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180 Cards in this Set
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* What are the #1 and #2 cancers in cattle?
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#1 SCC
#2 Bovine lymphosarcoma |
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How many forms of bovine lymphosarcoma are reconized? Name them.
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Four, divided by age
0-6 months Juvenile multicentric lymphosarcoma 6-24 months Thymic lymphosarcoma 1-3 years Cutaneous lymphosarcoma 3+ years Enzootic Bovine Leukosis |
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Which type of lymphosarcoma is the most common in cattle?
Which is caused by the Bovine Leukosis Virus (BLV)? |
Enzootic Bovine Leukosis in both cases.
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D
You go out to a farm to look at a lumpy bumpy two year old Holstein. Lesions are diffuse and cover the entire body, most prominently the back and neck. What do you tell the owner? |
It is likely the cutaneous form of Bovine LSA. The animal may go into remission on its own or we could try steroids, but most don't do well.
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How prevalent is the Bovine Leukosis virus in the US?
Which is it more likely to be found in, beef or dairy cattle? |
Very...89% of dairy herds have one or more positive animal and 40% of all dairy cows in the US are infected (38% and 10% in beef)
It is therefore more common on dairy farms. |
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And now for some understanding about the Bovine Leukosis Virus...
Why does it cause cancer? What kind of cell does it like to infect? What does that mean about how it has to be transmitted? |
It is an oncogenic retrovirus that infects B cells. Since it is in the lymphocytes, these cells have to be transferred between animals. We are largely to thank by iatrogenic spread...
Reusing needles, eartagging, tattooing, dehorning, castrations, and maybe from reusing palpation sleeves, biting flies, calving...think mixing of blood. |
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** What percent of cows infected with BLV will develop neoplasia?
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Less than 5%
(About 1/3 of infected animals will have a persistent lymphocytosis and 5% of these will go on to have cancer.) |
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** Since BLV is blood-borne in B cells, what does that mean about where it can cause disease?
(Boards, may not need here) Name the 7 predilection sites for BLV-induced lymphosarcoma in the cow. |
Disease can happen everywhere blood goes...
1. Heart (Right atrium) = heart failure 2. Abomasum = ulcers, down cattle 3. Spinal cord = ataxia, down cattle 4. Retrobulbar = exopthalmus, proptosis 5. Uterus = early embryonic death, abortions 6. Mesenteric lymph nodes = bloat, weight loss 7. Peripheral lymph nodes |
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What is the hardest part about control of BLV?
What factor is going to have the biggest effect on outcome for the animal? |
Most animals will have lifelong BLV infections with no clinical signs, so you'll have no idea.
Genetics |
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D
A few older dairy cows in a herd with peripherally enlarged lymph nodes and a variety of other problems (abortions, down animals, heart failure) were culled and submitted for necropsy. What one disease could cause all of these signs? |
Bovine Leukosis Virus -> Enzootic Bovine Leukosis with LSA causing the signs.
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How can BLV-inducing lymphosarcoma be definitively diagnosed?
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Histopathology/cytology of masses.
You may see a lymphocytosis on CBC (Bendixen Key > 8k), and can do ELISA, serology or PCR to know if they have the BLV virus, but remember the virus rarely causes cancer and it's everywhere. |
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White nodules in the right atrium, uterus or abomasum in a culled adult dairy cow, one differential. |
Enzootic Bovine Leukosis causing LSA.
Lymphosarcoma is white from the WBCs. |
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If you see a cow with bulging eyes, think this disease....
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Lymphosarcoma
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So a farmer has had problems in his herd with BLV-induced lymphosarcoma and he wants to control it. What do you tell him?
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- There is no great treatment out there, and animals should be slaughtered and euthanized if you want to be aggressive.
- The subclinical infections are not losing him money - Fly control, try to limit blood transfer so use sanitized instruments, new needles and new palpation sleeves between animals - Colostrum from BLV positive cows will protect their calves so make sure they get it |
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Mature dairy cow BAR but unable to stand with a heart murmur and a leukocytosis, no evidence of outward spinal trauma. One differential. |
BLV-induced LSA (aka Enzootic Bovine LSA)
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*Causative agent of caseous lymphadenitis in sheep and goats. How do most animals get it?
"Thou shalt not..." |
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis, which can survive in the soil for years. Animals get it through wounds.
"Thou shalt not have both external and internal forms of caseous lymphadenitis in one animal" |
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Goats tend to get ________ caseous lymphadenitis, while sheep get ______.
If a small ruminant becomes infected with Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis, how long will they have it? |
Goats external
Sheep internal Expect the animals to have lifelong infection. |
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You are presented with a goat with giant abscessed lymph nodes around the head and neck and the farmer wants you to drain them. What should you do?
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If you do it, try to keep the pus out of the environment (use a bucket, etc) because you can spread it that way, and isolate the animal for 30 days. Culling may be the best option, but in pet sheep and goats you can try injecting formalin into the abscesses. Use disinfectant.
