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272 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
PEAK FLOW METERS are used for
MOITORING
SPIROMETERS are used for
DIAGNOSING
What spirometry Indicationer determains asthma and COPD
reversibility
What is maximum amount of air that can be exhaled
VITAL CAPACITY
WHAT IS THE AMOUNT OF AIR CONTAINED IN THE FULLY EXPANDED LUNG
TOTAL LUNG CAPACITY
Volume of air that enters the lung during a normal breath
Tidal Volume
Amount of air remaining after maximum expiration
Residual Volume
Indicates degree of lung and chest expansion and a good indicator of patient effort
FVC = Forced Vital Capacity
Measures the total amount of air that a patient can blow out as rapidly as possible after inhaling as deeply as possible
FVC = Forced Vital Capacity
Indicates patency of large airways and indicates both large and small airway function
FEV1
Measures the amount of air forcefully blown out during the first second of the effort
FEV1
Reduced FEV1/FVC(ratio)
may imply
airway obstruction
Indicates large airway patency and is VERY EFFORT DEPENDENT
PEF
Measures the highest flow that can be generated by the patient forcefully blowing after fully inflating the lungs
PEF
what is the Correct Technique for a PFT
Deep, full maximal inspiration
Forced full exhalation to FVC
Proper duration of effort
Absence of coughs &/or extra breaths
what is the PFT criteria for a Restrictive airway
decrease vital capacity (Lung volume); no decrease FEV1:FVC ratio
what is the PFT criteria for an Obstructive airway
normal or decrease vital capacity; marked decrease FEV1:FVC ratio <70%
What are the Restrictive airway D/Os
1. Neurological d/o
2. Tumors
3. Cavitations
4. Pneumonia
5. Fibrosis
what is the Restrictive Pattern
FEV1/FVC > 80, & FVC is decreased; Actual ratio, not predicted
What are the Obstructive airway D/Os
1. Asthma
2. Emphysema
3. Chronic Bronchitis
4. Cystic Fibrosis
what is the Obstructive Pattern
FEV1/FVC < 80
What Special Test Reflects ability of lung to transfer gas across alveolar/capillary interface
Diffusing capacity DLCO

--Single-breath carbon monoxide
Diffusing capacity DLCO is decreased in what Dz processes
- emphysema
- diffuse infiltrative lung disease
- Pneumocystis
Diffusing capacity DLCO is increased in what Dz processes
- pulmonary hemorrhage
- CHF
- asthma
(Due to increased pulmonary capillary blood volume)
what are the 2 Bronchial Provocation Tests
- Methacholine challenge
- Inhaled methacholine/histamine
Methacholine challenge is used to Evaluate what Dz processes
- suspected asthma, when baseline spirometer is normal

- unexplained cough
What is the MOA of Inhaled methacholine/histamine
Cause bronchial smooth muscle constriction at lower doses than non-asthmatics
What constututes and Positive Inhaled methacholine/histamine test
If FEV1 falls > 20% this constitutes a positive test
What are the measured components of ABG's
pH
pCO2
pO2
ABGs look at what 2 categories
1. Oxygenation
2. Acid-Base Balance
What is the MOA Oximetry
monitors hemoglobin O2 saturation
Oximetry Accuracy is reduced with
1. Severe anemia (< 5 g/dL Hgb)
2. Increased presence of metHgb, carboxy-Hbg, intravascular dyes, motion artifact
3. Lack of pulsatile arterial blood flow
Immediately apply pressure to ABG puncture site for a MINIMUM of
5 minutes
If pt is on anticoagulant therapy (heparin, Coumadin) apply pressure to ABG puncture site for a MINIMUM of
10 min
What is the 5th most common symptom for which pts seek care
Cough
when evaluating a Chronic or persistent cough, In addition to history & physical examination, a systematic diagnostic approach including
1. Chest radiograph (CXR)
2. Spirometry, bronchoprovocation
3. Sinus imaging
4. Esophageal pH monitoring
What is the duration of Chronic or persistent cough
> 8 weeks
What is the duration of Acute cough
≤ 3 weeks
What is the duration of Subacute
3-8 weeks
What is the Mainstay of treatment for an Acute cough
nonspecific antitussive therapy
What is the most common Complications of Chronic Cough
Feeling that something is wrong
What are the most common other physiologic symptoms of chronic cough, due to high intrathoracic & intra-abdominal pressure
- cough syncope
- cardiac dysrhythmias
- headache
- subconjunctival hemorrhage
- inguinal herniation
- gastroesophageal reflux
what is the most common overall cause of chronic cough
cigarette smoking
What is the pathogenic triad of Chronic Cough
- PND
- asthma
- GERD
What is the single most common cause of chronic cough in non-smokers
PND
Categories of PND include
Chronic sinusitis
Rhinitis
What are the Symptoms of PND
- Rhinorrhea
- Nasal congestion
- Sensation of drainage or tickle in oropharynx
- Throat clearing.
