Saab 340 Rev (2) Flashcards

Front 1

What category is the Saab 340 Certified?

Back 1

Transport category… FAR part 25

Front 2

What is the max taxi weight of the Saab 340B?

Back 2

29,300 lbs

Front 3

What is the max takeoff weight of the Saab 340B?

Back 3

29,000 lbs

Front 4

What is the max landing weight of the Saab 340B?

Back 4

28,500 lbs

Front 5

What is the max zero fuel weight of the Saab 340B?

Back 5

26,500 lbs

Front 6

What is the max Cargo Weight for C1?

Back 6

1125

Front 7

What is the max Cargo Weight for C2?

Back 7

850

Front 8

What is the Max Combined Cargo Weight?

Back 8

1725

Front 9

What is the max torque for takeoff with APR or Go Around Power?

Back 9

107%

Front 10

What is the max torque for takeoff?

Back 10

100%

Front 11

What is max continuous power (torque) with one engine inop?

Back 11

100%

Front 12

What is the max transient torque for 12 seconds?

Back 12

112%

Front 13

What is the max ITT for takeoff with APR or Go Around Power?

Back 13

950°C for 2 minutes followed by
940°C for 3 additional minutes (5min total)

Front 14

What is the max ITT for takeoff?

Back 14

927°C for 2 minutes followed by
917°C for 3 additional minutes (5min total)

Front 15

What is the max continuous power (ITT) with one engine inop?

Back 15

940°C

Front 16

What is the max transient ITT for 12 seconds?

Back 16

965°C

Front 17

What is the max ITT during engine starting?

Back 17

965°C

Front 18

What is the max Engine RPM for takeoff with APR or Go Around Power?

Back 18

Red line (102%)

Front 19

What is the max Engine RPM for takeoff?

Back 19

Green arc (101%)

Front 20

What is the max continuous Engine RPM with one engine inop?

Back 20

Red line (102%)

Front 21

What is the max transient Engine RPM for 12 seconds?

Back 21

Red line (105%)

Front 22

What is the max prop RPM for Takeoff / Takeoff + APR / Go Around / Max continuous power?

Back 22

Red line (1396 PRPM)

Front 23

What is the max transient prop RPM for 12 seconds?

Back 23

1572 PRPM

Front 24

What is the MINIMUM prop RPM between ground idle and flight idle with the propeller unfeathered?

Back 24

950 PRPM

Front 25

What is the normal operating range for engine oil pressure?

Back 25

Green arc (30-100 psi)

Front 26

What is the engine oil pressure range when between ground idle and flight idle with the propeller unfeathered?

Back 26

20-100 psi

Front 27

What is the max engine oil pressure at starting an initial ground idle operation with extremely cold oil?

Back 27

200 psi

Front 28

What is the normal operating range for engine oil temperature?

Back 28

Green arc (35-122°C)

Front 29

What is the max engine oil temp allowed for 15 minutes?

Back 29

132°C

Front 30

What is the normal operating range for prop oil pressure?

Back 30

Green arc (25-140 psi)

Front 31

What is the minimum prop oil pressure with prop unfeathered?

Back 31

25psi

Front 32

Can you conduct ground operations with prop oil pressure in the yellow arc while unfeathered (5-25 psi and 140-225 psi)?

Back 32

No

Front 33

What is the operating range for prop oil pressure with the prop feathered?

Back 33

Yellow arc (5-25 psi)

Front 34

What is the normal operating range for prop oil temperature?

Back 34

Green arc (45-77°C)

Front 35

What is the max propeller temperature between ground idle and flight idle with the propeller unfeathered?

Back 35

Red line (77°C)

Front 36

What is the max propeller oil temperature for 15 minutes?

Back 36

93°C

Front 37

What is the Minimum oil temp for engine starting?

Back 37

-40°C

Front 38

How many start attempts can you make before the 25 minute cooling period?

Back 38

2
(Start, 3 minute cool,
start, 25 minute cool)

Front 39

How many motor attempts can you make before the 60 minute cooling period?

Back 39

3 30 second motors
(Motor, 3 minute cool,
motor, 3 minute cool,
motor, 60 minute cool)

Front 40

What is the max time to light off (from initial Ng rotation to ITT rise) during a direct start?

Back 40

20 seconds

Front 41

What is the max time a starter/generator can be engaged?

Back 41

70 seconds

Front 42

What is the max time a starter can be used for motoring?

Back 42

30 seconds

Front 43

What is the minimum battery temp for a battery start?

Back 43

-20°C

Front 44

What is the minimum battery voltage for a battery start?

Back 44

24V

Front 45

After a successful engine start, how long do you wait before you start the other engine?

Back 45

1 minute

Front 46

Can the FUEL TEMP LOW light be on for takeoff?

Back 46

No

Front 47

The XFEED and CONN VALVE switches shall be _____ and _____ during takeoff and landing in normal operation.

Back 47

OFF, CLOSED

Front 48

What three de-ice boot modes must be working before dispatch into know icing conditions?

Back 48

-One Cycle,
-Continuous,
-Manual

Front 49

What is the definition of icing conditions for Engine anti-ice operation?

Back 49

+10°C or colder
AND
visible moisture

OR
standing water, slush, or snow on the ground

Front 50

After exiting icing conditions, how long must the engine anti-icing equipment (intake) be left on?

Back 50

At least 5 minutes

Front 51

A runway with how much water / slush / wet snow is acceptable?

Back 51

½”

Front 52

A runway with how much dry snow is acceptable?

Back 52

3”

Front 53

When do you turn the propeller deice system to norm?

Back 53

-5°C or colder
AND
there is any ice accretion on any part of the aircraft

Front 54

When do you turn the propeller deice system to max?

Back 54

-13°C or colder
UNLESS
vibrations occur at warmer temperatures

Front 55

Can you turn the propeller heat to max if the temperature is between -10°C to -12°C?

Back 55

Yes,
if unacceptable propeller vibration occurs.
Use caution for runback ice

Front 56

What is the definition of icing conditions for operation of wing and stabilizer deicing boots and for adherence to minimum airspeed and AP/FD limitations for icing conditions?

Back 56

+5°C or colder
AND:
Any visible moisture,
OR
Any ice is on the aircraft,

OR
it is not certain there is no ice on the aircraft

Front 57

When should the deice boots be used?

Back 57

-Icing conditions Until 400’ AFE, only at the first sign of ice accretion anywhere on the aircraft
-If SAT is below -40°C only if ice is accumulating on aircraft

Front 58

When can the deice boots be turned off?

Back 58

+5°C and no ice on the windshield wiper
OR
3 cycles (9 minutes) after exiting icing conditions

Front 59

What is the max flap speed for flaps 7 or 15?

Back 59

175 KIAS

Front 60

What is the max flap speed for flaps 20?

Back 60

165 KIAS

Front 61

What is the max flap speed for flaps 35?

Back 61

140 KIAS

Front 62

What is gear retraction speed (Vlor)?

Back 62

150 KIAS

Front 63

What is gear extension speed (Vloe)?

Back 63

200 KIAS

Front 64

What is Emergency extension speed (Vloee)?

Back 64

200 KIAS

Front 65

What is max extended speed (Vle)?

Back 65

200 KIAS

Front 66

What is the Vmo up to 16,000’?

Back 66

250 KIAS

Front 67

What is Va?

Back 67

180 KIAS

Front 68

What is Vmm at flaps 0?

Back 68

Vref 20 + 30

Front 69

What is rough air penetration speed (Vra) up to 21,000’?

Back 69

190 KIAS

Front 70

What is Vra above 21,000’?

Back 70

Vmo minus 30 knots

Front 71

What is the minimum enroute speed with ice while level, holding, or in a descent?

Back 71

160 KIAS

Front 72

What is Vmm at flaps 0 with ice (below MSA)?

Back 72

Vref 20 + 40

Front 73

What speed is used for enroute climb with icing (below MSA)?

Back 73

Vcl + 15

Front 74

What is the minimum climb speed below MSA with ice while NOT maneuvering?

Back 74

Vcl + 15

Front 75

What is the minimum climb speed below MSA with ice while maneuvering?

Back 75

Vmm + 10

Front 76

What are the minimum flap speeds above MSA (climb, cruise, descent, hold, APPR)?

Back 76

-Flap 0° = 160 KIAS
-Flap 7° = 150 KIAS
-Flap 15° = 145 KIAS
-Flap 20° = 140 KIAS
-Flap 35° = 130 KIAS

Front 77

What is the minimum final approach speed while maneuvering with ice?

Back 77

Vmm + 10

Front 78

What is the minimum final approach speed while NOT maneuvering with ice?

Back 78

Vref + 10

Front 79

What is minimum speed for missed approach/go around below MSA with ice?

Back 79

Vref + 20 KIAS

Front 80

With all systems operating what types of flight is the Saab approved for?

Back 80

Day and night VFR, IFR, Atmospheric icing conditions

Front 81

What are the airport pressure altitude limits?

Back 81

-1000 to +8000

Front 82

What is the max tailwind component for TO and Landing?

Back 82

10 knots

Front 83

What is the max operating altitude for the Saab?

Back 83

25,000’ pressure altitude

Front 84

What is the minimum main battery temp for takeoff?

Back 84

-20°C

Front 85

What is the maximum cabin differential pressure?

Back 85

7.5 psi

Front 86

What is the maximum cabin differential pressure while operating in auto mode?

Back 86

7.1 psi

Front 87

When is the flight director not authorized for use during a takeoff?

Back 87

When below 500’ AGL
or
acceleration altitude, whichever is higher

Front 88

When is the use of Autopilot not authorized during takeoff?

Back 88

Below 500’ AGL
or
acceleration altitude, whichever is higher

Front 89

When is the use of Autopilot not authorized during a precision approach?

Back 89

Below 200’AGL

Front 90

When is the use of Autopilot not authorized on a non-precision app?

Back 90

Below the MDA

Front 91

When is the use of Autopilot not authorized during a visual approach?

Back 91

Below 500’ AGL

Front 92

When is the use of Autopilot not authorized during a Go-around?

Back 92

Below 200’ AGL

Front 93

During Icing conditions with Autopilot and/or FD engaged which vertical mode must be used?

Back 93

IAS

Front 94

When is the Yaw Damper not authorized for use?

Back 94

-Takeoff,
-Go around,
-Landing

Front 95

When is it prohibited to have flaps extended in flight?

Back 95

While holding

Front 96

When must final aircraft configuration be completed in IMC?

Back 96

Prior to FAF (except for circling approaches, OEI, or ATC restrictions)

Front 97

When must final aircraft configuration be completed in VMC?

Back 97

500’ AGL

Front 98

How long is the cargo fire protection for an aircraft with 1 or 2 bottles?

Back 98

1 bottle = 35 minutes
2 bottles = 60 minutes

Front 99

Can the aircraft be moved on the ground while the AHRS is initializing?

Back 99

No

Front 100

What is the maximum difference between the 2 EADIs and the Standby Attitude indicator allowed for takeoff?

Back 100

Less than 3 degree bank and pitch

Front 101

Can you take off if the heading on the compass card is slewing away from the aircraft heading?

Back 101

No

Front 102

If a reduced power takeoff is performed with APR armed which speeds are used?

Back 102

Speeds for the assumed temperature (far right column)

Front 103

What is the maximum airspeed for windshield wiper use in low mode?

Back 103

130 KIAS

Front 104

What is the maximum airspeed for windshield wiper use in high mode?