Also know it is zoonotic (not common) so protect yourself. |
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What are some of the most common places to find internal abscesses with caseous lymphadenitis caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis?
If you take a smear of the abscesses, what will you see (Gram + or -)? |
Lungs, udder, spinal cord, nuchal ligament, and abdominal organs (liver, kidney)...think capillary beds.
Gram positive rods |
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What is important to remember about the vaccine for Caseous Lymphadenitis?
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- It should only be used in sheep because it causes a lot of side effects in goats including death (and isn't licensed for them or very effective).
- It cannot eliminate an established infection but it can limit its spread. - It can prevent the abscesses if given before infection. |
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What are the three main classes of antihelminthics, with examples of each?
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Benzimidazoles (Fenbendazole, Albendazole, etc) "White dewormers"
Avermectin/Milbemycins (Ivermectin, Doramectin, Moxidectin) Imidazothiazoles/Tetrahydropyrimidimes (Levamisole, Pyrantel, Morantel) |
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What does FAMACHA evaluate and what parasite is it used for?
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It picks up on anemia from blood loss from H. contortus in the abomasum, our old friend.
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D
You see a goat with a bottle jaw and very pale conjunctiva. The farmer has been using Ivermectin for years. What is your a top differential? |
Haemonchus contortus, bottle jaw from hypoproteinemia.
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What is the rule of thumb for using cattle dewormers in goats?
What is important to know about pour-on treatments for Haemonchus? |
1.5-2x the cattle dose for goats, with the exception of 1.5x for Levamisol/Tramisol because of risk of toxicity.
Pour-ons tend not to be very effective because the drug needs to make it to the abomasum where the worms are. |
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Which dewormers should you consider to not be effective for H. contortus in this area from resistance?
What can you try to use instead if there is resistance on a farm? |
Fenbendazole and Ivermectin are almost guaranteed to not be effective. There may be resistance to all three classes.
Try Moxidectin in severe cases, but use it sparingly because it may be the only drug you have, and note the long withdrawal time and so not reccomended for lactating animals. |
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When should you expect to see the most deaths from H. contortus?
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Late summer, early fall, when there possibly higher loads of parasite on the pasture and the animals are having to eat short grass.
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**______ is thought to predispose kids to getting septic arthritis ("navel ill", "joint ill"
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FPT
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This pathogen causes a arthritis in sheep, goats and calves and one strain causes Enzootic Abortion of Ewes. You may see a shifting lameness, and a fever.
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Chlamydiophila spp.
Try to treat with Tetracyclines and Macrolides. |
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Are goats or sheep more likely to get Mycoplasmal arthritis?
What is the most common species encountered? |
Goats
Mycoplasma mycoides subspecies mycoides, the small colony type It can cause pneumonia, mastitis and polyarthritis and can wipe out a group of kids. It is not seen frequently but is dramatic. |
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Almost an entire year's set of kids have had polyarthritis and pneumonia and several have died. What might it be and how could you treat it? |
Mycoplasma mycoides subspecies mycoides large colony type -> Septic polyarthritis.
You can try Tetracyclines and Macrolides but it is not very likely to work. It can be passed in the milk and so pasteurization can help control it. |
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CAE only affects _____ (goats/sheep/cows).
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Goats: Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis
It is similar to Ovine Progressive Pneumonia Virus (OPPV) that causes disease in sheep. |
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This is an uncommon cause of arthritis in sheep and goats but is most likely to occur after using contaminated dip tanks after docking or castration.
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Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
(Remember Erysipeloid in humans but Erysipelas in the animals?) |
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The #1 cause of GI disease:
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Parasites like H. contortus (GI parasites are the #1 cause of death of goats overall)
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T/F You can tell the different types of strongyles apart on a fecal exam.
HOT = |
False (unless you are maybe Dr. Flowers)
Haemonchus contortus Ostertagia Trichostrongylus |
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"Periparturient rise" =
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The reason pregnant animals are dewormed shortly before giving birth. The stress of the pregnancy makes them more susceptible to GI parasites.
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Why is it thought that goats have worse parasite problems than sheep?
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Goats are browsers but we make them grazers like sheep, who likely have natural immunity.
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Name the species that cause coccidiosis in sheep and goats.
When do animals tend to become infected? |
Goats: Eimeria arloingi
Sheep: Eimeria ovina Young animals are more likely to be infected because immunity seems to develop with age. |
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What are two ways (more expensive, for herd management) for assessing levels of H. contortus on a farm.
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DrenchRite
Fecal egg count reduction test |
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What are some ways of reducing H. contortus levels in a herd.
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Herd monitoring (DrenchRite, Fecal Egg count reduction test)
Rotate dewormers and test their effectiveness Don't buy resistant bugs in your new animals and quarantine Give goats browse-type forage Use dewormers properly |
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What is the key to deworming?