Pathogenesis of cough in PND involves
stimulation of afferent receptors in upper airway rather than runoff of secretions into lower airway.
"cobblestoning" appearance of oropharyngeal mucosa
PND
is associated w/ increased likelihood of chronic sinusitis
Copious sputum
What type of radiography appears to provide as much information as standard 4-view series in PND
Single Waters' view

- C-T is more sensitive
What is the 2nd most common cause of chronic cough in adults
Asthma
subset of asthmatic pts complain exclusively of cough
Cough-variant asthma
Proof that asthma is inciting factor in chronic cough requires
demonstration of a response to directed therapy
What are the Historical features Asthma
wheezing, chest tightness, or exertional dyspnea in response to triggers (strong odors or perfumes, cold air, or allergens should suggest diagnosis)
What are the historical features of GERD
- exacerbation at night
- in supine position
- or after eating
(DO NOT reliably differentiate GERD-induced cough from other causes) if chronic cough
What itest is use in asthmatic pts to determaine if GERD is also a causes of cough
24-hour pH probe findings
A Cough due to ACE inhibitors usually occurs
within 1 week of starting medication, but may occur as late as 1 year
Cough resolution may be delayed for up to ________ after discontinuation of the drug.
1 month
what Med does not cause cough & therefore are useful therapeutic alternatives
ARB
What Dz is characterized by productive cough on most days for 3 months in 2 consecutive years
Chronic bronchitis
Chronic bronchitis is caused by
irritant-induced inflammation or by need to mobilize excessive secretions
What is the Most common irritant of Chronic bronchitis
- cigarette smoke
- but occupational exposures or inflammatory bowel disease may also trigger this syndrome
What is the Mainstay of treatment for Chronic bronchitis
avoid offending agents
Particular vigilance with Chronic bronchitis is warranted when there is a
change in character of cough or sputum
A change in character of cough or sputum in Chronic bronchitis may be presenting feature of a
superimposed bronchogenic carcinoma
Develops when chronic inflammation or infection leads to progressive airway damage
Bronchiectasis
A pt with Bronchiectasis can produce who much sputum per day
2 tbsp/day.
evidence of tubular or cystic structures representing dilated, mucus-filled bronchi in a CXR indicates what Dz
Bronchiectasis
when do you perform a Chest CT on a pt with Bronchiectasis
equivocal or negative CXR findings
(Chest CT is a more sensitive tool)
A Postinfectious Cough is Usually caused by
- respiratory viruses
- Mycoplasma species
- Chlamydia pneumonia
- Pertussis
Management of chronic cough typically involves a combination of which simple screening studies
- CXR
- spirogram
What are the Specific diagnostic studies to DIAGNOSIS chronic cough
- Methacholine provocation
- sinus imaging
- or a pH probe
- & empiric therapy for the 3 most common entities (rhinitis, asthma, & GERD)
Treatment of chronic cough fails in a significant proportion of nonresponders due to
inadequate intensity or duration of treatment
In the treatment chronic cough what should be done prior to further investigations
Evaluation & treatment for
PND
asthma
and, or GERD
In assessing for presence of uncommon causes of chronic cough what test has a relatively higher diagnostic yield & should be performed prior to cardiac tests in absence of cardiac symptoms
chest CT
What is the Initial therapy for PND
antihistamine-decongestant combination
What are the Older-generation antihistamines
- dexbrompheniramine maleate
- azatadine maleate
Why are the Older-generation antihistamines (dexbrompheniramine maleate or azatadine maleate), superior to second-generation (non-sedating) drugs
because of their additional anticholinergic activity
If drowsiness is problematic with the Initial therapy for PND what should be done
initiated therapy at bedtime, with escalation to BID dosing at a later time
Second-generation antihistamine are useful primarily in
- allergic rhinitis syndromes.