Back 104

160 KIAS

Front 105

What is the maximum crosswind allowed for takeoff and landing?

Back 105

35 knots (steady)

Front 106

When is HP bleed air operation not authorized for cabin conditioning?

Back 106

When OAT is at or between 0ºC and 20ºC

Front 107

What is the maximum load for a DC generator?

Back 107

600 Amps for 5 minutes

Front 108

What is the nominal load for a DC generator?

Back 108

400 Amps

Front 109

At what battery temperature is a battery start not allowed?

Back 109

57ºC

Front 110

At what battery temperature is a cross generator start not allowed?

Back 110

61ºC

Front 111

What is the max battery temperature for takeoff?

Back 111

64°C

Front 112

At what battery temperature is takeoff not allowed?

Back 112

65ºC

Front 113

At what battery temperature does the BAT HOT LIGHT illuminate?

Back 113

71ºC

Front 114

What is the maximum voltage allowed for external power usage?

Back 114

29.5 VDC

Front 115

What are the minimum and maximum external power currents during engine start?

Back 115

Min 1200 Amps
Max 1600 Amps

Front 116

What is the minimum O2 pressure for 2 or 3 crew members for a flight planned at or below 10,000’ MSL?

Back 116

800 psi

Front 117

What is the minimum O2 pressure for 2 crew members for a flight with a planned cruise altitude above 10,000’ MSL?

Back 117

1250 psi at a maximum temperature of 40ºC

Front 118

What is the minimum O2 pressure for 3 crew members for a flight with a planned cruise altitude above 10,000’ MSL?

Back 118

1650 psi

Front 119

Are reverse taxi operations or power-backs STRICTLY PROHIBITED?

Back 119

Yes

Front 120

Where do you set Ng to conduct the auto-ignition test during engine shutdown?

Back 120

75% - 77%

Front 121

Verify the IGN lights in the Flight Status Panel (FSP) illuminate momentarily while Ng is above _____ during shutdown.

Back 121

62%

Front 122

Is the need to open doors and panels for inspection on the first flight of the day a TSA requirement?

Back 122

Yes

Front 123

How long after engine shutdown should you wait to check the PGB oil?

Back 123

10 minutes

Front 124

Where can you find the Engine Fire Bottle Pressure requirements?

Back 124

CFM I, Detailed Preflight Inspection, Page 3-4

Front 125

How many static wicks are on each Aileron?

Back 125

4

Front 126

How many vortex generators are on the elevator?

Back 126

15

Front 127

How many static wicks are on the elevator / horizontal stabilizer?

Back 127

8 or 10 (depending on aircraft configuration)

Front 128

How many static wicks are on the rudder?

Back 128

3

Front 129

How many smoke detectors and Halon lines are in the Cargo Compartment?

Back 129

Aft Lav – 2 smoke detectors, 1 Halon line
Fwd Lav – 2 smoke detectors, 2 Halon lines

Front 130

What items are checked on a walk around preflight?

Back 130

-Chocks
-Fluid leakage
-Access panels
-Doors
-Structural Damage
-Fasteners
-Tires / Struts
-Bird strikes
-FOD

Front 131

What are the First Flight of the Day checks for the Captain?

Back 131

-CA / Observer O2 Mask Test
-Weather Radar Test
-Trim Test
-64° Switch Test
-Stall Warning Test
-Lamps Test
-Fire Short Test
-Fire Detection Test
-Smoke Detection Test
-Auto coarsen (P3) Test
-CTOT Test
-830 Bottom Governing Check
-Ice Protection Test

Front 132

What are the First Flight of the Day checks for the FO?

Back 132

-O2 Pressure
-FO O2 Mask Test
-CVR Test
-TAWS Test
-Gear in Transit Light Test
-Pressurization AutoMode Test
-PA interphone Test

Front 133

Battery temperature increases approximately _____ every battery start?

Back 133

7°C

Front 134

If practicable, limit tail wind component during starts to _____?

Back 134

20 knots

Front 135

The FO should monitor GPU voltage and call “ABORT” if GPU voltage drops below _____ and does not recover.

Back 135

16V

Front 136

What conditions require an aborted start?

Back 136

-Ng does not increase when starter is engaged
-Ng does not reach approximately 20% after starter engagement
-ITT does not decrease below 175°C during a motoring start
-No Engine Oil Pressure within 30 seconds of starter activation
-No ITT rise within 10 seconds of bringing CL to START (motoring start)
-Hung Start
-Ng continues to accelerate above ground idle (max 75%) with no PL movement
-ITT exceeds 965°C or increased at a rate that may exceed 965°C
-No propeller rotation with Ng above 55%
-GPU voltage drops below 10V

Front 137

Altimeters should be within _____ of a known field elevation and maximum difference between altimeters of _____.

Back 137

75’, 40’

Front 138

What procedure is NOT authorized for removing a stuck tail stand?

Back 138

Moving the Power Levers above ground idle

Front 139

What minimum main hydraulic pressure should be maintained prior to pushback?

Back 139

2100psi

Front 140

When is single engine taxi prohibited?

Back 140

-When ramp/taxiways are covered in standing water (shiny surface),
OR
-15% of the taxi surface is covered in ice, snow, or slush

Front 141

What are the ITT limits below 15,000’ MSL?

Back 141

840°C Engine Anti Ice Off, 845°C Engine Anti Ice On

Front 142

What are the ITT limits at 15,000’ and above?

Back 142

860° Engine Anti Ice Off, 865°C Engine Anti Ice On

Front 143

What power setting do you use when ITT limits are exceeded?

Back 143

5% below charted torque, enter Flight entry and record a new trend point

Front 144

Use a maximum of _____ bank if operating below Vcl + 10.

Back 144

15°

Front 145

Anytime the autopilot is engaged below _____, the pilot flying shall keep one hand on the yoke.

Back 145

1500’ AFL

Front 146

How often should a fuel balance check be conducted while in cruise flight?

Back 146

Once every hour while in cruise flight

Front 147

What is minimum holding speed?

Back 147

160 IAS

Front 148

Is it required to identify and cross check the nav aids before shooting an approach?

Back 148

Yes

Front 149

What speeds are bugged for landing?

Back 149

Vref,
Vfa,
Vmm

Front 150

At what degree of pitch does a Tail Strike occur?

Back 150

13 degrees

Front 151

_____ is the only action permitted on the runway after landing.

Back 151

Gust lock engagement

Front 152

When does the 2 minute engine cool down begin?

Back 152

After the aircraft has taxied off the runway and after the HP valve has been closed if in
use

Front 153

If the cabin differential pressure was noted to be _____ or above, a discrepancy must be entered into the flight log.

Back 153

0.3 psi

Front 154

Up to how many passengers can the Saab 340s at Colgan carry?

Back 154

34

Front 155

How many navigation lights are on the Saab?

Back 155

6

Front 156

How many flashing beacons are on the Saab 340?

Back 156

2

Front 157

How many landing lights are installed on the Saab 340?

Back 157

2

Front 158

How many taxi lights are installed on the Saab 340?

Back 158

1

Front 159

When does the taxi light automatically extinguish?

Back 159

At gear retraction

Front 160

What is the wingspan of the Saab 340B?

Back 160

70 feet 4 inches

Front 161

What is the length of the Saab 340?

Back 161

64 feet 9 inches

Front 162

What is the width between the two main landing gear on the Saab 340?

Back 162

22 feet

Front 163

What is the prop diameter on the Saab 340?

Back 163

11 feet

Front 164

What is the prop blade clearance from the ground?

Back 164

1 foot 8 inches
or
20 inches

Front 165

How many tires are installed on the Saab 340?

Back 165

6

Front 166

What is the turning radius on the ground of the Saab 340?

Back 166

57 feet

Front 167

What is the wingtip sweep for a minimum radius ground turn for the Saab 340B?

Back 167

104’

Front 168

What systems are operated by pneumatic air?

Back 168

-Air Conditioning,
-Pressurization,
-Ice protection

Front 169

_____ bleed air automatically supplements the _____ flow as necessary during periods of low engine rpm.

Back 169

HP, LP

Front 170

What compressor stage is the LP (P2.5) bleed air taken from?

Back 170

5th

Front 171

What compressor stage is the HP (P3) bleed air taken from?

Back 171

6th

Front 172

How is the HP valve controlled?

Back 172

Electrically

Front 173

How is the HP valve operated?

Back 173

Pneumatically

Front 174

If electric power to the HP bleed valve fails what position would the valve be in?

Back 174

Closed

Front 175

What are the reasons the HP valve would automatically close?

Back 175

-Bleed air line overheats (exceeds 288ºC)
-Bleed air line has excessive pressure (exceeds 76 psi)
-Fire handle is pulled
-Engine is shutdown
-Main DC bus power is lost

Front 176

If electric power to the LP bleed valve fails what position would the valve be in?

Back 176

Open

Front 177

What are the reasons the LP bleed valve close automatically?

Back 177

-Bleed air line overheats (exceeds 288ºC)
-Bleed air line has excessive pressure (exceeds 43psi) downstream of the valve
-Fire handle is pulled
-Air conditioning pack overheats (exceeds 225ºC)
-Air conditioning duct overheats (exceeds 82ºC)

Front 178

What does a BLD CLOSED light indicate?

Back 178

The respective BLD valve is closed

Front 179

What does a BLD FAULT light indicate?

Back 179

-The respective BLD valve received a closed signal but did not close
-Bleed air line overtemp (exceeds 288ºC)
-Bleed air line has excessive pressure (exceeds 43psi) downstream of the valve

Front 180

What does a HP HIGH light indicate?

Back 180

The respective HP valve received a closed signal and did not close

Front 181

How is HP bleed air cooled?

Back 181

Through a ram air heat exchanger (precooler)

Front 182

A separate flow through the precooler accomplishes _____ cooling for use by the pneumatic deicer system.

Back 182

LP bleed air

Front 183

How are the pneumatic systems interconnected so that one bleed air source can supply both air conditioning systems?

Back 183

Cross Valve (X VALVE)

Front 184

When can the cross valve be used?

Back 184

On ground only

Front 185

What is required for the X Valve to open?

Back 185

One bleed valve must be closed

Front 186

How is the X Valve operated?

Back 186

Pneumatically

Front 187

How is the X Valve controlled?

Back 187

Electrically

Front 188

What does a X VALVE OPEN light indicate?

Back 188

X Valve is open

Front 189

What does a BLD AIR LEAK light indicate?

Back 189

Excessive temperature in the bleed line (exceeds 205ºC)

Front 190

Will a BLD LEAK close the LP bleed valve?

Back 190

No

Front 191

What does a RECIRC light indicate?

Back 191

A failure of the recirc fan (less than 80%)

Front 192

Will you get a Master Caution light for a Recirc Fan failing?

Back 192

No

Front 193

What overhead light will not illuminate an AIR COND light on the CWP?

Back 193

L/R RECIRC light

Front 194

When is the Auto mode of the temp control to be used?

Back 194

Always unless inop

Front 195

Does the Manual mode of temp control provide temperature limiting protection to the system?

Back 195

No,
only Auto mode does

Front 196

In the Manual mode of temp control, how long does it take to move the control valve from one extreme to the other extreme?

Back 196

6-8 seconds

Front 197

What does an AVIONICS VENT light on CWP indicate?

Back 197

Failure of the avionics vent fan

Front 198

While in flight, if the PRESS DUMP switch is activated what happens?