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You want the entire dose to make it to the rumen.
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D
Several kids on a farm have watery, mucoid diarrhea, are not gaining weight as they should, and some of the smaller animals are weak or are dying. Other kids are not eating or drinking and some have fevers and poor hair coats. |
Coccidiosis, E. arloingi
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FAMACHA is on a scale of ___ to ___, with ____ being ______ and a _____ being ______.
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1 to 5 scale:
1 = not anemic (reddish-pink) 5 = severely anemic (white) |
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T/F Eimeria organisms are infective once they are passed.
How long does their entire life cycle take? |
False, they need time and proper environmental conditions to become infective (to sporulate)
2-3 weeks under the right conditions |
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Coccidia are obligate/facultative, intracellular/extracellular nematodes/protozoal parasites that are highly species specific and tend to show themselves in times of stress.
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Coccidia are obligate intracellular protozoal parasites.
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T/F It is common to find a couple of Eimeria in the feces of adult sheep and goats.
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True
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Tapeworms in sheep and goats are very/not very significant parasites that tend to cause/rarely cause disease and are treated with ________.
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They are not very significant unless in high numbers and they rarely cause noticeable disease. They can be treated with certain dewormers like Fenbendazole. Ivermectin does not work.
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Clostridium in small ruminants:
C. perfringens Type C = C. perfringens Type D = |
C = Hemorrhagic enterotoxemia/necrotic enteritis
D = Pulpy kidney/overeating disease |
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Paint the picture of a lamb or kid with pulpy kidney disease (describe).
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Older lambs and kids on concentrate diets, usually the biggest ones that get the most food, or a single kid/lamb that gets all of its mom's milk, often die suddenly, convulsing.
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What is one explanation for why younger small ruminants (< 1 week old) are the ones to have hemorrhagic enterotoxemia from C. perfringens type C?
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It is thought that colostrum inactivates trypsin, which would otherwise break down the toxin.
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* Causative agent of Johne's disease.
How can it be diagnosed with histology? |
Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis
Acid fast staining of terminal ileum, ileocecal lymph nodes |
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T/F Clinical mastitis is more common in small ruminants than cattle.
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False (about 5% of lactations)
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D
Older goats on a farm (3-5 years) of age have been wasting for some time now, with pasty feces. Necropsied culls show enlarged lymph nodes in the GI tract and a thickened ileum. |
Johne's disease: Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis
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Intramammary treatment for mastitis in small ruminants is ________, and has an ______ _____ ______.
What two kinds of clinical mastitis are unlikely to respond to treatment> |
It is extra-label, (at around half the cow dose) with an extended withdrawal time.
Mycoplasmal and gangrenous mastitis |
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What are some of the most common agents that cause clinical mastitis in small ruminants?
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Coagulase-negative Staph, S. aureus, Manheimia hemolytica, Mycoplasma spp.
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If only around 5% of mastitis cases in small ruminants are clinical, what is the percentage of subclinical cases of mastitis?
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20-40% of small ruminants are likely to have subclinical mastitis.
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What should you remember if you try to do a CMT on goat's milk?
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Goats in general have a naturally higher cell count and a physiological neutrophilia at the end of lactation that is normal and the milk is ok.
Cell count cutoffs (I think these are right): < 500,000/ml is uninfected 1,000,000/ml or greater is infected |
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"Quick pneumonia" in sheep and goats.
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Manheimia hemolytica
Sudden death, fibrinous pneumonia |
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About 1/3 of the culled sheep in the Midwestern US are seropositive for this virus that causes a pneumonia, as well as potentially mastitis, arthritis, and encephalitis.
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OPPV: Ovine Progressive Pneumonia Virus
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Other names for Contagious ecthyma.
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ORF, Soremouth, Scabby mouth
It is a zoonotic poxvirus, disease is usually self-limiting (3-6 weeks) and there is a vaccine. Animals are usually ok unless the lesions make them not want to eat. |
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This disease is the reason for the yellow ear tags in goats and sheep.
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Scrapie.
It is reportable and there is a mandatory eradication program in the US. Tied to BSE in cows. |
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D
You see a couple of sheep on a large farm that are itchy and have rubbed and bitten the wool off of their sides. The animals are oddly excitable and acting strangely. |
Scrapie
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Urolithiasis and obstruction occurs most commonly at the ______ ______ in male small ruminants, often from too much _____ in the diet.
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urethral process, too much grain
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Calf diarrhea often involves ______ infections.
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Mixed, and it is often not economical to track down the cause.
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General term for a profuse, watery diarrhea in any calf up to 30 days of age.
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“Undifferentiated diarrhea of newborn calves”
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T/F Calves with diarrhea tend to die of secondary complications.
