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320 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Penicillins are bacteri __
cidal
Penicillins are most effective against gram ___
positive
Which component of penicillin binds the PBP
Beta lactam ring
The attack point of beta-lactamases such as penicillinase is the ____
Beta Lactam ring
Natural Penicillins
Penicilin V and G
Which PCN's are effective with MSSA (besides methicillin)?
Nafcillin, oxacillin, cloxacillin, dicloxacillin
Nafcillin, oxacillin, cloxacillin, dicloxacillin are collectively known as?
Antistaphylococcal PCNs
What is the drug of choice for MSSA?
Nafcillin
Extended spectrum PCN's that are used for gram negatives?
Ampicillin and amoxicillin
What extended spectrum PCN's used for gram - is most effective against listeria?
Ampicillin
What extended spectrum PCN against Gram - has the best oral availability
Amoxicillin
Antipseudomonals PCNs
Ticarcillin, piperacillin
What generation has more gram (-) coverage, 1st or 3rd
3rd
What generation cephalosporin has more beta lactamase resistance, 1st or 3rd
3rd
What generation cephalosporin has better CSF penetration, 1st or 3rd
3rd
Can you use cefipime in a patient who had an anaphylatic rxn to amoxicillin?
No
Cross reactivity
Can you use aztreoname in a patient who had an anaphylatic rxn to amoxicillin?
Yes
Does imipenem have similar or differing MOA as PCN/Ceph
Similar
Is imipenem effective against pseudomonas
Yes
What is imipenem also used in combination with?
cilastatin (inhibits renal dehydrogenase)
Is imipenem effective against MRSA
No
Sulbactam action
bind to beta lactamase and inactivate the enzyme (suicide inhibitors)

Extend the PCNs spectrum against lactamase producers
Cilastatin action
Inhibits renal dehydropeptidase
Name a monobactam
Aztreonam
Aztreonam (the MAGIC bullet for gram ___) only binds the PBP's in gram ___
Negative
Does Aztreonam have cross reactivity with PENs/Ceph
No
Vancomycin MOA
inhibits transglycosylase
cell wall synthesis inhibitor
T/F Vanco is bactericidal?
True
T/F Vanco is a beta lactam?
False
What are the only 2 oral uses of Vanco?
Colitis (C diff)
Enterocolitis (s. aureus)
DOC for Pseudomembranous colitis (c diff)
Metronidazole but vanco alternative
Vanco spectrum is limited to gram ___
positive
Vancomycin is toxic to which 2 systems
Nephrotoxicity and Ototoxicity
Adverse SE with rapid infusion of Vanco?
Red man syndrome
What is the DOC for MRSA
Vancomycin
What is ESBL?
Extended spectrum beta lactamases

