Paclitaxel produces myelosuppression and neuropathies while Docetaxel produces neutropenia and less hypersensitivity reactions
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Etoposide
a. Inhibits topoisomerase IV b. Is mainly used for acute lymphoblastic leukemia c. Does not cause hair loss d. May decrease Acetylcholinesterase activity e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
f. None of the above are correct
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Camptothecins
a. Inhibit topoisomerase II b. Irinotecan causes more diarrhea and cholinergic activation that Topotecan c. Topotecan is metabolized in the liver and excreted in the bile d. May cause alterations in chromosome 11 which leads to leukemia’s e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
b. Irinotecan causes more diarrhea and cholinergic activation that Topotecan
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Which of the following is/are true about tyrosine kinase inhibitors?
a. Imatinib is an monoclonal antibody that binds tyrosine kinase. b. Gefitinib specifically blocks myeloid tyrosine kinase chronically activate by BCR-ABL mutation c. Erlotnib binds the HER1 epidermal growth factor receptor tyrosine kinase d. Lapatinib only inhibits the HER1 and not the HER2 tyrosine kinase e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
c. Erlotnib binds the HER1 epidermal growth factor receptor tyrosine kinase
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Which of the following is/are true about cancer antibodies?
a. Rituximab – Chimeric mouse-human antibody that binds CD 20 antigen on T-cells b. Alemetuzumab – humanized monoclonal antibody to HER2 c. Cetuximab – antibody to HER1 found on metastatic colorectal cancer cells d. Trastuzumab – approved for use in all women with metastatic breast cancer e. A and C are correct f. B and D are correct |
e. A and C are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Bevacizumab – antibody to vascular endothelial growth factor b. Gentuzumab – antibody to CD 33 which targets Ozogamicin to myelogenous leukemia cells c. D-L asparaginase converts circulating asparagine into aspartate which cancer cells cannot use for protein synthesis d. Bevacizumab – may cause severe hypertension and congestive heart failure e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
e. All of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Tamoxifen has been linked to pulmonary embolisms and endometrial cancer b. Raloxifine is an agonist on bone and a partial agonist on reproductive tissues c. Fulvestrant is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that has partial agonist activity at the receptor d. Tamoxifen prevents the growth of both ER-positive and ER-negative tumor calls. e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
a. Tamoxifen has been linked to pulmonary embolisms and endometrial cancer
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Which of the following is/are true about aromatase inhibitors?
a. Anastrozole is a noncompetitive inhibitor of aromatase b. Letrozole may cause significant visual problems c. Exemestane is used in women with metastatic ER- sensitive breast cancer no longer sensitive to Tamoxifen d. Exemestane is preferred over Anastrozole because it causes less bone fractures e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
c. Exemestane is used in women with metastatic ER- sensitive breast cancer no longer sensitive to Tamoxifen
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Which of the following is/are correct?
1) Nilutamide – synthetic anti-androgen used to block testosterone synthesis 2) Leuprolide may be given as a monthly depot injection 3) Leuprolide – GnRH analog used to block the LHRH receptor in the prostate 4) Goserelin – may cause gynecomastia and impotence A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are correct F =None of the above are correct |
C = 2,4
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Aldesleukin
a. Is indicated for hairy cell leukemia b. Is given continuously for 28 day cycles c. Increases the expression of tumor cell antigens d. Produces capillary leak syndrome in the majority of patients e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
d. Produces capillary leak syndrome in the majority of patients
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Histamine
a. The wheal of the triple response is due to NO induced capillary dilation b. Drugs and toxins cause non-mast cell release c. H3 receptor activation promotes wakefulness d. H4 receptors are found mainly on eosinophils and neutrophils and mediate inflammatory responses e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
d. H4 receptors are found mainly on eosinophils and neutrophils and mediate inflammatory responses
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H1 receptor antagonists
a. Antiemetic actions are exclusively due to H1 receptor blockade in the CTZ b. All first generation agents cause sedation c. Cause sedation in overdoses d. All show significant local anesthetic activity at normal therapeutic doses e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
b. All first generation agents cause sedation
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Chlorpheniramine has no antiemetic activity b. Dimenhydrinate has limited sedative actions c. Fexofenadine may cause urinary retention and dry mouth d. Loratadine has a moderate duration of action e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
a. Chlorpheniramine has no antiemetic activity
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matching: (Choose the best single answer)
Increases Ikappa B and decreases NFkappa B a. Amifostine b. Bortezomib c. Busulfan d. Cytaribine e. Fludarabine f. Leucovorin g. Mercaptoethans sulfonate (MESNA) h. Promethazine i. Temozolamide j. Vinblastine |
b. Bortezomib
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matching: (Choose the best single answer)
Binds acrolein to prevent cystitis a. Amifostine b. Bortezomib c. Busulfan d. Cytaribine e. Fludarabine f. Leucovorin g. Mercaptoethans sulfonate (MESNA) h. Promethazine i. Temozolamide j. Vinblastine |
g. Mercaptoethans sulfonate (MESNA)
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matching: (Choose the best single answer)
Drug of choice for gliomas a. Amifostine b. Bortezomib c. Busulfan d. Cytaribine e. Fludarabine f. Leucovorin g. Mercaptoethans sulfonate (MESNA) h. Promethazine i. Temozolamide j. Vinblastine |
i. Temozolamide
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matching: (Choose the best single answer)
Converted into N5-N10 methylene tetrahydorfolate a. Amifostine b. Bortezomib c. Busulfan d. Cytaribine e. Fludarabine f. Leucovorin g. Mercaptoethans sulfonate (MESNA) h. Promethazine i. Temozolamide j. Vinblastine |
f. Leucovorin
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Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) is/are affected by which of the following?