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True, such as hypothermia, dehydration, metabolic acidosis
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* > 95% of the enterotoxogenic E. coli that causes diarrhea in calves are of this type.
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K99...it lets the bacteria stick to enterocytes, preventing the gut from pushing them out of the body.
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Enterotoxogenic E. coli (ETEC) is really a problem in ______ old calves, and afterward that _____ happens in the gut, decreasing the threat.
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A few days old, because after a couple of days the abomasal pH decreases in the gut (2-3 pH), and kills most of the E. coli.
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T/F If a calf gets good colostrum early in life it should be protected from developing ETEC-based diarrhea.
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True
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ETEC (Enterotoxigenic E. coli), when adhered to intestinal cells, secrete a heat-_______ (stable/labile) _______, which causes a ________ (secretory/malabsorptive) diarrhea.
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A heat-stable enterotoxin that causes a secretory diarrhea.
It does not damage the villus but activates cGMP production in the epithelial cells, which ultimately leads to a hypersecretion of Na and Cl into the gut lumen, drawing water with it. |
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* Give the top causes of diarrhea in calves under 21 days old.
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Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
Rotavirus Coronavirus Cryptosporidium parvum Salmonella |
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*What to we do to prevent calves from getting ETEC-diarrhea?
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We vaccinate the moms late in gestation with purified K99 antigen. We can also give calves an oral monoclonal K99 vaccine.
Don't overcrowd, fecal-oral so cleaner environment. Calves born later in the season are exposed to higher doses of the bacteria. Make sure calves get enough good colostrum within the first 6-12 hours of life. |
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How can we treat calves with ETEC diarrhea?
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Oral/IV fluids, Ceftiofur, potentiated Sulfas or Amoxicillin.
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This is a common viral cause of diarrhea in calves 5-15 days old, kills the villi and make them slough.
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Rotavirus
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What is annoying about Rotavirus in calves?
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It is very resilient and can survive months of freezing temperatures and wide changes in pH, so it hangs around.
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What kind of diarrhea does the Rotavirus cause in calves?
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A malabsorptive diarrhea because of the damage to the villi, resulting in atrophy and the villi cannot do their jobs to absorb nutrients.
(It can also cause a secretory diarrhea from an endotoxin-like protein, but 80% malabsorptive, 20% secretory overall) |
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Most of the week-old calves on a farm have watery diarrhea, but few animals have died and some of them are recovering after a few days of care. |
Rotavirus...5-15 days old, high morbidity, low mortality
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Rotaviral diarrhea is controlled primarily though ________ (management/vaccination).
List some methods of prevention. |
Management:
- Isolate new animals and sick calves - Handle the calves before adults - Disinfect hutches after each calf - Can vaccinate moms prior to calving (calf vaccine is not very effective) |
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* Give some similarities and differences between Coronavirus and Rotavirus in how they cause disease, attributes, etc.
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- Both are stable at fairly low pH, but unlike Rotavirus, Coronavirus does not do well over 45C.
- You can disinfect for both, Coronavirus is weak against ether, chloroform and deoxycholate disinfectants. - Both infect epithelial cells in the intestine, but Coronavirus affects the villus and the crypt cells in SI and LI - Both are fecal-oral - Both cause a malabsorptive diarrhea |
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Rotavirus and Coronavirus have some overlap in the ages of calves they affect. Apart from diarrhea, what is another sign you might see with a Coronavirus infection?
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Respiratory signs (sneezing, coughing)
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Give methods of controlling Coronavirus in calves.
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1. Good colostrum in good amount to calves
2. Vaccinate moms late in gestation 3. Decrease fecal exposure (disinfect, stalls, etc) 4. Get the calves through the first month, the prevalence decreases with age outside of the window. |
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A protozoal species that is a common cause of diarrhea in calves 5 days to a month old.
What is unique about this genus? |
Cryptosporidium parvum
Cryptosporidium can sporulate inside the host, unlike many other protozoal parasites. |
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** T/F Once a calf gets over a Cryptosporidium parvum infection, it can still shed the organisms for months afterward and infect other calves.
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False. They stop shedding once the infection is over and do not become chronic carriers.
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T/F Cryptosporidium parvum cannot cause diarrhea in itself, but paves the way for other pathogens to cause diarrhea.
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False, it used to be thought this was the case but Crypto can do it all by itself.
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Why is Cryptosporidium so hard to control on a farm?
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The oocysts are sporulated and infective once they are passed. It is also zoonotic, so use caution and protective gear. Don't get a bite to eat on your way home from the farm.
The good news is they are killed by drying and heat or freezing |
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* How is Cruptosporidium most commonly identified? (Think cheap, easy, and fast)
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Detecting the oocysts in the feces.
For definitive diagnosis you need to ID the oocysts and run histopathology. There are also expensive human ELISAs (antigen assays). |
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These two species are responsible for most of the Salmonella-based diarrheas in calves.