Back 198

The primary outflow valve is immediately fully opened

Front 199

While on the ground if the PRESS DUMP switch is activated what happens?

Back 199

The primary and secondary valve are both fully opened

Front 200

In Auto pressurization mode what is the max differential?

Back 200

7.1psid

Front 201

How long after touchdown is the primary outflow valve fully opened?

Back 201

20 seconds

Front 202

Where is the primary outflow valve located?

Back 202

False bulkhead in the tail compartment

Front 203

How are the outflow valves controlled?

Back 203

Electrically
and
Pneumatically

Front 204

The outflow valves limit positive pressure to?

Back 204

7.6psid

Front 205

The outflow valves limit negative pressure to?

Back 205

-0.5psid

Front 206

If vacuum pressure is lost what position do the outflow valves revert to?

Back 206

Closed

Front 207

In manual pressurization mode what position is the primary outflow valve in?

Back 207

Closed

Front 208

What does a CABIN PRESS light indicate?

Back 208

Cabin altitude above 10,000’
OR
Cabin press exceeds 7.5psi

Front 209

Where is the secondary outflow valve located on the Saab 340?

Back 209

Rear pressure bulkhead

Front 210

The secondary outflow valve is normally only operated in what mode?

Back 210

Manual mode

Front 211

What rate of cabin VSI does the detent on the auto controller provide?

Back 211

500 fpm up
and
300 fpm down

Front 212

When would the fault light on the pressurization controller illuminate?

Back 212

With a system failure
OR
During a system self-test and extinguishes with no faults detected

Front 213

What does an amber RUD, AIL, EL annunciation on the EADI indicate?

Back 213

Sustained servo actuator overload

Front 214

What does a Red AUTO TRIM on the CWP indicate?

Back 214

Extreme elevator
OR
rudder servo actuator overload

Front 215

What other light would be expected with a Red AUTO TRIM light?

Back 215

Master Warning

Front 216

What 2 ways can the HDG bug be moved?

Back 216

HDG knob on the course/heading panel (CHP)
TURN knob on the Autopilot Panel (APP)

Front 217

What F/D modes are not selectable from the Mode Select Panel (MSP)?

Back 217

-GA,
-PTCH,
-ALTS

Front 218

What information is displayed when the Go Around button is pushed?

Back 218

Heading hold
and
Nose up pitch

Front 219

What will cause the Auto Pilot to disconnect?

Back 219

-Pushing either AP disconnect button on either control wheel
-Using a Main or STBY Pitch Trim
-Selecting AP or YD switch to disengage
-Pushing either GA button
-Pulling the AP or FD circuit breakers
-AP or FD Failure
-Stall warning activation

Front 220

What warnings are given when the YD is disengaged?

Back 220

A yellow box with YD inside appears on left side of EADI no audible warning

Front 221

What does the NAV mode in white indicate?

Back 221

NAV is armed and waiting to capture

Front 222

When is 1/2 Bank inhibited?

Back 222

During both NAV and APPR mode after LOC capture

Front 223

How is a back course selected?

Back 223

The HSI course pointer is set to the localizer front course

Front 224

Can APPR mode track a VOR?

Back 224

Yes, but it will be more sensitive

Front 225

While in APPR mode can the FD command bars be cancelled?

Back 225

No

Front 226

What is the difference between APPR mode and NAV mode on an ILS?

Back 226

APPR mode will track a GS and NAV mode will not track GS

Front 227

How is a NAV mode cleared?

Back 227

Selecting HDG or APPR

Front 228

Is the HDG bug active after pressing APPR mode or NAV mode on the MSP?

Back 228

Yes, the HDG bug is active until the LOC or VOR captures

Front 229

What basic modes are displayed after initial power up for the FD?

Back 229

HDG and VS

Front 230

If GS is intercepted prior to the LOC how does the FD respond?

Back 230

GS is not captured unless LOC is captured first

Front 231

What is the function of 1/2 Bank mode?

Back 231

Reduces bank angles from 27º to 13.5º in HDG and NAV modes

Front 232

What if any indications are displayed on the EADI when 1/2 Bank is selected?

Back 232

No indications displayed, just the light on the 1/2 Bank push button illuminated

Front 233

While in ALTS or with GS captured, pressing the pitch wheel will do what?

Back 233

Nothing. ALTS and GS captured inhibit the pitch wheel

Front 234

Where is the flight advisory speed displayed?

Back 234

In the upper right corner of the EADI when ALT or ALTS has captured

Front 235

When in GA mode what does pressing the VERT SYNC button do?

Back 235

Changes to PTCH mode and captures the current pitch angle

Front 236

What performance does CLIMB mode give?

Back 236

At least 100 fpm climb till airspeed reaches stall speed

Front 237

What are the 3 speeds for Climb mode?

Back 237

-High=180,
-Med=160,
-Low=140
(dependent on altitude)

Front 238

How is the FD put into PTCH mode?

Back 238

-VERT SYNC pushbutton is depressed in GA mode
-Glideslope signal is lost after GS capture
-Air Data system failure occurs

Front 239

What is the purpose of the NAV L/R button light on the glare shield?

Back 239

Used to couple left or right navigation source to the FD

Front 240

A DR displayed in the upper left while in NAV mode indicated what?

Back 240

Dead reckoning

Front 241

What is the purpose of the EMER switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP)?

Back 241

Direct connect to the COMM. (bypass the REU if audio system fails)

Front 242

What Comm will the Captain be connected to if the EMER switch is used?

Back 242

Comm 1

Front 243

What Comm will the first officer be connected to if the EMER switch is used?

Back 243

Comm2

Front 244

Are the GPWS and PA audio levels adjustable from the ACP?

Back 244

No,
they are set at fixed levels

Front 245

How many transmitting microphones are at each pilot station?

Back 245

-Headset microphone
-Oxygen Mask microphone
-Hand-held microphone

Front 246

What controls volume between crewmember communications?

Back 246

INT slide on both ACPs

Front 247

What is the power source for Comm 1?

Back 247

Emergency Avionics bus

Front 248

How is communication between the cockpit and cabin accomplished?

Back 248

Through the cabin interphone, either through the handset or headset while pressing the respective pushbutton on the aft center pedestal

Front 249

What is the PA button used for?

Back 249

To establish communication between the cockpit and cabin via the address system

Front 250

What lights illuminate when the Flight Attendant presses the call button?

Back 250

Green call light on the center pedestal and the orange call on the overhead panel

Front 251

What lights illuminate when the Flight Attendant presses the EMER button?

Back 251

Red EMER light on the Center pedestal
and
Red EMER on the overhead panel

Front 252

When using the Oxygen mask what is the procedure to make a PA?

Back 252

With mask switch selected push the PA button on the Oxygen mask panel

Front 253

What is the Voice/Ident switch used for on the ACP?

Back 253

Used to Id a Nav aid
OR
Listen over the VOR frequency

Front 254

When the EMER switch is in EMER which PTT switch must be used?

Back 254

PTT on the control wheel

Front 255

What is the L/R switch on the observer audio panel used for?

Back 255

To select between the left and right audio panels

Front 256

What does the ACT button on the Comm do?

Back 256

STBY frequency is inhibited;
The frequency selector now directly tunes the active frequency.

Front 257

How is the ACT mode selected on the Comm?

Back 257

Hold the button for at least 2 seconds to activate and also deactivate

Front 258

What does the STO button on the Comm do?

Back 258

Saves selected frequencies to memory

Front 259

If communications are lost with ATC what squawk code is used?

Back 259

7600

Front 260

What squawk code is used for an emergency aircraft?

Back 260

7700

Front 261

What are the power sources for the DC electrical system?

Back 261

-Batteries
-External power
-Generators

Front 262

What are the 4 separate parts of the electrical system?

Back 262

-28V DC (main)
-28V DC (emergency)
-115/26V AC,
-“wild” frequency 115V AC

Front 263

What makes up the 28V DC electrical system?

Back 263

-2 Main Batteries,
-1 Emergency Battery,
-2 Engine Generators,
-External PWR

Front 264

How many Ni-Cad batteries does the Saab 340 have?

Back 264

2

Front 265

What type of main batteries does the Saab 340 have?

Back 265

24 volt 43 Amp hour Ni-Cad batteries

Front 266

Where are the main batteries located?

Back 266

In the respective wing-fuselage fairing

Front 267

How are the batteries ventilated for cooling?

Back 267

By ram air in flight,
and
Fans on the ground

Front 268

What bus is used for battery charging?

Back 268

Respective GEN bus with at least one generator online

Front 269

Which bus is the right battery connected to?

Back 269

Right GEN bus

Front 270

What powers the Emergency Bus?

Back 270

The L BAT BUS (batteries must be ON/OVRD)
or
the Emergency Battery

Front 271

When does the Emergency battery begin to power the EMER BUS?

Back 271

When the L Battery power is lost

Front 272

Where is the Emergency Battery located?

Back 272

Avionics rack

Front 273

What is the power source for the emergency power system?

Back 273

Powered from the 28V DC system
OR
Emergency battery

Front 274

What is indicated by an illuminated NO BAT START light?

Back 274

Battery temp has reached 57ºC

Front 275

What is indicated by an illuminated BAT HOT light?

Back 275

Battery has reached 71ºC

Front 276

What is indicated by an illuminated EMER PWR light?

Back 276

Either the emergency bus is not supplied power
OR
Battery had decreased below 24V

Front 277

What is the purpose of the Series/Parallel relay?

Back 277

During a battery start of the first engine the batteries are connected in series to produce 48 volts.

Front 278

What type of Battery is used for the Emergency battery?

Back 278

24 volt 5 amp hour lead acid battery

Front 279

What is indicated by an illuminated L/R BAT HOT light?

Back 279

Associated battery temp has reached 71ºC

Front 280

What other light(s) would be on when a BAT HOT light is illuminated?

Back 280

-NO BAT START
-BAT
-ELEC↑ on CWP

Front 281

What automatically happens when a battery temp reaches 71ºC?

Back 281

BAT relay opens

Front 282

Can the battery supply power to the GEN bus with a BAT HOT?

Back 282

Yes, in an emergency the BAT switch can be set to OVRD

Front 283

What would cause the GPU to automatically disconnect?

Back 283

-Overvoltage (>31v)
-Under voltage (<10v)
-Voltage drops below 10 volts with start switch held to L or R

Front 284

What is the voltage limit during a start with the start switch held to start?

Back 284

Voltage may drop to 7 volts

Front 285

What is the amperage of the 28V GPU?

Back 285

1200-1600 amps

Front 286

What is the minimum voltage required to get the magnetic latch to close for GPU usage?

Back 286

10 volts

Front 287

What does the blue EXT PWR AVAIL light indicate?

Back 287

GPU is connected to the A/C and supplying at least 7 volts

Front 288

How many generators on each engine?

Back 288

2 (DC & AC)

Front 289

When is the starter/generator acting as a starter?

Back 289

During engine start when Ng is between 0-55%

Front 290

Are batteries being used for a cross generator start?

Back 290

Yes, the batteries assist the generator to achieve a faster cooler start

Front 291

When is the GEN relay automatically opened?

Back 291

-GCU detects a malfunction (except overheating)
-External power is used
-Fire handle has been pulled

Front 292

When is the Gen relay light expected to be on?

Back 292

-When the respective Gen switch is off
-When external power is powering the A/C
-When a Fire handle has been pulled
-When engine Ng is less than 55%
-With a failure of the Gen

Front 293

How many electrical buses does the Saab 340 have?