most patients will have a symptomatic response within 1 week with antihistamine-decongestant therapy except for
chronic sinusitis
The Presence of bronchial hyperresponsiveness should be demonstrated by provocation testing or
reliable history prior to use of oral steroids & when bronchodilators alone are ineffective in presence of high clinical suspicion
What is the maximal therapy in the Tx of GERD in chronic cough a pt
- Avoid reflux-predisposing foods (fatty foods, chocolate, caffeine, alcohol)
- Tobacco cessation
- elevation of head of bed
- Not eating within 2-3 hours prior to lying down
What is the mainstay of medical therapy for GERD
Proton pump inhibitors
What test is performed when maximal therapy for GERD fails
Ambulatory pH monitoring
Documentation of persistent symptomatic acid reflux should prompt consideration of
esophageal fundoplication
What therapy markedly reduces symptoms of Chronic Bronchitis in > 50% of patients within 1 month
Smoking cessation
What drug decrease cough frequency & sputum production most effectively in Chronic Bronchitis
Ipratropium MDI (2 puffs QID)
What therapy is useful for Bronchiectasis pts who produce large volumes of sputum & during disease flares
Chest physiotherapy techniques
Tx of Bronchiectasis flares may also require
prolonged antibiotic courses
The Benefits of treating a chronic cough with what 2 drugs has not been demonstrated
- beta-agonists
- theophylline
What are the Essentials of Diagnosis of asthma
- Episodic or chronic s/s of airflow obstruction
- SX’S FREQUENTLY WORSE AT NIGHT OR EARLY MORNING
- Prolonged expiration & diffuse wheezing
- Limitation of airflow on PFT’s or Positive bronchial provocation
- Complete or partial reversibility
What is a reversible obstructive airway disease
Respiratory disease of increased irritability of tracheobronchial tree
What is the Bottom line adverse effect of Asthma
increased resistance to airflow
What are the Characteristics of Asthma
Airway Obstruction
Airway Inflammation
Airway Hyper responsiveness
All effects not universal, patients are different
- Bronchospasm
- Mucus plugging
What is the Most common chronic disease of childhood
Asthma
Theoretically every asthma death is
preventable
What appears to play an important roles in the Pathophysiology of asthma
Sensitization & inflammation
Regardless of trigger ____________ sustains bronchial hyperactivity
inflammation
what is the Hallmark of an asthmatic Allergic Response
tendency to maintain persistent IgE response after antigen exposure
What denotes a group of diseases in people with inherited allergic tendencies to develop antibodies to common organic environmental allergens
Atopy
What is the Triad Asthma
Asthma
aspirin sensitivity
& nasal polyposis
What happens in the early (acute bronchoconstrictive) phase of Airway Hyper responsiveness in Asthma to Antigens
involves rapid development of reversible airway obstruction to stimuli - Often resolves with bronchodilators
What happens in the Late Phase of Airway Hyper responsiveness in Asthma to Antigens
- reaction may occur 6-12 hours later
--Thought to be inflammatory response, responding to anti-inflammatories, but more refractory to bronchodilators
What are the causes of Drug-Induced Asthma (non-allergy related)
- ASA/NSAID 2* altered prostaglandin metabolism
--S/S polyposis nasi & chronic sinusitis
- ACE inhibitors
- BB
What are the Clinical Features of Severe asthma
use of accessory muscles, distant breath sounds, loud wheeze, hyperresonance, intercostal retractions
What are the Clinical Features of Mild asthma
slight tachycardia & tachypnea
What are the 3 Questions You Must Ask An Asthmatic
1. Have you ever been Hospitalized due to Asthma
2. Have you ever been intubated due Asthma
3. Have you ever been placed on oral steroids for Asthma
What are the Ominous Signs of asthma
- Fatigue (can get same with marked improvement)