Salmonella can persist in the environment for over a year but is susceptible to ______. |
S. dublin
S. typhimurium Killed by heat. |
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This is a good reason to keep birds and rodents away from your calves.
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Salmonella species...fecal-oral, but also airborne, animal-animal contact.
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D
Secretory and malabsorptive diarrhea of calves, with voluminous diarrhea with some blood possible, tenesmus, animals are very dehydrated. |
Salmonella
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Salmonella produces two exotoxins:
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1. An enterotoxin (cGAMP, secretory)
2. A cytotoxin (inhibits protein synthesis, malabsorptive) |
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T/F Some calves with Salmonellosis will die before showing signs, otherwise you may see bloody diarrhea, higher than normal dehydration, and feverish, lethargic animals that aren't eating.
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Long-winded truth.
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What typically causes a nutritional diarrhea in calves?
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Too much milk or milk replacer, or poor quality milk replacer, or those with soy proteins instead of milk proteins.
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This cause of calf (and kid and lamb) diarrhea is seen less often these days because of vaccination, but it can cause a bloody, necrotizing enteritis.
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Clostridium perfingens type C
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Severe leukopenia and severe neutropenia in almost any animal, think...
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Gram negative septicemia from response to endotoxins
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*D
A common cause of diarrhea in juvenile calves but never seen in neonatal calves. It can cause a watery, bloody diarrhea of low volumes. |
Coccidiosis (E. zurneii and E. bovis)
The reason you never see it in neonatal calves is the prepatent period of the parasite is about a month. |
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What is the general rule for making sure calves get enough colostrum at the right time?
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4L of colostrum within 12 hours of birth, more is better.
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Just a reminder, ionophores are fed to cattle primarily as a _________.
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Coccidiostat...this is helpful in preventing calf diarrhea.
Also, remember we learned in parasitology that coccidiosis is a disease of confinement and of many animals being close together. Fixing these will help lower the load. |
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What are some rules to follow when using hutches to separate calves?
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1. House calves in hutches until they are at least four weeks old, but often calves are kept in them until weaning at 6-8 weeks
2. Your goal is have <6% mortality of dairy (until 2 months old) and < 3% of beef calves (until 5 months old) 3. Hutches should be outside in a clean environment, separated by at least one hutch width. 4. Move the hutches between calves 5. Clean and disinfect and new bedding between calves. 6. Try not to keep the calves close to the adult animals 7. The ground under the old hutch should be kept empty for at least a month or two, get some good sun on it 8. You should have 15% more hutches than calves |
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List 5 things that are a result of diarrhea in calves.
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1. Dehydration (can lead to hypovolemic shock)
2. Metabolic acidosis 3. Electrolyte abnormalities (can die from hyperkalemia, etc) 4. Negative energy balance 5. Overgrowth of G- bugs in the SI |
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Though trying to assess dehydration status in a calf by physical exam is pretty unreliable, what are the best two things to look for?
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Eyeballs sinking into their orbits and the response to tenting the skin of the neck
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* Give as many causes of death that you can from complications of diarrhea in calves.
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There are likely more, but...
Acidemia Septicemia Hyperkalemia Prolonged malnutrition and hypoglycemia Hypovolemic shock Hypothermia |
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* At around ____% dehydration (our limit of detectability is around 6-8% for calves), IV fluids are needed, and the eyeballs should be about ____mm sunken in.
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At around 8% you need IV fluids, and the eyes should be 3mm sunken in.
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"Gut closure" occurs at about _____ hours.
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Gut closure at around 24 hours, but remember it's a dynamic process and you are really wanting to get them fed within the first few hours.
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**Calves must absorb _____ grams of IgG within the first 12 hours of life. The goal is to feed them at least __ L of good colostrum for adequate passive transfer.
Which is the preferred method of delivering colostrum to calves? |
40g, or else you are setting yourself up for problems. This means about 4L of colostrum.
Esophageal feeding tube > bottle > leaving calf on cow |
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** What is the single most important part about calf management?
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A good colostrum management program, which means making sure all calves get enough good colostrum in the first 12 hours.
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Which kind of cow has more IgG in their colostrum, beef or dairy?
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Beef. We have bred dairy cows to produce large quantities of milk, which dilutes the antibody concentration.
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T/F You should discard the colostrum produced by the heifers because it is not of good enough quality, meaning you should get it from the older animals for their calves.
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False:
1. Heifer colostrum is usually fine 2. You will have a hard time supporting all of the calves from just the older cows. |
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By what time has colostrum basically turned into normal milk?
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48 hours
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**T/F You should pool the colostrum on a farm to make sure each calf gets enough good colostrum.
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False
1. Pooling colostrum emphasizes the poor quality stuff that is diluting the barrel 2. It is a great way to give all of your calves disease, including Johne's and BLV. |
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** T/F Thicker colostrum is of better quality.