Hydrolyze: PCN, Ceph, Monobactams

In gram - organisms

Klebsiella pneumoniae and E. coli
What is the DOC for treating a ESBL gram negative bacteria?
Carbapenams (imipenem)
List Extended spectrum PCN's
ampicillin, amoxicillin
List Antistaph PCN
Nafcillin, oxacillin, methicillin, dicloxacillin, cloxacillin
List Beta lactams
Ceph
PCNs
Carbapenems
Monobactams
List 1st generation cephalosporins
1. Cephalexin
2. Cefazolin
List 2nd generation cephalosporins
1. Cefoxitin
2. Cefaclor
3. Cefprozil
3rd generation cephalosporin list
1. Ceftriaxone
2. Ceftazidime
3. Cefotaxime
4. Cefdinir
4th generation cephalosporin list
Cefepime
Cough during cerumen removal secondary to stimulation of which nerve branch?
Arnold branch of CN X
Unilateral tinnitus, hearing loss, vertigo?
Meniere's Disease
Referred otalgia in adults (know eagles syndrome)
dental
Referred otalgia in kids?
Tonsilitis
Evaluation of tumors of specific nerves is best achieved with
MRI's
What makes small cell carcinoma have an increased sensitivity to chemotherapy
Its rapid doubling time
Why is small cell carcinomal not amenable to surgery
metastisizes via bloodstream early, 80% disseminated at Dx
Associated paraneoplastic syndrome?
SIADH
CT suspiscious for lung cancer, next step to Dx?
Bronchoscopy and Biopsy
Why may an apical lung tumor cause hoarseness?
Compression of the R recurrent layrngeal nerve
Pleural tumor associated with
mesothelioma
Central lung tumor associated with
squamous cell
small cell
Peripheral lung tumor associated with
adenocarcinoma
Ill defined borders?
small cell
Glandular with mucin
adenocarcinoma
well differentiated, white-gray tissue
squamous cell
Otitis externa associated with
pseudomonas aeruginosa
Otitis media with effusion?
air bubbles, air fluid levels
Sinuses present at birth
ethmoidal
Pathology in meconium aspiration
chemical irritation
When does surfactant production begin?
28 weeks
What initiates surfactant release?
physical stretch
What stimulates surfactant production?
cortisol
At what age are the lungs matured?
34 weeks
Transient tachypnea of the newborn most common in
c-section
ground glass cxr in newborn
hyaline membrane dz
patchy infiltrate on cxr in newborn
neonatal pneumonia
spongy airless area base of the left lung on cxr in neonate
pumonary sequestration
Birth defect associated with polyhydraminos
TEF
scaphoid abdomen/peristaltic lung sounds ..think?
Diaphragmatic hernia
Histoplasma capsulatum
true pathogen
ohio river valley
guano of birds, starlings, chickens, bats
mostly asymptomatic
need heavy infecting dose
flu like, patchy pneumonia
snowstorm pattern
survives phagocytosis
Coccidioidies immitus
True pathogen
nutritionally dimorphic
Southwest desert
Inhale arthrospores (dust)
Antiphagocytic
Spherules in stained sputum Dx
most asymptomatic
flu-like, fever, cough, headache
Blastomyces dermatiditis
True pathogen
ohio river valley
cutaneous nodules
dogs
Aspergillus fumigatus
Opportunistic
hyphae that septate and exhibit acute angle branching
inhale
alllergic rxns to colonization to invasion/destruction lung tissue with spread to brain, skin, and organs --> death
Mucor Species
Rhizopus
Neutropenia
GI, CV, skin, nerves, BV
acute pneumonia with fever and cough and s/sx of pulmonary infarction pleuritic chest pain hemoptysis
Stachybotrys chartum
sick building syndrome
allergy, asthma, iron overload
slimy black mold
Southwest desert
coccidiodies immitus
Cutaneous Lesions
Blastomyces dermatiditis
Neutropenic
mucor species
Ohio River valley
Histoplasmosis and blastomyces dermatiditis
Sporulating Organisms
Histo
Blastomyces
Coccidiodies immitis
Slimy black mold
stachybotrys chartum
Major sx of acute sinusitis
nasal/post nasal drainage
facial pain/pressure
nasal obstruction/congestion
hyposmia/anosmia
cough not due to asthma
bacterial acute sinusitis
sx worsening after 5-7 days, persisting >10 or out of proportion

unilateral midfacial, periorbital or forehead pain

Unilateral purulent rhinorrhea

pain worsened by bending over, valsalva, or toothache

poor response to decongestants

facial swelling, conjunctival infection, meningeal or other signs of spread outsides the sinuses
Chronic sinusitis dx
nasal congestion/fullness
nasal obstruction.block
nasal purulence/drainage
facial pressure/pain
hyosmia.anosmia
fever
1 major 2 minor or 2 major
Nasal endoscopy, CT
Most sensitive indicator in children <6 months old for infectious pneumonia
tachypnea
Pertussis manifestations
afebrile
scleral hemmorrhages
post tussive emesis -- cough so bad you throw up
Chlamydia trachomatis pneumonia manifestations
afebrile
conjunctivitis
staccato cough
eosinophilia
rhinopharyngitis
scattered inspiratory rales
RLL pneumonia may cause abdominal pain that mimics ____
appendicitis
Asthma Sx
intermittent dry cough and expiratory wheeze
Limited physical activity
Repeated, dry night time cough
Colds that don't go away
Asthma: improvement >__ % in FEV1 in response to albuterol
12
Tx of asthma
step up and step down approach
Most common bacterial pathogens in kids for sinusitis
Strep pneumo
Nontypable Hib
Moraxella catarrhalis
Suppurative or acute otitis media
infection
Non suppurative or secretory otitis media, or otitis media with effusion
Non infective inflammation accompanied by effusion
AOM (acute otitis media) manifestations
variable
rupture of TM w/ purulent otorrhea
fever
ear pain (holding or tugging at ear)
irritable
No sx
Fullness, bulging, retraction of TM
Erythema of TM
Scarring.abormal whiteness of TM
Decreased mobility of TM
Otitis externa
swimmers ear
ear pain accentuated by moving pinna or tragus
itching
conductive hearing loss
serous or purulent secretions
Sx GABHS phyaryngitis
Group a beta hemolytic strep pharyngitis
rapid onset
fever
headache
abdominal pain
strawberry tongue
5 A's of anesthesia
awareness
amnesia
analgesia
autonomic stability
appropriate surgical conditions
T/F