Back 293

(21)

Front 294

What minimum Ng is required to connect the starter / generator to the GEN BUS?

Back 294

55%

Front 295

What is indicated by an illuminated L/R GEN light?

Back 295

The respective Gen relay is open (gen offline)

Front 296

The starter/generators are rated at what voltage?

Back 296

28 volts

Front 297

An illuminated GEN OV TEMP light on the overhead panel indicates what?

Back 297

Generator is overheated (150º)

Front 298

Can the Generators be “online” with EXT PWR on?

Back 298

No, the relay automatically opens

Front 299

What 3 conditions must be met for the GEN relay to close?

Back 299

-EXT PWR must be off
-Engine start complete
-Gen field reset

Front 300

What is indicated by an illuminated L/R MAIN BUS light?

Back 300

The associated main bus is unpowered

Front 301

What is indicated by an illuminated L/R ESS BUS light?

Back 301

Associated bus is not powered

Front 302

What is the purpose of the Bus Tie relay?

Back 302

To connect the left and right busses to run off one power source

Front 303

What is indicated by an illuminated BUS TIE CONN light?

Back 303

The bus tie relay is closed

Front 304

What are three reasons the Bus Tie relay closes?

Back 304

-EXT PWR is on
-Only one Generator is operating
-Either the LEFT or BOTH Batteries are on

Front 305

What is the purpose of the bus tie over-current relay?

Back 305

To protect the Main Distribution system in case of a short

Front 306

Bus Tie relay opens if the over-current exceeds how many amps?

Back 306

800 amps

Front 307

Can the Bus Tie over-current be reset manually?

Back 307

Yes, through the K-1 reset button

Front 308

What is required to close the Utility Bus relay (RCCB)?

Back 308

EXT PWR on
or
Both generators on

Front 309

What powers the Emergency Avionics Bus?

Back 309

The Emergency Bus, when the ESS AVION switch is on

Front 310

Where does the battery bus receive power from normally?

Back 310

Gen bus

Front 311

The left battery is connected to which bus?

Back 311

Start bus

Front 312

While on battery power alone what lights illuminate on the DC ELEC panel?

Back 312

-BUS TIE CONN
-L/R GEN
-L/R MAIN BUS
-EMER PWR (If BUS is below 24V)

Front 313

With the GPU powering the A/C what lights illuminate on the DC ELEC panel?

Back 313

-White EXT PWR
-L/R GEN
-L/R BAT

Front 314

What is the power source for the 115/26V AC system?

Back 314

2 115/26V AC inverters powered by the DC system

Front 315

What is indicated by an illuminated INVERTER light?

Back 315

Inverter switch is set to OFF
OR
Associated 115 volt Inverter has failed

Front 316

With a Failure of the 26V output of the inverter what warnings are given?

Back 316

No CWP warning or cautions,
but an RMI failure and VOR CDI failure will occur

Front 317

What is the power source for the “wild” frequency 115V AC system?

Back 317

2 engine driven AC generators

Front 318

What is the “wild” frequency 115V AC power used for?

Back 318

Ice protection

Front 319

Why is the AC GEN called the “wild” frequency?

Back 319

Frequency varies with prop RPM, (460Hz to 640Hz)

Front 320

Where is the “wild” frequency generator located?

Back 320

In the prop gear box

Front 321

What is the minimum prop RPM for an AC GEN to supply power?

Back 321

1000 RPM

Front 322

If prop RPM drops below 1000 RPM, how is the AC GEN reset?

Back 322

Automatically resets when prop RPM increases above 1000 RPM

Front 323

What does an illuminated AC GEN light indicate?

Back 323

Generator is off line

Front 324

What five items can be powered by the Emergency battery?

Back 324

-Master Warning
-Bus tie relay CONN
-Fire Detection
-Tailpipe hot Detection
-Emergency voltage indication

Front 325

What items are on the EMER AVIONICS BUS?

Back 325

-VHF COMM 1,
-Standby Horizon

Front 326

What 3 conditions must be met for a battery relay to close?

Back 326

-BAT switch on
-EXT PWR off
-Battery temp below 71ºC

Front 327

What cools the DC generator?

Back 327

Ram air in flight and fans on the ground

Front 328

What lights illuminate with a TAIL PIPE HOT condition?

Back 328

-Master Warning,
-TAIL P HOT CWP light

Front 329

What does a TAIL Pipe Hot light indicate?

Back 329

Associate Tail Pipe over temperature has been reached

Front 330

What indications are given when a fire is detected in the engine nacelle?

Back 330

-Master Warning
-ENG FIRE CWP light
-Fire Bell
-Fire handle light illuminates

Front 331

What is required to discharge an Engine Fire Bottle?

Back 331

Fire Handle must be pulled
and
FIRE EXTG switch to ON

Front 332

How many Halon fire bottles are there per engine nacelle?

Back 332

1 Bottle

Front 333

How is fire protection supplied after the first bottle has been discharged?

Back 333

The 2nd bottle is routed through a manifold to the engine with the pulled fire handle

Front 334

How does the fire loop detect an engine fire condition?

Back 334

Through a drop in resistance due to heat build up

Front 335

What happens if a rapid change in resistance is noted (a short) in the fire loop?

Back 335

A FIRE DET FAIL light on the CWP
and
A master caution light will illuminate

Front 336

What is being checked with the FIRE SHORT switch on test panel 1?

Back 336

Checking the Fire Detect Loop

Front 337

What does an AVIONICS SMOKE light indicate?

Back 337

Smoke is detected in the Avionics rack

Front 338

What does a CARGO SMOKE light indicate?

Back 338

Smoke has been detected in the Cargo area

Front 339

How long will the Avionic, Lav or Cargo Smoke lights stay on?

Back 339

As long as the Smoke condition lasts

Front 340

How many smoke detectors are in the cargo compartment?

Back 340

2

Front 341

What does the white CARGO EXT light indicate?

Back 341

Fire bottle has discharged (may take up to 15 min)

Front 342

What is the minimum time between discharging Cargo bottle #1 and #2?

Back 342

2 minutes (to prevent an overpressure condition of the compartment)

Front 343

What is the recommended time between discharging the #1 and #2 fire bottles?

Back 343

Protection is guaranteed for 60 minutes if bottle 2 is discharged at 25 minutes

Front 344

How much time does a 2 bottle system provide protection for?

Back 344

60 minutes

Front 345

How much time does a 1 bottle system provide protection for?

Back 345

35 minutes

Front 346

What type of suppressant is in the Cargo fire bottles?

Back 346

Halon

Front 347

What does a LAV SMOKE light indicate?

Back 347

Smoke detected in the Lav area

Front 348

How is an Avionics Fire Extinguished?

Back 348

Portable Halon bottle is discharged through a port on bulkhead behind the captain

Front 349

How is the Lav trash bin fire extinguisher activated?

Back 349

Automatically by a heat sensitive plug

Front 350

What actions take place when the fire handle is pulled?

Back 350

-Silences the fire bell
-Opens the Gen relay
-Resets the Fire warning systems
-Arms both fire bottle squibs
-Closes the Fuel Shut off Valve
-Closes the Bleed Valves for the affected engine

Front 351

What crew actions are required if an Avionics Smoke light illuminates?

Back 351

-O2 masks on
-Smoke goggles on
-Establish Communication

Front 352

What other type of fire extinguisher is used for Lav Smoke and fires?

Back 352

Pressurized water bottle extinguisher

Front 353

If the ENG FIRE still exists after 1st bottle has been discharged, how long do you wait before you discharge the second bottle?

Back 353

30 seconds

Front 354

Are both L/R flight instruments conventional Pitot/Static instruments?

Back 354

No, the FO’s are.
The Captains are electric and powered by the ADC

Front 355

Where does the Rudder Limiter get its Airspeed signals from?

Back 355

Both the ADC and Standby Pitot/Static system

Front 356

What does the right Pitot tube supply?

Back 356

Right side instruments

Front 357

Is the ADC used for both sides of instrumentations?

Back 357

No, the Captain’s only

Front 358

What prevents the FO’s Altimeter from sticking due to rapid press and temp changes?

Back 358

An internal vibrator

Front 359

What is being tested on the left Airspeed Indicator with the test button?

Back 359

That the warning flag appears and both pointers move to 170kts and then to zero

Front 360

What does a red warning flag on the Airspeed indicator mean?

Back 360

-Test button had been pushed
-ADC Failure
-Indicator has failed

Front 361

What does a red warning flag on the left Altimeter mean?

Back 361

-Test button has been pushed
-ADC failure
-Indicator has failed

Front 362

What does TAS in the upper left hand corner of the EHSI indicate?

Back 362

True Airspeed in knots

Front 363

The Altitude Alerter light will illuminate within ______ feet of target altitude?

Back 363

1000’

Front 364

The Altitude Alerter light will extinguish when within _____ of target Alt?

Back 364

200’

Front 365

What do red dashes in the upper left hand corner of the EHSI indicate?

Back 365

Loss of ADC speed information

Front 366

What is the purpose of the HDG SLAVE button?

Back 366

To rapidly slave the related compass cards to the current heading detected by the related flux detector

Front 367

How long does it take to initialize the AHRS system?

Back 367

70 seconds

Front 368

Should the Aircraft be moved while the AHRS computer is in initialization mode?

Back 368

No

Front 369

With a failure of the #2 AHRS system what instrumentation is lost?

Back 369

-Left side RMI heading information
-Auto pilot can not be used
-Right side heading and Attitude information not displayed on right EFIS screens

Front 370

What is the X SIDE DATA switch used for?

Back 370

To supply opposite side AHRS to the EFIS screens

Front 371

Where does the left RMI get its heading information?

Back 371

#2 AHRS

Front 372

What will the indication be if the right DPU Fails?

Back 372

Both EADI and EHSI will be blank

Front 373

With the DRIVE XFR selected, what does the MFD display?

Back 373

The EHSI from the side where DRIVE XFR is selected

Front 374

What is the DRIVE XFR switch used for?

Back 374

To use opposite side DPU or MPU (if equipped) to display information

Front 375

During an ILS missed approach, if GA is not used an AVIONICS light will illuminate. Why?

Back 375

Loss of GS and LOC will cause an alarm

Front 376

What does a DCP light indicate?

Back 376

Display control panel failure

Front 377

What functions are lost with a DCP failure?

Back 377

Associated side looses DH function and the ability to change Nav course

Front 378

How many degrees of heading are displayed in Sector Mode?

Back 378

80º, 40º each side of actual heading

Front 379

What does the DEV pushbutton do?

Back 379

Enters Map Mode while operating in sector mode

Front 380

What does the 2nd CRS pushbutton do?

Back 380

Displays the opposite side course on the EHSI

Front 381

What does ET mean on the EHSI screen?

Back 381

Elapsed time

Front 382

What happens when the ET pushbutton is pressed?

Back 382

If the timer is at 0:00 it starts the time,
if time is running it resets the time to 0:00

Front 383

What does the DTA pushbutton do?

Back 383

Eliminates the extra data from the EHSI screen

Front 384

What is the TFC pushbutton on the MFD used for?

Back 384

To display Traffic or TCAS info

Front 385

What is the NAV/RDR pushbutton used for?

Back 385

Toggles MFD between Nav, Radar, and Nav/Radar screens

Front 386

What are the Arrows on the bottom row of the MFD used for?