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False
1. You can't tell good IgG levels just by looking at it 2. Every cow makes different quality colostrum 3. You have to test the colostrum to know |
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What would be a gold standard for assessing FPT in calves (it is in foals) but is usually too expensive for production farms?
What is a good way to assess a herd for FPT that is cheap and easy? |
Radial immunodiffusion assay
Serum total protein: You just need a refractometer and serum. The goal is TP > 5.5. If under 5 think FPT. |
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FPT increases risk of death of calf by ___ times.
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4 times
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What are some ways to help a FPT calf?
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If within first 24 hours, try to get colostrum from another cow, or frozen.
Powdered colostrum replacers in emergencies. Can consider a blood transfusion to get antibodies that way. Get them in a clean environment in hopes they don't catch something. |
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When you are doing physical exams on newborn calves, you should palpate the _____ and _____ every day.
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Joints and umbilicus
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What are the top 3 causes of mortality in calves?
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#1 Diarrhea
#2 Respiratory disease #3 Septicemia |
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An ELISA for assessing FPT in a calf shows two lines. What does that mean?
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One line = control, adequate IgG
Two lines = FPT The test only gives you a yes or a no, nothing quantitative. |
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Polyarthritis in calves is usually from bacteria entering joints by what route?
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Hematogenous spread. It is a common result of septicemia.
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What is the reccomended treatment for a calf with polyarthritis?
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Antibiotics and joint lavage
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What agent is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in calves? Polyarthritis?
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E. coli for both, often from a septicemia
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D
You are called out to examine a calf that you know had a FPT. Today he is stumbling around and falling, not suckling, seems mentally dull, and has pus in the anterior chambers of his eyes. Prognosis? |
Meningitis, likely from a septicemia.
Bad prognosis, likely to not recover and will die. |
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*What do you do for any cow with GI disease on your physical exam?
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Simultaneously auscultate and ping both sides from elbow to hip (before you do a rectal exam, because you may introduce free gas that way that gives false pings)
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If you see a fluid line on a radiograph of the cranial abdomen of a cow, think ______, possibly from _______ _______.
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Think an abscess from hardware disease.
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** When you are doing an abdominal exploratory of an adult cow, what do you palpate last?
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The cranioventral section, since you may disrupt lesions from foreign bodies (hardware disease), perforating abomasal ulcers, etc and spread it all over the abdomen otherwise.
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** If a cow has signs of vagal indigestion and a serum chloride of 75 (low), what do you think is the cause?
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A functional obstruction of the pylorus (abomasal outflow)
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Why do you place a piece of umbilical tape or other marker on the side of the cow before a rumenotomy?
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To indicate the last rib, as you will want to explore cranially. (You will also make your incision above the omentum)
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When doing a local block for a rumenotomy, what locations do you want anesthetized?
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T13, L1, L2, L3
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* Why do you sew the rumen to the skin in a rumenotomy and how do you do it?
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To prevent gut contents from getting into the abdomen by leaking between the abdominal wall and rumen.
With a heavy cutting needle to get through the skin, use an inverting pattern (Cushings, etc), start at the top on one side, suture down, then start a new line at the top on the other side, so that in case you have to extend your incision you don't have to cut your suture. Leave a little slack (pouch) to work through (don't tack the rumen such that the side wall is very tight and under tension) |
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Besides tacking the rumen directly to the skin, what are some ways of preventing contamination during a rumenotomy?
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Weingarth's apparatus, rumen shrouds, plexiglass plates
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* When you are exploring the rumen in a rumenotomy, what are some things to note/guidelines?
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- Feel the papillae and honeycombs of the reticulum and see if they are normal or ulcerated
- Only take out as much ingesta as you need to make a tunnel to work through - You can take a magnet in with you to pick up on foreign bodies |
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While exploring the rumen in a rumenotomy, you are able to get a couple of fingers into the esophageal groove. What do you think of this?
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It appears normal. If you can get more fingers in start thinking vagal indigestion.
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* While doing an exploratory rumenotomy, you feel a big mass next to the reticulum on the right, what do you do?
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It could be the omasum or an abscess. You can gently grab the wall of the reticulum near the affected area and see if it moves with you. You can also insert a syringe and try to aspirate the contents from inside or outside the cow.
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* How do you close a rumenotomy?
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For the rumen: Double layer inverting suture pattern (Cushings, etc) and carefully remove the skin sutures and lots of lavage.
Body wall: 2-0 gut simple continuous 3 muscle layers, Ford interlocking in the skin of nonabsorbable, a few interrupted at the bottom |
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How do you do transfaunation in cows?
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Take some cud from a healthy cow and feed it to the sick cow.
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Where do you do give the local block if you are trying to surgically treat a case of hardware disease?
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Over the 5th rib. (And if you are at the right spot you won't enter the thoracic cavity when you cut)
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Cows have a(an) __________ (incomplete/complete) mediastinum, meaning that if you enter the thoracic cavity, ______ (one lung/both lungs) will collapse.