There is a high mortality with renal dz and anesthesia

Good physical activity = good outcome
True

True
ASA 1
normal healthy pt
ASA 2
mild systemic disease

-pregnancy *
-obese
-smoker
ASA 3
severe systemic dz that limits activity
-stroke pt
ASA 4
incapacitating dz that is constant threat to life

-septic shock
-hepatic failure
ASA 5
a moribund pt not expected to survive 24 hours

-ruptured aneurysm
ASA 6
declared brain death whose organs are being harvested
E classification
emergency procedures
ASA std monitors
Oxygenation
Pulse Ox
Oxygen analyzer
ASA std monitors
Ventilation
Capnography
end tidal co2
ASA std monitors
Circulation
ECG
BP
Stethoscope
ASA monitors what 4 things
1. oxygenation
2. ventilation
3. circulation
4. temperature
A pre op fasting time of __ hours recommended for food (solids and milk)
6
Fried or fatty foods shouldn't be eaten ___ hours prior to surgery
8
____ should not be allowed the day of surgery
gum
water and clear fluids are allowed up to __ hours before surgery
2
Tea and coffee with milk are ok until ___ hours before surgery
6
Pts are under an increased risk of ___ when under anesthesia
Aspiration
If pt has full stomach and needs emergency surgery must use
Rapid sequence induction
cricoid pressure
Pts with increased risk of aspiration
Diabetics
Obese
Pregnant
GERD
Malignant hyperthermia cause
Autosomal dominant inherited myopathy
Defect in Ca release/control
May occur at any time during anesthetic
Malignant hyperthermia (MH) Dx
Muscle Biopsy
Tx of MH (malignant hyperthermia)
Dantrolene
stop triggers
cool
diuresis
MH Signs
hypermetabolic disorder
Increased CO2 prod
Increased O2 consumption
Tachycardia
Temperature increase--late sign
Metabolic and resp acidosis
Muscle Rigid
Hyperkalemia
Causes of nasal mucosa congestion
allergies
infection
medications
pregnancy
Pediatric sinusitis signs
cold lasting >10-14 days
thick yellow green drainage
postnasal drip
headache
irritable/fatigue
swellling around eyes
Rhinitis Sx (4)
Sneezing
nasal itching
rhinorrhea
nasal congestion
Artery involved in anterior epistaxis
Internal maxillary artery (internal carotid)
Artery involved in posterior epistaxis
Opthalmic artery (external carotid)
Anterior epistaxis Tx
squeeze nose
evacuate clots
Insert cotton pledgets
Topical vasoconstrictor
Identify source
Cautery w/ silver nitrate -- NEVER BOTH sides
Posterior epistaxis Tx
Posterior nasal packing
Endoscopic Cauterization -- NEVER BOTH sides
Arterial Ligation
Anterior epistaxis
kids and adults
trauma
90%
Posterior Epistaxis
10%
Elderly
Coagulopathy
Dx of nasal papillomas
Seeing them
Tracheal Stenosis
Rare
Intrinsic cartilage malformations or external compression by vessels/vascular ring
Intrinsic due to post C shaped rings
Mutations inf FGF receptor

Intense retraction, Respiratory distress, try to intubate--> like hit a rock

Fusion of cartilaginous rings
TEF (trans esophageal fistula)
VACTRL syndrome
verterbral anomalies, cardiac, term (good outcomes) renal, limb

FULL OF SECRETION
vomit when they eat
belly distention
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia effect on lungs
CDH
compression of the lungs
pulmonary hypoplasia
pulmonary HTN