a) CNS depressants b) Body fat c) General health of patient d) Type of noxious stimuli e) A and C f) B and D |
e) A and C
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Which of the following is/are true?
a) The ideal analgesic should produce unconsciousness b) Pressure reversal of anesthesia is evidence that general anesthetics alter membrane fluidity c) General anesthetics may decrease the opening time of K+ channels d) General anesthetics decrease Ca++ flux through channels e) All of the above f) None of the above |
d) General anesthetics decrease Ca++ flux through channels
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Which of the following is/are true about local anesthetics?
a) State dependent blockade occurs with all local anesthetics b) Large mylelinated neurons are affected first c) The protonated form is the active form d) Plasma esterases limit duration of action for Mepivocaine e) All of the above f) None of the above |
c) The protonated form is the active form
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Which of the following is/are mechanisms by which general anesthetics produce their effects?
1) Decreasing K+ channel open time 2) Increasing GABA mediated Cl- conductance 3) Increasing voltage gated Na+ channel open time 4) Decreasing activity of voltage gated Ca++ channels A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above F = None of the above |
C = 2,4
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A Good Experiment should have?
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One Variable
More than one setup A control group |
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. All general anesthetics are potent muscle relaxants b. Amnesia is not a desired characteristic of general anesthetics c. General anesthetics decrease medullary responses to increased CO2 and decreased O2 d. Malignant hyperthermia is caused by Fluoride ions inhibiting drug metabolism e. All of the above f. None of the above |
c. General anesthetics decrease medullary responses to increased CO2 and decreased O2
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Which of the following is/are false about general anesthetics?
a. Enflurane is the drug of choice with cerebral ischemia b. Halothane metabolism produces metabolites which can damage the liver c. Isoflurane is a good muscle relaxant and analgesic d. Nitrous oxide given with Halothane would be a rational anesthetic combination. e. All of the above are false f. None of the above are false |
a. Enflurane is the drug of choice with cerebral ischemia
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Which of the following is/are true about the ideal local anesthetic?
1) Must be non-irritating to tissues 2) Rapid onset and offset 3) No long term effects on nerve function 4) Rapid systemic absorption A = 1,2,3 B = 1,3 C = 2,4 D = 4 only E = All of the above are true F = None of the above are true |
A = 1,2,3
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Which of the following is/are true about the mechanisms of local anesthetics?
a. Hydrophilic domains are necessary for channel blockade b. Charged form blocks Na+ channel from outside c. Hydrophobic domains necessary for diffusion into nerve cells d. All local anesthetics show state dependent blockade of Na+ channels e. A and C are correct f. All of the above are correct |
e. A and C are correct
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Local anesthetic toxicity
a. Is mainly due to systemic absorption b. Includes CNS excitation followed by depression c. May initially cause tachycardia and hypertension d. May cause arrhythmias e. All of the above f. None of the above |
e. All of the above
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Interferon
a. Alpha is used mainly to treat relapsing multiple sclerosis b. Beta is combined with Ribavirin for hepatitis C c. Gamma is used in inherited immunodeficiency d. A and C are correct e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
c. Gamma is used in inherited immunodeficiency
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Sargramostim (GM-CSF)
a. Used to stimulate blood progenitor cells for transplant b. Increases phagocytosis and cytotoxicty of mature white blood cells c. Enhances the maturation and differentiation of both myeloid and lymphoid stem cells d. Decreases cell cycle time for immature granulocytes and macrophages e. A and C are correct f. B and D are correct |
f. B and D are correct
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Filgrastim (G-CSF)
a. Normally secreted from the renal tubule cells b. Reduces maturation time for immature neutrophils c. Contraindicated after bone marrow transplants d. Selectively increases platelet counts e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
b. Reduces maturation time for immature neutrophils
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Which of the following is/are true?
a. Interleukin – 11, Oprelvekin - increases platelets after chemotherapy induced thrombocytopenia b. Thrombopoietin – selectively increases platelets and is being tested for thrombocytopenia c. Erythropoietin – has been shown to increase the risk of MI or stoke and may increase cancer risk d. Stem cell growth factor – increases release of stem cells into blood for collection to be used for bone marrow transplants e. All of the above are correct f. None of the above are correct |
e. All of the above are correct
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Which of the following is/are true?
a) Interferon alpha is used to activate the immune system in patients with inherited immunodeficiency b) Stem cell growth factor (SCF) is used mainly to stimulate red blood cell production after chemotherapy c) Sargramostim acts at the level of the myeloid stem cells to increase bone marrow cells d) Filgrastim reduces the maturation time for neutophils and enhances their release form the bone marrow e) All of the above are correct f) None of the above are correct |
d) Filgrastim reduces the maturation time for neutophils and enhances their release form the bone marrow
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