Back 386

Controls the range of TCAS or Map while in Radar mode

Front 387

What does the Joystick on the MFD do?

Back 387

While in Nav mode, deflection displays waypoint with course and distance

Front 388

What is the maximum Radio Altitude indication?

Back 388

2500’

Front 389

What does WX mode allow for on the WX Radar?

Back 389

It enables the automatic cyclic contour mode. The first sweep is contoured, and the second sweep is noncontoured

Front 390

What power supply is required to have the EFIS system working?

Back 390

28 VDC

Front 391

How are the primary flight controls operated?

Back 391

Mechanically

Front 392

How are the Trims operated?

Back 392

Electrically

Front 393

How are the Flaps operated?

Back 393

Hydraulically

Front 394

What joins the ailerons together?

Back 394

Aileron Interconnect unit

Front 395

Which side aileron trim is operated when the main trim is used?

Back 395

Left side

Front 396

Which side aileron trim is operated if the Standby trim is used?

Back 396

Right side

Front 397

What makes up the Interconnect unit?

Back 397

A friction device to hold the two ailerons together

Front 398

How can the ailerons be reconnected after the roll disconnect has been pulled?

Back 398

Only by maintenance on the ground

Front 399

How are the two elevators joined together?

Back 399

Elevator Interconnect unit

Front 400

Which elevator trim moves when the yoke mounted trim switch is moved?

Back 400

Both main and standby when PITCH TRIM is synched

Front 401

What allows the main and standby trims to operate together?

Back 401

The pitch trim synchronizer

Front 402

How are the Main and Standby trims separated from each other?

Back 402

By operating the Standby trim switch

Front 403

How are the main and Standby trims tied together?

Back 403

Pitch trim synchronizer

Front 404

If the left control wheel trim switch is operated and the right wheel switch operated in the other direction how do the trims respond?

Back 404

The Captain’s trim will override the FO’s trim

Front 405

When would you get a CONFIG CWP light?

Back 405

During T/O when:
-Pitch trims are out of takeoff range “green arc”
-Condition levers not at Max
-Flaps are beyond 15º
-When attempting to start the #1 engine and the FI Stop Override switch is pulled

Front 406

If takeoff is attempted with the trims outside of the green arc what happens?

Back 406

-Master Warning,
-CONFIG CWP,
-Intermittent Horn

Front 407

A stall warning is provided by what simultaneous indications?

Back 407

-An Aural Clacker
-A Stick Shaker

Front 408

At Stall Threshold what happens?

Back 408

The Stick Pusher activates

Front 409

How much pressure does the Stick Pusher generate?

Back 409

80 pounds of force

Front 410

What lights will illuminate as the Stick Pusher activates?

Back 410

PUSH 1 and PUSH 2 on both sides of the panel

Front 411

How is the Stick Pusher Overridden?

Back 411

By overpowering the 80lbs of force

Front 412

What are the 3 warning signs of a stall?

Back 412

-Stick shaker,
-Clacker,
-PUSH lights

Front 413

How is the Stick Pusher deactivated?

Back 413

Reduce the Angle of Attack
or
Pressing the PUSHER DISARM button

Front 414

What is being checked when the stall test switches are both pushed down?

Back 414

The .5g sensor is functioning properly, and the pusher does not activate

Front 415

When testing the stall system what is being checked?

Back 415

-Associated PUSH light illuminates
-Aural alert (clacker)
-Stick shaker
-With both switches up stick pusher activates along with PUSH 1 and PUSH 2
-With both switches down pusher does not activate with PUSH 1 and PUSH 2

Front 416

How can the Pusher System be reset after deactivation?

Back 416

Only by maintenance

Front 417

When is the Stick Pusher inhibited?

Back 417

-While on the ground
-After takeoff for 7 seconds
-Anytime load factor is less than .5g

Front 418

What angle does the Stick Pusher move the elevator to?

Back 418

4º nose down

Front 419

How long is the Stick Pusher sustained for?

Back 419

-As long as the excessive AOA exist
-Load factor less than .5g

Front 420

What does a STALL FAIL CWP light indicate?

Back 420

A fault detected in a stall warning/ident computer

Front 421

What is the purpose of the Rudder Limiter?

Back 421

To limit rudder travel at high airspeeds

Front 422

What are the speed and travel limits of the Rudder Limit system?

Back 422

-Full travel (up to 30º) at speeds up to 150 knots
-Intermediate travel (up to 15º) at speeds between 150-200 Knots
-Minimum travel (up to 5.7º) at speeds above 200 Knots

Front 423

What does a RUDDER LIMIT CWP light indicate?

Back 423

Discrepancies between monitored Airspeeds
or
An improperly positioned limiting mechanism

Front 424

What is the Purpose of the RUD LIM switch?

Back 424

In OVRD, allows full rudder travel by retracting rudder limiting mechanism

Front 425

What kind of flaps does the Saab 340 have?

Back 425

Single panel Fowler flaps

Front 426

Are the flaps operated as a single unit?

Back 426

No,
they are 2 individual flaps operated by a single hydraulic actuator for each flap

Front 427

What keeps the flaps from a split flap condition?

Back 427

A mechanical Interconnection

Front 428

What are the flap detent settings?

Back 428

0,
7,
15,
20,
35 degrees

Front 429

What is indicated by an illuminated FLAPS CWP light?

Back 429

Failure of the flap controller
or
Disagreement between Flap handle selection and left Flap position

Front 430

Does a split flap automatically trigger a FLAPS CWP light?

Back 430

No,
if the left flap agrees then no light

Front 431

If the flap controller fails what are the indications?

Back 431

-FLAPS CWP light
-Master Caution
-Flaps become locked in position without further control

Front 432

With a flap controller failure how could the crew verify flap position?

Back 432

By use of the flap angle marks on the flap

Front 433

At what settings are the gates located during flap retraction?

Back 433

7 and 20 degrees

Front 434

What position do the Gust locks fail to?

Back 434

Unlocked

Front 435

How do the GUST LOCKS prohibit Takeoff while engaged?

Back 435

Power lever movement is limited

Front 436

When would you get a GUST LOCK CWP light?

Back 436

When the Gust Lock is released and the rudder fails to unlock

Front 437

Are the aileron and elevator gust locks electric or mechanical?

Back 437

Mechanical

Front 438

Is the Rudder gust lock electric or mechanical?

Back 438

Electrical

Front 439

How are the trim switches operated?

Back 439

Both switches must be moved together

Front 440

What is the Maximum combined fuel on the Saab 340?

Back 440

(5690lbs) (850 gals)

Front 441

What is the Maximum fuel per wing?

Back 441

(2845lbs) (425 gals)

Front 442

Does the Saab 340 have negative G fuel capabilities?

Back 442

Yes,
through the negative g canister in the hopper tank

Front 443

What does an illuminated LOW LEVEL indicate?

Back 443

Less than 300 lbs ± 70 lbs in the respective tank

Front 444

Does the Fuel quantity indicator show usable or total fuel?

Back 444

Usable

Front 445

How many ways are there to check fuel quantity and what are they?

Back 445

3:
-Fuel quantity indicators,
-Magnetic sticks,
-Fuel panel gauges

Front 446

At what quantity do the magnetic fuel quantity indicators become useful?

Back 446

When fuel levels are below 1100 lbs

Front 447

Where are the Standby pressure pumps located?

Back 447

In the hopper tank

Front 448

What does an illuminated MAIN PUMP light indicate?

Back 448

A failure of the main pump

Front 449

When is the STBY PUMP activated?

Back 449

MAIN PUMP failure

Front 450

What does an illuminated green STBY PRESS light indicate?

Back 450

Standby pressure is detected at a main pump inlet

Front 451

Can the right pump supply fuel to the left engine?

Back 451

Yes, through the cross feed valve

Front 452

What powers the Standby pressure pumps?

Back 452

Respective Battery Bus

Front 453

What powers the Main Pumps?

Back 453

Engine accessory gear box

Front 454

What supplies fuel to the engine during engine start?

Back 454

Standby pressure pump

Front 455

When does the automatic activation of the STBY PRESS pump not occur with a decrease in Main pump pressure?

Back 455

With the condition lever in fuel off

Front 456

How many fuel pumps are on the Saab?

Back 456

6:
-2 main pumps,
-2 standby pumps and
-2 high pressure pumps in the HMU

Front 457

What lights on the overhead panel do not trigger a CWP FUEL light?

Back 457

-X FEED ON
-CONN VLV
-STBY PRESS

Front 458

How is the Fuel Shut Off valve closed?

Back 458

Pulling of the Fire Handle

Front 459

What is indicated by an illuminated VALVE CLOSED light?

Back 459

Fuel shut off valve is closed

Front 460

What is indicated by an illuminated XFEED ON light?

Back 460

The cross feed valve is open

Front 461

What is indicated by an illuminated CONN VALVE light?

Back 461

The fuel connect valve is open

Front 462

What is the purpose of the fuel connect valve?

Back 462

To balance fuel by gravity transfer

Front 463

What is indicated by an illuminated FUEL FILTER light?

Back 463

An impending bypass of the Fuel filter (>18 psid)

Front 464

What is the maximum pressure for single point refueling?

Back 464

50 psi

Front 465

What does an illuminated FUELING light indicate?

Back 465

The fuel panel switch is selected ON
The defueling valve is open

Front 466

Where does the fueling panel get power from?

Back 466

Right Hot battery bus

Front 467

If an automatic level control circuit fails and causes an overfill, what happens?

Back 467

An overfill sensor in each outboard tank closes the related valve and illuminates the OVERFULL light to come on

Front 468

To achieve maximum capacity what fueling procedure is used?

Back 468

Over wing fueling

Front 469

How is defueling accomplished?

Back 469

Pressure defueling uses Standby pumps to pump fuel from the aircraft Suction defueling requires the fuel truck to draw fuel from the aircraft

Front 470

The hydraulic system supplies pressure for the operation of what?

Back 470

-Flaps,
-Landing gear,
-Brakes,
-Nose wheel steering

Front 471

Are Hydraulic lines routed to their respective systems inside the aircraft?

Back 471

No,
they are routed externally in “hydraulic tunnels”

Front 472

What pressurizes the main hydraulic reservoir?

Back 472

Emergency accumulator circuit

Front 473

What is the back up to the emergency accumulator for pressurizing the reservoir?

Back 473

Spring loaded piston

Front 474

What would cause a HYDR CWP light to illuminate with all gauges normal?

Back 474

High temperature has been noted in the main reservoir (116ºC)

Front 475

What supplies hydraulic fluid to the Hand Pump reservoir?

Back 475

Overflow fluid from the main reservoir

Front 476

What does the Hand Pump reservoir supply fluid to?

Back 476

Hand Pump

Front 477

What does the main reservoir supply fluid to?

Back 477

Electric hydraulic pump
and
Overflows to the Hand Pump Reservoir

Front 478

What is the normal source of pressure for the hydraulic system?

Back 478

Electric pump

Front 479

What electrical bus supplies power to the electric pump in AUTO?

Back 479

Left main bus

Front 480

What electrical bus supplies power to the electrical pump in OVRD?

Back 480

Left essential bus

Front 481

Why is it important to verify the BUS TIE CONN light illuminates during left engine shutdown while taxiing?

Back 481

Hydraulic pump is powered from the left main bus

Front 482

With a failure of the electric hydraulic pump can the main accumulator be pressurized?