-respiratory distress at birth
MAS (meconium aspiration syndrome)
airway obstruction
alveolar and parenchymal edema and inflammation
Increased pulmonary vasoreactivity (increase resistance and decrease compliance)
Vascular remodeling
Ischemia/necrosis
Surfactant dysfxn
MAS Tx
pulmonary toilet
respiratory assistance
PPHN management
Correct metabolic state
manage seizures
Surfactant replacement
PPHN features
labile hypoxemia and increased sensitivity to stimuli
ductal shunt
foraminal shunt
murmer of tricuspid insufficiency
PPHN Tx
sedation and minimal stimulation
oxygen
acidosis correction
NO*
ECMO *
Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD) features
severe respiratory failure
hypoxemia, hypercapnea, cor pulmonale
CXR- increased densities from fibrosis(hazy, hyperinflation)
BPD Tx
slowly wean off 02
RDS
no surfactant
increase surfact tension get collapse
RDS Tx
surfactant
TTN
transient tachypnea of newborns

Wet lung syndrome
Transient tachypnea of newborns (Wet lung) Features
delayed/altered lung fluid absoprtion
absence of labor/ c-section =cause
Acute distress at birth
Rapid improvement
Benign course usually
TTN Tx
supported
cystic adematoid malformation
multilocular large cysts with broad spectra
congenital lobar emphysema
Congenital large hyperlucent lobe (CLHL)
cartilage abnomality LUL
Pulmonary sequestration
airless spongy area base of lung
Fetal circulation
umbilical vein --> ductus venosus --> IVC --> RA --> Foramen ovale --> LA --> LV -->aorta --> Body --> umbilical arteries
Empyema pleural effusion
due to infection
parapneumonic effusion
exudative-fibropurulent
Metastatic Cancer
Malignant pleural effusion

BLOODY EFFUSION
Lymphoma Effusion
chylothorax (lymph fluid)
Tension pneumo signs
respiratory distress
chest pain
decreased-absent breath sounds on affected side
Hypotension
mediastinal/tracheal shift to opp side
compression of opp lung
Can lead to sudden death
Tx Tension Pneumo
immediate decompression
insert large needle then chest tube
Hemathorax causes
intercostal/internal mammary artery
fractured rib
deep pulmonary laceration
aorta
heart
Hemothorax presentation
dyspnea
decreased breath sounds
dullness to percussion on affected side
Hemothorax Tx
Large bore IV access for rapid fluid resuscitation
AND THEN
chest tube
Tension pneumo cause
presence of a one way valve that allows air to enter the pleural space and not escape i.e. air under pressure
cardiac tamponade pathogenesis
rapid accumulation of pericardial effusion or blood
cardiac tamponade signs
dysnpea
orthopnea
fatigue
hypotension
diaphoresis
tachycardia
narrowed pulse pressure
shock
distant heart sounds
Cardiac tamponade Tx
US - dx
rapid volume resuscitation
pericadiocentesis
Subxiphoid pericardial window in the stable pt
Cardiac tamponade associated with ___ ____
Beck's Triad
What is beck's triad
muffled heart sounds
hypotension
distended neck veins (JVD)
The organism responsible for most of the coinfections with the flu is ...
strep pneumo
What clinical manifestation of strep pneumo is most frequently involved as a cause of morbidity and mortality in an older adult
pneumonia
malaise, low grade fever, diffuse aches, and a dry cough..dx influenza b...to prevent an outbreak the members of the nursing home should receive what drug?
Neuraminidase inhibitor
66 male, chest pain--sudden onset, cough productive of purulent and blood tinged sputum, fever, consolidating pneumonia..etiology?
strep pneumo
If sputum culutres are negative, what other cultures should be ordered to confirm strep pneumo?
Blood
oxidase positive organism producing a green diffusible pigment ...
pseudomonas aeruginosa
What would you perscribe pseudomonas that is sensitive to fluoroquinolones, vanco, AG, chloramphenicol...
levofloxacin
Adenocarcinoma
Location
Population
peripheral in location
Common in non smokers and women
Squamous cell carcinoma
cough up blood
lesion growing in central airway
Tx pallitive not curative
Small cell carcinoma
centrally located
VERY aggressive
smoking related
staged by limited and extensive
Therapy: chemotherapy
NO SURGERY
low survival
Mesothelioma
most common primary pleural tumor
Asbestos exposure
Mesothelioma s/sx
gradual onset of SOB
chest pain-severe and unremitting
dullness to percussion
decreased breath sounds on involved side
nodular irregular pleural thickening on xray
Mesothelioma prognosis
75% die within one year
Mesothelioma Tx
Tri-modal: chemo, radiotherapy, and surgery (limited success)