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Complete mediastinum, only one side will collapse.
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**What are three common lab abnormalities of cows with abomasal disease leading to an obstruction?
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Hypochloremia
Hypokalemia Metabolic alkalosis |
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What is the common presentation/history of a cow that has an LDA or RDA?
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- Recently calved
- Decreased feed intake (tends to avoid grain) - Decreased milk production - Ping that may go from the 9th rib to the paralumbar fossa. |
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If you palpate a cow and her rumen is on the right, suspect a ______ (right/left) displaced abomasum.
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LDA
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** What type(s) of fluid should you use to help a cow with an abomasal obstruction?
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Avoid alkalinizing agents (bicarb, LRS) since she likely already has a metabolic alkalosis. Normal saline is a good bet.
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If you decide to do it, when do you roll a cow with a displaced abomasum? How?
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** Only for LDAs
Lay her on her right side, roll her on the back, and rock her back and forth, pinging to see if the abomasum has moved. End with her on her left side and let her get up. Remember this is a quick and cheap method but not likely to work for long, and don't do it late in pregnancy because you can torse the uterus. |
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Why don't we roll an RDA cow?
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It can cause a volvulus.
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Describe how to do a blind tack for an LDA.
Complications? |
You start to flip the cow, but while she is on her back you run a needle through the skin to catch the abomasum and tie it in place. You are wanting some peritonitis to cause adhesions and lock the abomasum more in place.
Complications are hitting the wrong organ, lacerations, seromas, infection, hitting the milk vein causing a thromboplebitis |
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What happens to the milk veins in a cow when you flip her on her back (say, before surgery)?
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They drain, making them harder to find and you may cut them accidentally.
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** You need to correct a R abomasal volvulus in a pregnant cow. What procedure(s) do you pick?
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Right flank omentopexy or pyloropexy, since you don't want to flip the uterus and you do it on the right side.
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If there is a 360 degree abomasal volvulus is in the R side, turn it ______ (clockwise/counterclockwise)
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Clockwise
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What is the prognosis if an obstructed cow has a metabolic allkalosis that becomes an acidosis?
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Poor, may indicate dehydration and shock, endotoxemia
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Why would you do a right flank approach to correct an abomasal volvulus?
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Because it should be right there and fairly easy to tack back in place. (Do a pursestring suture before you decompress it)
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What is the main cause of abomasal impaction in cows?
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Poor quality feed and not enough access to water
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What are two things to remember when doing an intestinal resection and anastomosis in cattle?
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1. The vessels run in small arcades near the intestine so you need to ligate often and stay close to the tissue.
2. Cows are good at putting out fibrin and making adhesions. |
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What history and signalment might you have with a cow with an intussusception?
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They are acutely off-feed
They have sudden and severe colic Melena Multiple small pings on the R Increased heart rate |
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When unwinding a cecal volvulus (you are on the outside of the cow through an incision in L lateral recumbency), you twist it in the _____ (same/opposite) direction of the twist you felt on rectal palpation.
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In the same direction, so the parts catch up with each other.
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**D
Acute colic in a 6 year old cow, melena, off-feed, multiple small pings on the right. |
Intussusception, more likely in the jejunum since an adult. It could have been anywhere in a calf.
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What is most important if you are trying to treat a case of rectal prolapse in a cow?
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Figure out the cause, or else it will likely happen again.
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Which is the most reliable in assessing dehydration in calves?
PCV, Hct, Plasma Protein |
Plasma Protein
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** What is the current thinking regarding the development of metabolic acidosis in calves with diarrhea?
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From differences in strong ion balance, such as Na, and maybe some impact form increasing D-Lactic acid levels, since ruminants can't metabolize it well and it builds up in the body.
It used to be thought that the loss of bicarb led to the acidosis. |
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What is the preferred method of tracking metabolic acidosis in a calf?
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Venous blood gas is preferred.
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** How can you calculate the base deficit?
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27 - TCO2 (from a chem profile) = base deficit
27 mEq/L is normal [HCO3] TCO2 is approximately equal to [HCO3] levels in the blood. |
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What are depression scores?
Why is age a factor in determining them? |
A grading system that takes observations you make of a calf with *uncomplicated* diarrhea, and helps give you a prediction of the level of acidemia.
I is BAR IV is recumbent Age is considered because older calves are better at hiding their acidemia. |
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When should you suspect hyperkalemia in a calf with diarrhea?
** What should you expect to see on an ECG taken from a hyperkalemic calf? |
When the heart rate is over 70 bpm
Loss of p waves |
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What are guidelines as far as what should be in an oral electrolyte solution for calves with dehydration from diarrhea?
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1) Needs to have enough Na to correct extracellular fluid deficits.