Back 482

Yes,
with the hand pump

Front 483

What does the Main Accumulator supply pressure to?

Back 483

-Nose wheel steering
-Flap actuation
-Gear retraction and extension
-To pressurize the brake accumulators

Front 484

At what pressure does the Pressure relief valve vent pressure?

Back 484

3750 psi

Front 485

Is there protection for an overpressure of the hydraulic system?

Back 485

Yes,
the pressure relief valve

Front 486

Where does the Pressure relief valve return fluid to?

Back 486

To the main reservoir

Front 487

Where does the Fluid from the hand pump get returned to after use?

Back 487

Main reservoir

Front 488

What is the most likely problem if a HYDR CWP light is illuminated and hydraulic quantity, main accumulator and inboard accumulator pressure all indicate low?

Back 488

A leak in the inboard brake

Front 489

What is the normal operating pressure in AUTO mode?

Back 489

2100 psi - 2900 psi

Front 490

What is the operating pressure when the pump is in OVRD?

Back 490

3000 psi

Front 491

What causes the electric pump to automatically activate?

Back 491

Pressure in the main accumulator decreases below 2100 psi
or
Landing gear is extended or retracted

Front 492

What can the Hand Pump pressurize?

Back 492

All accumulators except the Emergency accumulator

Front 493

The selector valve facilitates pressure of what?

Back 493

-Main accumulator
-Inboard brake accumulator
-Outboard brake accumulator

Front 494

Can the landing gear be hand pumped down with a total electrical failure?

Back 494

No,
the gear requires left battery bus power to operate the selector valve

Front 495

Can the flaps be hand pumped with a total electrical failure?

Back 495

No,
flap operation requires left battery bus to be powered

Front 496

With an outboard brake accumulator leak, can the main accumulator be pressurized by the Hand Pump?

Back 496

No,
the Main accumulator will equalize to the leaking brake accumulator

Front 497

Which accumulators have check valves?

Back 497

-Emergency accumulator
-Inboard brake accumulator
-Outboard brake accumulator

Front 498

What is the pressure of the nitrogen pre-charge in the accumulators?

Back 498

1650 psi

Front 499

What pressure is read on the gauges if hydraulic qty in the accumulator decreases to zero, leaving just the nitrogen pre-charge pressure?

Back 499

Zero psi on the gauges in the flight deck.
The actual accumulators should read 1650psi in the nose well

Front 500

What is the purpose of the Nitrogen charged accumulators?

Back 500

To absorb pump pulsations and surges caused by large fluid demands

Front 501

What pressure triggers a HYDR CWP light to illuminate?

Back 501

Pressure less than 1850 psi,
OR
High Temp

Front 502

Which accumulators will trigger the HYDR CWP light to illuminate with pressure below 1850 psi?

Back 502

Main accumulators
and
Emergency accumulators

Front 503

What is the Purpose of the Emergency accumulator?

Back 503

Emergency extension for up lock release
and
To pressurize the Main reservoir

Front 504

What is the indication for a hydraulic filter that is clogged and bypassed?

Back 504

Clog indicator button pops up on the filter housing

Front 505

What is being pressurized by the Hand Pump when the selector is in the FLAPS LDG GR position?

Back 505

The Main accumulator

Front 506

How many hydraulic accumulators are on the Saab 340?

Back 506

4

Front 507

Why do the brakes have 2 accumulators?

Back 507

One for inboard and one for outboard brake systems.
In case of a leak in one system brakes are still available

Front 508

What does the Emergency landing gear extension use hydraulic pressure for?

Back 508

To release the up locks and allow the gear to free fall

Front 509

Can the flaps be extended AND retracted with only the Hand Pump?

Back 509

Yes,
by pressurizing the main accumulator

Front 510

Where can the 1650 psi Nitrogen pressure be checked?

Back 510

Nose wheel well, right side of the aircraft

Front 511

Where are the hydraulic filter bypass pins located?

Back 511

Nose wheel well on the left side of the aircraft

Front 512

What does an illuminated HYDR CWP light indicate?

Back 512

Pressure in the main or emergency accumulators less than 1850 psi
or
High temp in the main reservoir (116ºC)

Front 513

Does the HYDR CWP light illuminate for low quantity?

Back 513

No

Front 514

Does the HYDR CWP light illuminate for high pressure?

Back 514

No

Front 515

Where is the Hand Pump handle stored?

Back 515

Behind the First Officer seat on the bulkhead

Front 516

Is the electric hydraulic pump protected by a resettable circuit breaker?

Back 516

No

Front 517

What is required for the SAAB to be dispatched into know icing conditions?

Back 517

All ice protection systems must be operable

Front 518

Can the SAAB be dispatched into icing conditions with side windshield INOP?

Back 518

No,
all systems must be operable

Front 519

Which electrical ice protection system is NOT powered by the AC Generator?

Back 519

Standby Pitot heat

Front 520

What powers the Standby Pitot heat?

Back 520

Right Essential Bus

Front 521

How long does it take for the standby pitot to reach full operating temperature?

Back 521

At least 5 minutes

Front 522

What is powered automatically when the 1st AC GEN comes online?

Back 522

-Main Pitot tubes,
-Temp probe,
-AOA vanes

Front 523

What is the power source for the OAT probe?

Back 523

115 V AC generator

Front 524

Is there a pilot controlled switch for the OAT Probe heating?

Back 524

No

Front 525

When is the OAT probe heated?

Back 525

From the time the gear is retracted till landing

Front 526

When is power supplied to the AOA vanes for heating?

Back 526

As soon as an AC Generator is online

Front 527

What is the power source for the windshield heat?

Back 527

115 Volt “wild” frequency bus

Front 528

What powers the 115 Volt “wild” frequency bus?

Back 528

AC Generator

Front 529

What is the time limit for side windshield heating?

Back 529

Operate in NORM for 7 minutes before selecting HIGH

Front 530

What is indicated by an illuminated L/R SIDE or L/R FRONT lights?

Back 530

Either an overheated windshield
OR
A controller fault

Front 531

If power is interrupted to a windshield causing a FRONT/SIDE light to illuminate, will the light extinguish when power is restored?

Back 531

No,
the switch must be turned off and then back on again to reset the system

Front 532

What does the AIR SUPPLY switch control?

Back 532

Controls a shut off valve to allow bleed air to the boot system

Front 533

What stage does the bleed air for engine anti-ice come from?

Back 533

5th stage

Front 534

When deflated what holds the boots “down” tight to the wing?

Back 534

Vacuum pressure

Front 535

What items use Bleed Air for Ice protection?

Back 535

-Boot De-Icing,
-Engine split lip,
-Engine guide vanes

Front 536

What order are the boots cycled in one cycle?

Back 536

-Stab,
-Outboard wing,
-Inboard wing,
-Stab

Front 537

Will the deice boots inflate with both bleed valves closed?

Back 537

Yes

Front 538

Will boots inflate with H/P valves closed?

Back 538

Yes

Front 539

Can boot inflation be monitored?

Back 539

Yes,
by watching the boot indicator lights

Front 540

How often are the boots cycled when operating in “CONT”?

Back 540

Every 3 minutes

Front 541

Does the CWP ICE PROT light illuminate with all the Icing systems?

Back 541

Yes

Front 542

What is indicated by an illuminated DE-ICE OV TEMP light?

Back 542

An over temperature has been noted in the boot system (>150ºC)

Front 543

What is indicated by an illuminated TIMER light?

Back 543

The de-ice timer valves are malfunctioning

Front 544

Can the pilot manually de-ice just the wings?

Back 544

Yes

Front 545

Can the pilot manually de-ice just the stabilizer?

Back 545

Yes

Front 546

How can the pilot de-ice just the outboard wing section?

Back 546

By pressing and holding the outboard push button for 6 seconds

Front 547

Why are HP valves kept in AUTO during flight in icing conditions?

Back 547

To insure proper boot inflation at low power settings

Front 548

What is indicated by an illuminated blue ENG ANTI-ICE light on the status panel?

Back 548

The associated Engine Intake switch is on

Front 549

Does the blue ENG ANTI-ICE status panel light extinguish with a failure of the Intake heat?

Back 549

No

Front 550

Which light on the status panel does NOT indicate system working properly?

Back 550

Engine Anti-Ice

Front 551

Which ice protection system can not be transferred to the opposite side AC GEN?

Back 551

Engine intake heat

Front 552

How is the inlet lip heated?

Back 552

Electrically

Front 553

How are the inlet frame vanes heated?

Back 553

Engine oil

Front 554

How is the splitter lip and guide vanes heated?

Back 554

Bleed air

Front 555

What controls bleed air to the splitter lip and guide vanes?

Back 555

Anti-Ice start bleed valve (AISBV)

Front 556

What is indicated by an illuminated L AIR VALVE light?

Back 556

Associated Air valve is not positioned properly

Front 557

What is indicated by an illuminated INTAKE light?

Back 557

Intake heat has failed or lost one or more phases

Front 558

Is prop ice protection used as a de-ice or anti-ice system?

Back 558

De-Ice

Front 559

When is Prop De-Ice turned on?

Back 559

When ice accretion is observed and SAT is -5ºC or colder

Front 560

What temperatures is NORM used for prop de-ice?

Back 560

-5ºC to -12ºC

Front 561

At what temperature does prop de-ice switch to MAX?

Back 561

Colder than 12ºC with ice accretion

Front 562

Why is it important to operate the props only after ice accretion?

Back 562

To avoid “run back” ice

Front 563

What is “run back” ice?

Back 563

Ice that melt and refreezes on the unheated section

Front 564

How much thrust is lost with “run back” ice on the props?

Back 564

Up to 30 percent of thrust

Front 565

Can the MAX mode be used between temperatures of -5ºC and -12ºC?

Back 565

Yes,
if propeller vibrations occur MAX can be used up to -10ºC until vibrations dissipate

Front 566

What is the procedure for switching from NORM to MAX on prop heat?

Back 566

Turn switch off before switching to MAX to avoid nuisance cautions

Front 567

Which Ice protection systems have a Flight Status panel light?

Back 567

Prop De-Ice,
and
Engine Intake

Front 568

What does an illuminated blue PROP DE-ICE light on the status panel indicate?

Back 568

Prop De-ice is working properly

Front 569

What is the difference between the Engine and Prop status panel lights?

Back 569

Engine is switch only and the prop is system status

Front 570

What is indicated by an illuminated L AC GEN light?

Back 570

Left AC GEN not supplying power

Front 571

What is indicated if a PROP DE-ICE status light is extinguished?

Back 571

Either the switch is turned off
OR
The system malfunctioned

Front 572

What are the cycle times in NORM for Prop De-Ice?

Back 572

11 seconds on,
79 seconds off

Front 573

What are the cycle times in MAX for Prop De-Ice?

Back 573

90 seconds on,
90 seconds off

Front 574

What is indicated with an illuminated PROP light on the overhead panel?

Back 574

Associated prop de-ice system is malfunctioning

Front 575

What is indicated by an illuminated STBY PITOT light?

Back 575

Standby pitot is not powered

Front 576

What is the purpose of the Park system on the windshield wiper?

Back 576

To return the wiper to the stowed position

Front 577

How many gear doors are there on each main gear?

Back 577

3

Front 578

How are the main gear doors attached to the gear?

Back 578

-2 doors mechanically linked, and
-3rd door is rigidly attached

Front 579

How is the gear door opened during preflight for inspection?

Back 579

Pull the release ring

Front 580

Does the gear swing forward or aft during retraction?