Help but can't cure
Pancoast's Tumor and syndrome
Tumor in superior pulmonary sulcus in apical part of lung
Pain-shoulder or medial scapula
Radicular pain +/- muscle wasting
Horner's Syndrome
Pancoast tumor Tx
Radiation followed by tumor and chest wall resection
malignant effusions
exudates
can be serious, serosanguinous or bloody
Hamartoma
a tumerous lesion--> abnormal mixture of cells and tissues
Nodular and well circumscribed
irregular lobules of cartilage--may contain calcified areas
Risk factors for lung cancer
smoking
air poullution
Molecular genetics
Grading
levels of differentiation
Well differentiated tumor
resembles the normal counterpart
Stage
Extent of cancer
size of the tumor
Involvement of local structures
Metastisis
Which is most important indicator of cancer Px...grade or stage?
Stage
IgE role in hypersensitivity rxn
crosslinking allergin specific IgE triggers mast cell degranulation
Mechanism of Type 1 hypersensitivity rxn
allergen taken up by APC (DC) which then activate TH2. TH2 produces IL-4 which promotes IgE production. IgE will bind to the surface of the mast cell via FCr receptors..subsequent exposure triggers mast cell degranulation
Wheal and Flare
Occurs because of histamine release
Allergic rxn to flora and fauna
rhinorrhea, sneeze, nasal itching and obstruction, conjunctivitis, swelling around eyes, pale swollen nasal mucosa
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
allergic disease
T CELLS, antibody, immune complex (NOT IgE)
Allergens are microorganisms
50 y/o farmer complains of progressively worsening chronic cough, weight loss, dyspnea, decreased ability to work. He is a non smoker, no known allergies, neg PPD. His blood cell count and IgE are normal, but his FEV1 and FVC are reduced. What is likely cause of his problem?
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Anaphylaxis
IgE bound to mast cells
Allergen triggers mast cell degranulation
Systemic release of inflammatory mediators
Resp: nasal obstruction, increase mucus, dyspnea wheezes
Cardio: hypotension, shock
Skin: urticaria, angioedema, erythema, itchy
GI: pain, nausea, diarrhea
Hematologic: thrombocytopenia DIC
Tx anaphylaxis
ABC, vitals, alert
EPI
aerobic
oxidase positive
lactose non fermenter
What antibiotic do you use?
Piperacillin/Tazobactam
What has been used to increase the immunogenicity of the strep pneumo vaccine
conjugation of the bacterial polysaccharides with an immunogenic protein
A case of the flu is Dx in a nursing home. The remaining pts haven't had the flu vaccine what do you do?
Administer tamiflu immediately to everyone in the nursing home
A 73 vet smoke 1-2 ppd cough, fever, 4 days, diarrhea last 2, chronic bronchitis...xray has consolidation in RLL. Sputum has abundant leukocytes, PMN. Gram stain and acid fast stain are negative. Blood cultures negative..what is it?
Legionnaire's Dz
Possibility of transbronchial biopsy is discussed but the pt refuses. What is an alt dx procedure for Legionnaires....
antigen detection in the urine
Transbronchial biopsy is discussed to determine Legionnaire's but the pt refuses what alt dx test could you do?
antigen detection in urine
What causes fever
Release of TNF alpha and IL-Ib activated by macrophages
66 with chemo develops persisten fever not affected by broad spectrum antibiotics...a CBC reveal profound neutropenia and white exudate (resemble cotton wool ball) seen in right eye. Organism grown in sabouraud's agar..where did it come from?
endogenous flora (candida albicans--immunocompromised)
Invasive aspergillosis risk factors
myelosuppression
prolonged neutropenia
AIDS, organ transplant

Phagocytic cells play a role in defense
Invasive Aspergillosis
invasive infection (growth of hyphae in tissues)
Sx: cough, high fever, pleuritic chest pain
TLR polymorphisms put at increased risk
septate hyphae with acute angle branching
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
asthmatics, CF pts
wheezing, fever, expectoration of rubbery brown mucus plugs
polymorphisms in TLR
Central breonchiectasis
Immediate cutaneous reactivity to aspergillus skin test antigen
Eosinophilia
Opportunist fungi (Rhizopus, Mucor)
neutrophil defects
diabetes
rhinocerebral
pulmonary
Sick house building syndrome
stachybotrys
allergy, asthma, exposure to fungi derived volatile organic compounds, respiratory, GI, neuro problems
Pulmonary hemorrhage, hemosiderosis
Micro ..when you see allergy with fungal infections think...
IgE
Pen G and V effective against gram __
positive
SE of penicillin G
allergies
diarrhea, GI
NEUROTOXICITY
superinfections -- c diff-pseudomembranous colitis
ESBL best Tx and most common producers
Imipenem