2) Provide agents that facilitate intestinal absorption of Na and H20 (glycine, acetate and glucose) 3) Provide an alkalizing agent (acetate, propionate, bicarbonate) to correct the metabolic acidosis 4) Provide glucose We tend to feed OES as an extra meal, calves still get milk since OES cannot sustain them alone. |
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T/F You should withhold milk from a calf with diarrhea while you correct their dehydration, electrolytes and other abnormalities.
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False. There is no proven benefit to withholding milk from a calf with diarrhea and you will make the negative energy balance worse.
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How do you calculate the amount of fluid (in L) needed to replace a deficit in a calf with dehydration from diarrhea.
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Body weight (kg) x % dehydration = L of replacement fluid needed
Max flow rate is 80 ml/kg/hr |
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* You want to correct the metabolic acidosis in a calf with diarrhea and so you need to decide how much sodium bicarb to have in the fluids.
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Weight (kg) x ECF volume % x base deficit = amount to have/add into the fluids (mmol)
ECF volume % is likely around 0.5 based on the notes. 1 gram of NaHCO3 = 12 mmol HCO3- NaHO3 solution contains 13g/L Na |
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What does hypertonic saline do when administered (4 things)?
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It rapidly increases:
1. Plasma volume 2. Cardiac output 3. Mean arterial pressure 4. GFR |
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What is the only non-alkalinizing fluid given to neonatal ruminants?
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Dextrose
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** How do you treat the following situations of diarrhea? (IV hypertonic saline, OES, both
1. The calf is standing and suckling at its mom, it may have a slightly prolonged skin tent and slightly sunken eyes, with less than 8% dehydration. 2. A calf is standing but won't suckle, over 6% dehydrated, with noticeable skin tenting and eye depth changes. 3. Animal recumbent |
1. OES
2. IV HS + OES 3. IV Sodium bicarb + OES |
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** Quick and dirty way to calculate how much bicarb to have in the fluids for an acidosis calf.
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Weight (kg) x 0.5 x base deficit,
Divide that by 12, divide next number by 13 = bicarb requirements |
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* What are some benefits to using hypertonic saline for calves with diarrhea?
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1. You don't have to give much (can fit in a needle so you don't need an IV)
2. It works quickly (but doesn't last long unless you start giving oral fluids) 3. Will rapidly increase BP, CO, plasma volume, etc 4. It will treat hyperkalemia by getting the K to go back into the cells |
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* When surgically correcting a prolapsed rectum, do your _________ before your ________ (resection/anastomosis) if there is full-thickness necrosis.
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Do your anastomosis before your resection.
Do overlapping simple interrupted sutures, and when you cut off the excess and push it back inside, the sutures will flip into an inverting pattern, what you want. |
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D
Calf a few hours old, tenesmus, no manure passed. |
Atresia ani or a similar problem
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* Why is it important to know if a calf with a congenital anomaly involving its rectum or anus has an intact anal sphincter muscle?
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Because even if you surgically correct the problem the animal will be incontinent.
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* How would you treat primary ketosis in a dairy cow that is down in milk production from not eating enough?
If you later test her urine and it is positive for glucose, what happened? |
1 bottle of dextrose IV (500 ml?) and Dexamethasone
The excess spilled over into the urine |
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Cows developing ketosis go off-feed typically in what order of forage, silage and grain?
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Grain first, then silage, then forage
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What is the gold standard for diagnosing ketosis in cows?
Which is more reliable for diagnosing ketosis in cows with the "multisticks", milk or urine? |
Liver biopsy to measure triglyceride levels
Milk, look for a purple color |
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Treatment for a down cow with milk fever.
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A 500ml bottle of calcium gluconate IV slowly over 10 minutes (monitor the heart for bradycardia). 60% stand up shortly thereafter, but get them on good footing.
Also oral methods out there. |
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About ____ of cows (particularly dairy) will develop a subclinical hypocalcemia (< 7.5 mg/dl) within 24 hours of calving
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Half
Cows go down if under 5 mg/dl of calcium |
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Postpartum hemoglobinuria in a cow, think hypo-________, and tou may need to give supplements.
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hypophosphatemia
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Grass tetany is from hypo-________.
Main time of year and predisposing environment? Signs? Treatment? |
Hypomagnesemia
Lush pastures in early spring, late fall. Ataxic, aggressive, sternal cows, slow rumen contractions and increased heart rate. Oral MgCl gel |
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** What is the main regulator of calcium in the body?
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Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
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A farmer shows you a dead dairy cow in his pasture and based on how the animal was described as acting yesterday, you are thinking grass tetany. What sample can you collect and test since the animal has only been dead a short while?
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Vitreous humor (48-hour window) to measure Mg levels
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A large reason to not have overconditioned cows at calving, animals become depressed, off-feed, fatty livers at biopsy.
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"Fat Cow Syndrome", "Lipid Mobilization Syndrome"
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