Back 580

Forward

Front 581

What is used for normal Gear extension and retraction?

Back 581

Hydraulic pressure

Front 582

What centers the nose wheel for retraction?

Back 582

Centering cams within the strut

Front 583

What is used to lock the gear in the down position?

Back 583

Over center extension and Hydraulic pressure

Front 584

What locks the gear up?

Back 584

Mechanical up locks

Front 585

What is used to open the up lock during normal gear extension?

Back 585

Hydraulic pressure

Front 586

How many weight on wheel switches per main gear?

Back 586

2

Front 587

How many weight on wheels on the nose gear?

Back 587

0

Front 588

How is the gear retracted if a weight on wheel switch fails?

Back 588

By pressing the down lock release pushbutton

Front 589

What lights illuminate while pressing the gear test button?

Back 589

-Left,
-Nose,
-Right main gear lights and
-Amber gear lever light

Front 590

Which gear must be locked down for the Amber light to extinguish?

Back 590

All gear must be down and locked

Front 591

When is a CONFIG warning given for an unsafe Landing Gear condition?

Back 591

Any gear is not down and locked AND RA <500’AGL,
or
1 or both power levers are below the 64º angle

Front 592

What altitude does the EGPWS provide “to low gear”?

Back 592

500’ AGL

Front 593

At what flap angle with gear not down and locked is a CONFIG WARNING alert given?

Back 593

Greater than 15º

Front 594

Which CWP light will illuminate if the gear is not locked down by 500’ RA?

Back 594

CONFIG

Front 595

What prevents gear retraction on the ground?

Back 595

A spring loaded latch pin

Front 596

What does pushing the Down lock release button do?

Back 596

Mechanically releases the latch pin

Front 597

What is used for emergency extension?

Back 597

-Gravity,
-Airflow, and
-Assisted by springs

Front 598

Does the gear handle have to be in the down position for emergency EXTENSION?

Back 598

No

Front 599

What’s lost if Emergency extension is used and the gear handle is not down?

Back 599

Anti-skid arming

Front 600

After Emergency extension will the gear doors be open or closed?

Back 600

Open

Front 601

During Emergency Extension what separates the gear doors from the actuating linkages?

Back 601

Explosive bolts

Front 602

How are the brake pads preflight checked?

Back 602

By observing the wear pins

Front 603

What determines if the brake pad wear indicators are within limits?

Back 603

If the indicators extend above the circular casing

Front 604

How are the brakes operated?

Back 604

Hydraulically

Front 605

How many brake systems on the aircraft?

Back 605

2:
-Inboard brakes
-Outboard brakes

Front 606

At what speed does the Anti-skid cut out?

Back 606

20 knots

Front 607

What protects the tire from over pressure due to brake temperatures?

Back 607

Pressure relief blow out plugs

Front 608

What is the purpose of the Anti-skid system?

Back 608

To limit brake pressure and avoid locked wheels

Front 609

How does the Anti-skid determine if a wheel is “skidding”?

Back 609

Compares inboard and outboard wheel speed

Front 610

What is required for Anti-skid operation?

Back 610

-Anti-skid switch ON AND landing gear handle down
AND
-PL below flight idle

or
-WOW switch activated

or
-Average Wheel Speed above 50kts

Front 611

What is touchdown brake protection?

Back 611

Prevents brake application for 3 seconds after main gear compression or wheel speed exceeds 50Kts

Front 612

Can the brakes be set without getting a CWP light?

Back 612

Yes

Front 613

Can the brakes be set without the PARK BRK ON CWP light illuminated?

Back 613

Yes,
(1500psi sets the brake, 1700psi required for light to illuminate)

Front 614

At what psi does the PARK BRK ON light extinguish?

Back 614

Less than 900psi

Front 615

What psi is required for the PARK BRK ON light to illuminate?

Back 615

1700psi

Front 616

How is the parking brake set?

Back 616

-Pulling the handle up,
-Rotating 30º clockwise,
-Pushing the brake pedals

Front 617

What does the lockout switch do to the nose wheel steering system?

Back 617

When activated, inhibits tiller function to prevent NWS activation during ground handling ops

Front 618

When must the nose gear pin be installed?

Back 618

During pushback or towing

Front 619

How many degrees of steering does the NWS provide?

Back 619

60º either side of center

Front 620

What does pushing the tiller down do electrically?

Back 620

Electrically opens the steering shutoff valve

Front 621

What does pushing the tiller down do mechanically?

Back 621

Mechanically engages the tiller wheel

Front 622

What is the purpose of the C-Clip (gear pin)?

Back 622

Deactivates the steering system for ground handling

Front 623

What is the max steering deflection for operations?

Back 623

120º or 90º (depending on MOD)

Front 624

Can the nose wheel rotate all the way around?

Back 624

Yes

Front 625

What is indicated by an illuminated Anti-skid CWP light?

Back 625

A system fault or gear is down with Anti-skid off

Front 626

How many emergency exits are on the Saab 340?

Back 626

5

Front 627

Which side is recommended for emergency exit through the cockpit escape hatch?

Back 627

Left side due to the strap length

Front 628

Where is the crash axe located?

Back 628

Behind the captains seat on the bulkhead

Front 629

How long is a PBE’s air supply useful?

Back 629

15 minutes

Front 630

How is the PBE activated?

Back 630

By pulling the straps on each side of the hood forward, then rearward to secure

Front 631

Why must the PBE hood not be removed in the presence of fire?

Back 631

Due to the oxygen concentrations in the hood

Front 632

What does a flashing red light on the Cabin Flashlight indicate?

Back 632

Batteries are serviceable

Front 633

How many O2 mask in the cockpit?

Back 633

3

Front 634

How many smoke goggles in the cockpit?

Back 634

3

Front 635

How many life vests are in the cockpit?

Back 635

3

Front 636

What type of Fire Extinguisher is located in the cockpit?

Back 636

1 Halon Bottle

Front 637

Where is the water extinguisher stored?

Back 637

Forward Entry storage area

Front 638

How is the water extinguisher activated?

Back 638

Turn the handle fully clockwise to puncture the CO2 cartridge in the handle

Front 639

What type of fires would the water extinguisher be used on?

Back 639

Paper, textiles, etc.

Front 640

What type of fire would the water extinguisher not be used on?

Back 640

Liquid fire, metal fire and anytime electricity is involved

Front 641

Where is the Automatic Defibrillator located?

Back 641

In the right hand overhead storage bin

Front 642

What is stored in the last right hand overhead storage bin?

Back 642

-Grab-n-go kit (if available)
-AED unit
-Enhanced Medical kit

Front 643

What is stored under seat 12D ?

Back 643

-First Aid Kit
-PBE
-Halon Extinguisher

Front 644

When must the Emergency Lights be armed?

Back 644

Anytime the Aircraft is moving under its own power

Front 645

Where are the Emergency light batteries located?

Back 645

Under the cabin floor

Front 646

How long do the Emergency Light Batteries last?

Back 646

At least 10 minutes

Front 647

When do the Emergency lights automatically activate?

Back 647

Anytime power is lost is lost on the right main bus with the switch in ARMED

Front 648

How can the Emergency lights be turned off if activated automatically?

Back 648

The switch to off as long as there is right essential power available

Front 649

What is the main O2 system normally charged to?

Back 649

1850psi

Front 650

What protects the O2 system from overpressure?

Back 650

A pressure relief valve vent

Front 651

What indicates a thermal discharge of the O2 system?

Back 651

The green blow out plugs are missing

Front 652

What does an illuminated OXYGEN CWP light indicate?

Back 652

O2 pressure is less than 800 ±35psi

Front 653

Does the main O2 knob have to be pulled to get PAX O2 to the outlets?

Back 653

Yes,
both the main and the PAX O2 valve lever must be open

Front 654

What is required for the O2 masks to be able to communicate with ATC?

Back 654

Boom/Mask switch selected to Mask

Front 655

During preflight what setting is selected for O2 use on the mask?

Back 655

100%

Front 656

What does selecting normal on the O2 mask do?

Back 656

Uncovers the screen to dilute O2 commensurate with cabin altitude

Front 657

During periods of smoke what setting is used on the O2 mask?

Back 657

100%

Front 658

What is the vent valve on the O2 mask used for?

Back 658

Pulling the valve allows O2 to vent or defog the smoke goggles

Front 659

What does the Emergency selector do on the O2 mask?

Back 659

Provides a continuous flow of O2 to keep fumes or smoke out of the mask

Front 660

How is a PA announcement made while wearing the O2 mask?

Back 660

By pressing the PA button on the side console where the mask plugs in

Front 661

How is communication with the flight attendant accomplished with O2 masks on?

Back 661

A PA has to be made by pressing the PA pushbutton on the side console

Front 662

What is the minimum psi for the portable O2 bottle?

Back 662

GREEN ARC (1750 psi)

Front 663

How long will the portable O2 bottle last?

Back 663

Will flow for a minimum of 60 minutes

Front 664

What is the first aid bottle psi?

Back 664

GREEN ARC (minimum 1800 psi)

Front 665

How long will the first aid bottle last?

Back 665

Varies from 20 minutes to 30 minutes

Front 666

Who is authorized to use the medical kit?

Back 666

Only licensed physicians

Front 667

What engines are on the Saab 340B?

Back 667

GE CT7-9B

Front 668

How much power do the CT7-9B engines produce?

Back 668

1750 SHP at 35ºC at seal level

Front 669

What controls the inlet variable guide vanes?

Back 669

Hydro mechanical unit (HMU)

Front 670

How many fuel pumps are installed on each engine?

Back 670

2
(3 if you include the STDBY pump in the hopper tank)

Front 671

What fuel pumps are installed on each engine?

Back 671

-HMU HP pump
-Main fuel pump

Front 672

How many fuel pumps are there on the Saab 340?

Back 672

6:
-2 standby pumps,
-2main pumps,
-2 HMU HP pumps

Front 673

What is used to prevent bird ingestion into the engine?

Back 673

Inlet protection device (inertial separator)

Front 674

Where are objects directed after being caught in the Inlet protection device?

Back 674

Overboard through a duct on the underside of the nacelle

Front 675

Where do items such as sand and hail exit after being separated from airflow?

Back 675

Through the separator duct and out the tailpipe

Front 676

What prevents power levers from being retarded below flight idle in flight?

Back 676

Automatic Flight Idle Stop

Front 677

The Flight Idle Stop automatically opens at touchdown with what inputs?

Back 677

-Both main gear down lock switches
-Anti-skid computer (for wheel speed monitoring)
-Both weight-on-wheel systems

Front 678

What is the placarded operating range for the power levers?

Back 678

-REV,
-GND IDLE,
-FLT IDLE

Front 679

What position on the power lever is identified by a detent?

Back 679

GND IDLE

Front 680

How is the FI Stop opened with a WOW failure?

Back 680

By pulling the FI STOP OVRD knob

Front 681

When is the FI Stop Automatically opened?

Back 681

-When either main gear is down locked
AND:
-Any wheel speed exceeds 25kts
OR
-Either WOW detects the A/C on the ground

Front 682

If the gear is not retracted when does the FI stop automatically close?

Back 682

-Both WOW systems detect the A/C is airborne
-All wheel speeds decrease below 9kts

Front 683

What indication is given if while on the ground with the FI STOP OVRD knob pulled, the left engine is started?