Klebsiella pneumoniae and E. coli
Antistaph agents DOC for
MSSA
Antistaph SE
blood dyscrasia
acute interstitial nephritis
hepatotoxicity
Extended spectrum used for gram
negatives
Ampicillin and Amoxicillin uses
HELPS

h influenza
e coli
listeria
proteus
salmonella

ampicillin: enterococcus, listeria
amox: lyme dz, h pylori
Ticarcillin and Piperacillin uses
HELPS + psuedomonas, klebsiella, serratia
often used ticarcillin and pipercillin in ____ pts
immunocompromised
1st to 4th there is
__ activity against gram -
__ resistance to beta lactamases
__ ability to cross BBB
INCREASING
cephalosporins and penicillins MOA
Bactericidal
Cephalosporins SE
allergic rxns
superinfections
hypoprothrombinemia (coag abnormalities)
Alcohol intolerance (disulfiram like rxn)
Due to MTT groups (2 and 3)
Half life ___ with 3>2>1
CSF entry exclsuively _ and _ generations
Renal elimanation ___ 3>2>1
Increases

3rd and 4th

Decreases
1st generation ceph uses
prophylaxis of surgical procedures
2nd generation ceph uses
G + and HEN PEcK
H. influenza
Enterobacter
Neisseria
Proteus
E.Coli
Klebsiella
2nd generation ceph SE
allergic rxns
blood dyscrasias
pseudomembranous colitis
am i gonna pass
yes! =)
3rd generation cephs real use
SERIOUS G - INFECTIONS often combined with AG

Tx if CAP if hospitalized but not ICU pts
4th generation cephs use
PSEUDOMONAS
staph a and strep pneumo

SE like other cephs but NO disulfram like effects
Imipenem MOA
bactericidal

sig post antibiotic effect
Carbapenems DOC for
Enterobacter
Pseudomonas infections
ESBL producing klebsiella
Mixed infections -- on other antimicrobials or immunocompromised
Good for gram - pneumo and bactermia complicated UTIs
Always use Imipenem with ___
cilistatin
carbapenems SE
nausea, vomit, diarrhea
Seizures
Cross reactive with pens
Expensive
Monobactam (Aztreonam) effective only against?
Only effective against GRAM NEGATIVES
Aztreonam uses
serious Gram negative infections
MDR pseudomonas
No cross reactivity with PCN
c diff pseudomembranous colitis
DOC and ALT
DOC: metrionidazole

Alt: Vancomycin
Pseudomembranous colitis
one of the most common health care associated infections
diarrhea, fever, stools with shreds of mucous membranes and lots of neutrophils
Overgrowth of C diff.
Ceph - cause
potentially fatal
Structural differences to remember in pediatrics
chest wall?
what type of breathers?
narrowest part of airway?
airway diameter?
chest well is very compliant
babies are obligate nasal breathers
narrowest part of the pediatric airway is at the cricoid cartilage
airway diameter is much smaller
Pores of Kohn and canals of Lambert not well developed so __________
decreased collateral ventilation, propensity for atelectasis
chest wall differences in kids

ribs?

chest wall?

recoil?

muscle mass?
horizontal

more compliant

less outward recoil

less
FRV
volume left over when done with regular breathing
TV
regular breathing
Maintaining FRC in infants
Glottic braking (creates PEEP)
Alteration of stretch receptor set points (halts expiration prior to sig lung deflation)
Increased respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute ventilation
Recruitment of abdominal wall muscles (belly breathers)
Early Neuromuscular dz
respiratory muscle weakness
increased recruitment of resp muscles = fatigue
Less respiratory reserve (hypoventilation)
lower FRC, smaller Vt, tachypnea
Late Neuromuscular dz
Chronic low tone and low volume ventilation
(kyphoscoliosis, contracture of the costo vertebral joints)
Fxnal consequences (decreased chest wall complaince)
Airflow
Structural changes in the infant airway
thicker epithelium
more mucous glands
less developed cartilage
increased smooth m
equal number of branches
smaller diameter
small change in diameter = _______ problem
exponential
Asthma structural changes
smooth muscles constriction
inflammation and edema of bronchial wall
increased mucous