Back 683

A red CONFIG warning

Front 684

Can the CONFIG warning be cancelled for a FI STOP OVRD knob pulled while starting the left engine?

Back 684

No.
The condition lever must be returned to FUEL OFF

Front 685

What is the placarded operating range for condition levers?

Back 685

-FUEL OFF,
-FEATHER,
-START,
-UNF,
-MIN-MAX,
-T/M

Front 686

The engine driven alternator supplies the Engine Electrical System through 3 separate outputs for the operation of what?

Back 686

{D.I.E.}:
-DECU power supply
-Ignition exciter power supply
-ENG (Ng) indicator signal

Front 687

Are there any controls or indications for the Engine Electrical System?

Back 687

No

Front 688

What are the three modes of the ignition system?

Back 688

-Start ignition,
-Auto ignition,
-Continuous ignition

Front 689

When is Start Ignition available?

Back 689

When the switch is in NORM, ignition is:
-activated when the start relay closes and,
-terminates when the start relay opens at the end of a start cycle

Front 690

Auto Ignition occurs when the DECU detects what?

Back 690

Engine flameout
OR
Np over- speed

Front 691

How long is Auto ignition activated for?

Back 691

At least 7 seconds

Front 692

When is Continuous Ignition active?

Back 692

When the switch is selected to CONT
OR
when power is lost from the respective battery
bus

Front 693

When will the respective IGN light illuminate on the status panel?

Back 693

Anytime the switch is selected to CONT
OR
When NORM is selected and any of the following occur:
-Engine start cycle
-Auto relight is activated
-Control power is lost
-The power turbine over-speeds

Front 694

What is used to prevent fuel filter icing?

Back 694

Fuel Heater

Front 695

What is the heat source for the fuel heater?

Back 695

Prop gear box oil

Front 696

Is fuel heating pilot controlled?

Back 696

No,
it is automatically regulated by a thermal sensor

Front 697

Can the engine operate without a working main pump?

Back 697

Yes,
standby pressure is sufficient

Front 698

Can the engine operate without a HP pump from the HMU?

Back 698

No

Front 699

What functions does the HMU provide?

Back 699

-Fuel scheduling through the metering valve for Ng governing
-Controls actuation of the inlet guide vanes and anti-ice start bleed valve
-Protects the gas generator spool from over speeding
-Accomplishes engine shutdown by means of the fuel shutoff valve

Front 700

How does the HMU protect the gas generator from over speeding?

Back 700

By automatically shutting fuel off at 110% Ng

Front 701

The DECU accomplishes what functions?

Back 701

{N.A.B.}:
-Np over speed protection
-Auto ignition
-Bottom Governing

Front 702

At what speed does the DECU shut off fuel for NP over speeding?

Back 702

25000 power turbine RPM
OR
1572 PRPM

Front 703

When will the fuel shut off valve be reopened due to a prop over speed?

Back 703

When power turbine RPM decreases below 25000 RPM

Front 704

What prop RPM does bottom governing maintain?

Back 704

Minimum of 1040 PRPM

Front 705

During maximum reversing prop RPM increases to what RPM?

Back 705

1200 PRPM

Front 706

Where must the condition lever be in order to obtain bottom governing?

Back 706

MIN-MAX range

Front 707

What is the function of Bottom governing?

Back 707

To maintain a minimum prop RPM during taxi and reverse operations

Front 708

What controls CTOT and APR operation?

Back 708

The DECU through the HMU torque motor

Front 709

If a flameout should occur what % increase does the APR provide?

Back 709

7% increase to the operating engine

Front 710

What procedure is done to correct a DECU failure that is causing over-temp, over-torque, or prop over speed?

Back 710

Torque motor lockout

Front 711

While in T/M range where is fuel vented to?

Back 711

Fuel is vented overboard so it is important not to stay in the T/M range

Front 712

Does T/M lockout affect propeller governing?

Back 712

No

Front 713

What “normal” functions will be lost if while operating in T/M lockout?

Back 713

-Bottom governing,
-CTOT,
-APR functions

Front 714

Before selecting The CTOT switch to ON or APR power should be set to?

Back 714

Within 15-20% of target torque,
but no lower than 75%

Front 715

What temperature will the CTOT limit the engine to?

Back 715

955ºC

Front 716

Does the CTOT provide torque and temp protection during T/O and GA?

Back 716

Yes,
it will increase to selected torque value or 955ºC whichever occurs first

Front 717

Does the Autocoarsen switch have to be on to achieve APR function?

Back 717

Yes

Front 718

What is indicated by an oil pressure gauge reading zero without a CWP light on?

Back 718

Failure of the oil pressure gauge

Front 719

With a leak in oil pressure what would typically be noticed?

Back 719

Pressure dropping to around 20psi and fluctuating,
followed by either constant or decreasing oil temp
due to air being introduced into the line

Front 720

How is scavenge oil cooled?

Back 720

By an oil-to-fuel cooler and then directed to the inlet frame vanes to aid in inlet antiicing which further cools the oil

Front 721

Of the 5 quarts in the prop gear box reservoir how much is kept for a reserve for emergency feathering?

Back 721

1 quart

Front 722

With the PL above FLT IDLE what psi triggers an OIL PRESS CWP?

Back 722

Below 25psi

Front 723

With the PL below FLT IDLE what psi triggers an OIL PRESS CWP?

Back 723

Below 7psi

Front 724

What is a characteristic of a pressure transducer failure for the oil system?

Back 724

Indication will rapidly go to zero or to the upper limit of the gauge

Front 725

What is indicated by an illuminated ENG OIL PRESS light on the CWP?

Back 725

The associated prop gear box
OR
engine oil pressure is low

Front 726

What is the governor speed control range?

Back 726

1150 to 1396 PRPM

Front 727

On the Dowty props what is used to drive the engine to the feathered position?

Back 727

Prop oil pressure

Front 728

With a loss of Prop oil press will the prop feather when CL is in fuel off?

Back 728

No

Front 729

How is the Prop feathered after a loss of Prop oil pressure?

Back 729

Using the MAN FEATHER pump

Front 730

What are the 2 different modes for the Autocoarsen system?

Back 730

High
OR
Low power modes

Front 731

AUTOCOARS LOW light illuminates when which conditions exist?

Back 731

-One or both PLA less than 64 degrees
-Ng greater than 55% on both engines
-Starter/generator rpm greater than 60% on both engines

Front 732

Auto coarsen is activated in low mode when which conditions exist?

Back 732

-Ng less than 55% on failed engine
-Starter/generator rpm less than 60% on the failed engine
-Ng greater than 55% on operating engine

Front 733

What would cause the prop to “un-coarsen”?

Back 733

-P3 increases to greater than 120psi on the failed engine AND
-Torque increases above 50% on the failed engine

OR
-The AUTOCOARSEN switch is selected to OFF

Front 734

What conditions must be met for the AUTOCOARS HIGH light to illuminate?

Back 734

-PLA greater than 64 degrees
-Torque at least 50%
-P3 less than 120psi

Front 735

Auto coarsen is activated in high mode if what conditions exist?

Back 735

-PLA greater than 64 degrees on both engines
-Torque greater than 50% on operating engine
-Torque less than 50% on the failed engine
-Torque differential greater than 25% between engines
-P3 less than 120psi on the failed engine

Front 736

What is indicated by an illuminated AUTOCOARS CWP light?

Back 736

Autocoarsen computer has failed

Front 737

What is used to keep both props at the same RPM?

Back 737

A Prop synchrophaser

Front 738

Which prop is considered the Master prop in the Synchrophasing system?

Back 738

The left prop is the master and controls the right prop (slave)

Front 739

What does the phasing portion of the prop sync do?

Back 739

Positions the blades so only one blade crosses the wing root at a time between both engines

Front 740

At what temperature do the ENGINE OV TEMP lights illuminate?

Back 740

When ITT exceeds 962ºC

Front 741

If an engine temperature of 1050ºC what temp would be read on the gauge?

Back 741

050

Front 742

Which engine gauge operates in digital and analog?

Back 742

Engine Temp (ITT)

Front 743

A single chime indicates what?

Back 743

A master caution has been activated

Front 744

What does a triple chime indicate?

Back 744

A master warning has been activated

Front 745

What warning is not overridden by the Auto Pilot Disconnect?

Back 745

Stall Warning

Front 746

At what speed does the over speed warning sound?

Back 746

At Vmo

Front 747

How long will the master warning GLARESHIELD light stay on?

Back 747

Until either side master warning pushbutton is pressed

Front 748

How long will a master warning CWP light stay illuminated?

Back 748

As long as the condition exists

Front 749

What are the Special Alerts?

Back 749

-Auto Pilot disconnect
-Stall warning
-Over speed warning
-Altitude Alert

Front 750

What is the order Alerting Priority and Identification?

Back 750

-(Stall Warning - Clacker)
-(AP disconnect - Cavalry charge)
-(Engine Fire - Fire Bell)
-(Configuration - Intermittent horn)
-(Other Master Warnings - Triple chime)
-(Altitude Alerter - C-Chord)
-(Master Cautions - Single chime)
-(Over speed - Continuous horn)

Front 751

How is the T/O inhibit function reset?

Back 751

-By pressing the T/O inhibit pushbutton,
-By pressing the GND OPS pushbutton
-By retracting the landing gear

Front 752

What does an illuminated “BITE” light indicate?

Back 752

Loss of redundancy in the warning enunciator system

Front 753

What is the purpose of the T/O inhibit?

Back 753

To inhibit non essential warnings during the takeoff phase

Front 754

Why do the lights alternate side to side during a lamps test?

Back 754

To test each bulb individually

Front 755

How many bulbs are in each CWP light?

Back 755

2

Front 756

Which lights are not tested during a lamps test?

Back 756

-Drive XFR,
-Gear In Transit,
-Pessurization FAULT light

Front 757

In order to test the Autocoarsen light what must be done first?

Back 757

Autocoarsen switch must be set to ON

Front 758

What is not inhibited by the T/O Inhibit?

Back 758

{R. G.A.P.}:
-Red MASTER warnings,
-Gust lock,
-Autocoarsen,
-Parking brake

Front 759

What is the purpose of the GND OPS mode?

Back 759

To avoid nuisance cautions on the ground

Front 760

What does the GND OPS mode automatically come on?

Back 760

On the ground after landing

Front 761

Will the GND OPS mode inhibit all aural cautions?

Back 761

Yes

Front 762

What warning is given if the aircraft begins a descent after takeoff?

Back 762

“DON’T SINK”

Front 763

Do Colgan Air equipped A/C have a minimums callout?

Back 763

No

Front 764

If airspeed is less than 178kts and gear is not down by what altitude, will the “too low gear” warning sound?

Back 764

500 feet RALT

Front 765

At what altitude is the “too low flaps” given if gear is down and locked and flaps are not in the landing position?

Back 765

170 feet RALT

Front 766

What does moving the TAWS/FLAP switch to OVRD do?

Back 766

Simulates flaps down position to eliminate the “To low flaps” callout

Front 767

At what altitude is the “glide slope” warning active?

Back 767

30’-1000’ RALT

Front 768

At what deviation from the glide slope is the “Glide slope” warning given?

Back 768

1.3 dots

Front 769

When flying at an uncontrolled field will TCAS see ALL aircraft?

Back 769

No,
TCAS will only see aircraft with working transponders

Front 770

What must a pilot do if TCAS issues an RA?

Back 770

Must comply with the RA within 5 seconds unless it is deemed to be unsafe