obstructed airflow
intermittent complete obstruction = crackles
Partial obstruction = wheezing
Wheezing in asthma
polyphonic
T/F you can use pulse ox to monitor CO2 on someone with supplemental O2
False, can underestimate
V/Q mismatch
shunt blood to well ventilated places and constrict blood flow to underventilated places
actual true shunt
direct connection b/w venous and arterial -- large amount of blood
Apnea
pause of 2 respiratory cycles
central
obstructive
or mixed
Infections associated with Apnea
RSV
Pertussis
Receptors in lung
stretch
irritant
J
Control of breathing
Cortex/voluntary control
CV (arterial baroreceptors)
Chemoreceptors
Skin/Face Receptors
Muscle Receptors
Upper airway receptors
Lung receptors
3 groups of neurons control respiration
DRG (basic rhythm)
VRG (drive, SNS stim, dyspnea)
Pneumotaxic center (controls off switch of insp ramp signal = frequency control)
Physiologic changes during sleep
decrease in medullary chemoreceptor response to hypercarbia
decrease in carotid body chemoreceptor response to hypoxia
Decrease in dilator muscle tone
Decrease in intercostal muscle activity
Decrease in diaphragmatic efficiency
Congenital central hypoventilation syndrome
failure of autonomic control of breathing
severely impaired response to hypoxia and hypercapnia
Worse at sleep
NIV, trach/vent
ROHHAD
rapid onset obesity
later onset of alveolar hypoventilation
hypothalamic dysfxn and autonomic dysregulation
Obesity hypoventilation syndrome
obesity and daytime hypoventilation
decreased response to hypoxia and hypercapnia
increased work of breathing due to obesity, OSA, resp muscle impairment and decreased central ventilatory drive
NIV overnight
SIDS
<1 year of age
unexplained
supine sleeping
breast feeding
immunizations
no co sleeping or fluffy sleeping surfaces
resp monitors not effectve
Don't smolke!!
Pediatric airway
size?
position?
Large __ and ___
Epiglottis is __
Narrowest portion?
smaller
more anterior
epiglottis is floppier
Larger tongue
Larger occiput
Narrowest poriton of airway is cricoid
Obligate nasal breathers --> ___

Increased airway and chest wall compliance ____

Smaller airways --> ___
nasal congestion --> apnea

easier airway obstruction

exponentially easier to obstruct
Classic syndrome associated with airway obstruction
down syndrome
Evaluation of FB aspiration
2 out of 3 rule
1. Hx of witnessed aspiration/choking
2. Suggestive physical findings
3. Suggestive x ray findings
Focal findings of FB
polyphonic wheezing
crackles
decreased breath sounds
FIndings in FB aspiration
monophonic wheezing
unilateral hyperresonance
shift of the trachea
Infections of upper airway causing obstruction
retropharyngeal or peritonsillar abscess
epiglottis
croup
diptheria
rec'd
Infections of larynx or trachea causing airway obstruction
bacterial tracheitis
papillomatosis
Recurrent Respiratory papillomatosis
HPV
contract airway lesions
Tx: antiviral, HPV vaccine, surgery
Airway clearance mechanisms
1. cough
2. mucociliary clearance
CF occurs mainly in the
whites
inherited autsomal recessive disorder
CF mechanism
CFTR deffect
Change in chloride ion transport --> thick dehydrated secretions
Abnormal airway surface liquid --> disrupt mucociliary clearance
pancreatic obstruction leads to pancreatic insufficiency
CF exam findings
crackles, wheezes (poly or mono), decreased air exchange, nasal polyps clubbing
monophonic
large airway
polyphonic
small airway
Tx for CF
chest physiotherapy
meds to thin secretions
broad spectrum antibiotics
Nutritional support
Molecular CTFR channel modifiers
is pulse ox a good measurement in anemia?
NO
common teratogens (6)
infections
physical
chemical
social drugs
metabolic
chromosomal abnormalities
Choanal atresia
blockage of posterior nasal aperture
unilateral or bilateral
bilateral- noisy breathing ,upper airway obstruction
cyanosis worse with feeding
micrognathia
small jaw
macroglossia?
Tx?
large tongue
Tx surgery
glossoptosis
fxnal macroglossia
ankyloglossia
tongue-tied
Pierre-Robin
triad of u shaped palate
micrognathia
glossoptosis

cause upper airway obstruction
Tx: prone position, gavage feed
Beckwidth-Wiedeman
large baby
large organs
Tracheoesophafeal fistula (TEF)
most common blind esophageal pouch
immediately symptomatic
excessive secretions, drooling, resp distress, inability to feed

Aspiration pneumonia

Dx: cannot pass catheter into stomach

Tx: surgery
Tracheal atresia
partial or complete absence of trachea below larynx

Lethal unless fistula present

cyanosis, severe respiratory distress, no audible cry, unable to ventilate/intubate
Tracheal stenosis
segmented
severe resp distress, cyanosis, difficult feeding, stridor, wheezing
Dx - CxR
Tx: surgical
Tracheal malacia
dynamic collapse of trachea during expiration

defect in cartilagenous portion -- lack of rigid support

Need bronchoscopy

Most improve spontaneously
Bronchial anomalies Tx
supportive
Diaphragmatic hernia
posterolateral defect of the diaphragm
Herniation of abdominal viscera into the thoracic cavity
5x more common on the Left side
Bronchiogenic cysts pathogenesis
anomalous budding of foregut
don't communicate with tracheobronchial tree
unilocular
Dx of AOM
requires the presence of middle ear effusion and otalgia, otorrhea, bulging red or yellow TM, fever
Pathogenesis AOM
eustachian tube dysfxn --> bacteria multiply --> effusion/suppuration --> perforation and or resolution
AOM causitive organisms
RSV, parainfluenza

triad: hi non typable, strep pneumo, moraxella catarrhalis
Strep pneumo characteristics
gram positive
lancet shaped
diplococci

sensitive to optochin

M antigen
Haemophilus influenza
often missed in gram stain
Moraxella catarrhalis
gram negative diplococcus
oxidase positive
T/F expect a middle ear effusion for 1-3 months following a resolved AOM
True
Pathophysiology of sinusitis
obstruction of natural ostia
causes of acute sinusitis
Triad
Strep pneumo
Hin (non typable)
Moraxella catarrhalis
Tx of acute sinusitis
commonly resolves sponatenously
topical decongestant
When do you treat acute sinusitis with antibiotics
length of sx ( 2 weeks minimum) should be your strongest reason to treat with antibiotics
squamous cell carcinoma
arise in larger bronchi
spreading by direct extension and L.N mets
Early hematogenous metastases
keratin pearl formation/intracellular bridges
Tumors erode bronchial epithelium
adenocarcinoma
malignant tumor w/ glandular differentiation
women and non smokers
peripherally located
contain mucin
may show foci of atypical bronchiolar and alveolar proliferation
Arise in association with a peripheral scar or honeycombing
small cell carcinoma micro
higly malignant
cells are small/scant
ill defined cell borders
finely granular chromatin
absent or inconspicuous nucleoli
round oval or spindle shaped cells
nuclear molding prominent
small cell carcinoma
tumors arise in both major bronchi
more advanced stages --> nodular growth involving lung parenchyma
central necrosis w/ anthracosis
Early Mediastinal LN involvement**
Small cell carcinoma EM
typical neurosecretory type granules
present in a cytoplasmic proces/beneath cell membrane
SCC risk factors
SMOKING
MOST aggresive
Carcinoid tumors
low grade malignant epithelial neoplasms
most arise in the main to segmental bronchi
Peripheral origin
Tumor is polypoid and endobronchial in the major bronchi
Bicameral or iceberg shaped in intermediate sized bronchii
Solid and nodular in periphery of the lung
well defined with a smooth lobulated granular ivory to pink glistening cut surface
EM -- dense core granules
tracheoesophageal fistula - leech
spit and sputter
Branchial cleft cyst
congenital cyst
arises in lateral neck
chronic inflammation
increased lymphocytes
well demarcated
see later in life
Sequestration -- Leech
mass of lung tissue
without any normal connection to the airway system
blood supply NOT from pulm aa. but from aorta
problems via mass effect

Extra- distended abdomen

Immature lung

Intralobar -- pneumonia
cystic adenomatoid malformations-- leech
CCAM
Types 1-3
Type 1: large cysts
2: assoc with other anomalies
medium sized cysts

As increase type increase lung involvement and worse prognosis