- Pulsus paradoxus (>20 Hg mm)
- Diaphoresis & cyanosis
- Inaudible breath sounds with diminished wheezing
- Unable to stay recumbent
What type of cells may you find the in the sputum of an asthma
eosinophils
What may the PFT results of an asthmatic pt present
- may often be normal when asymptomatic
- consistent with typical obstruction dysfunction & partial reversibility w/ bronchodilators (FEV1 improves ≥12% & 200ml OR ≥15% and 200ml in FVC)
What is the cornerstone Tx for asthma
Prevention
What is the drug of choice for acute bronchospasm
Beta2 selective agonists
(Inhaled sympathomimetics)
What are the Short-acting beta-2 agonists
Albuterol Inhaler (Proventil, Ventolin Inhaler)
What are the Long acting beta-adrenoceptor agonists
SALMETEROL
Formoterol
what drug is considered first line maintenance for mod to severe asthma
Inhaled Corticosteroids
What are the Inhaled Corticosteroids
Azmacort (Triamcinolone acetonide)
Aerobid (Flunisolide)
Beclovent(Beclomethasone dipropionate)
Flovent (Fluticasone propionate)
Pulmicort (Budesonide
What are the Oral Corticosteroids
Prednisone
Solu-Medrol
which Corticosteroids is used IV
Solu-Medrol
What is the Concerns with using Oral Corticosteroids
hypo -pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis suppression
What is the Pediatrics: drug of choice for EIA
Mast Cell Stabilizers
(Cromolyn & nedocromil)
What is the Drug of choice for COPD
Anticholinergics
What drug is used in some ERs in combination with beta 2
Anticholinergics
What drug is an Anticholinergics
Ipratropium bromide
What drug is used for mod to severe patients, especially nocturnal symptoms
Oral Theophylline
What drugs may allow elimination of oral & possibly inhaled steroids
Leukotriene Receptor Antagonists (LTRA)
- Zafirlukast (Accolate)
- Montelukast sodium (Singulair)
- Zileuton a similar drug
What is the Tx plan for Step 4 (Severe Persistent)
Daily medications
- Anti-inflammatory: inhaled steroid (high dose) AND
- Long-acting inhaled bronchodilator AND
- Oral steroids; make attempts at reducing systemic steroids
What is the Tx plan for Step 3 (Moderate Persistent)
Daily medications
Either
Anti-inflammatory: inhaled steroid (medium dose) OR
- Inhaled steroid & long acting bronchodilator esp. for night symptoms
What is the Tx plan for Step 2 (Mild Persistent)
Daily Medications
- Anti-inflammatory: either inhaled steroid or cromolyn (mast cell stabilizer)
What is the Tx plan for Step 1 (Mild Intermittent)
No daily medication needed
All asthma Patients are Tx with
short acting bronchodilator inhaled beta2-agonist
What is the Green Zone Asthma Action Plan
Doing Well
- No cough, wheeze, chest tightness, or SOB during day or night
- Peak flow 80% or more of best
- Take all RX as directed
What is the Yellow Zone Asthma Action Plan
Asthma is getting worse
- Cough, wheeze, chest tightness, or SOB, OR
- Waking at night due to asthma, OR
Can do some, but not all, usual activities OR
- Peak flow 50%-80%
What is the procedure for a pt in the yellow zone
- Add: Quick-Relief Medicine-Keep taking your Green Zone medicine
- If your SXs return to green zone p 1 hr: take quick relief RX Q4hrs for 1-2 days Double the dose of your inhaled steroids
- If SXs do not return to Green Zone: see Red Zone
What is the procedure for a pt in the RED zone
- Very short of breath, OR
- Quick-relief medicines have not helped, OR
- Cannot do usual activities, OR
- Peak flow < 50% of best peak flow
GO TO HOSPITAL NOW!
What is the Beta2-agonist Nebulizer Tx plan
Up to 3 treatments given over 60-90 min
What is the alternative for o Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) in young & middle aged emergency asthma pts
Subcutaneous terbutaline
what med is used to Tx very severe & unresponsive asthma pt
Corticosteroids (IV)
( if pt is on oral Corticosteroid D/C them)
Clinical condition caused by acute inflammation of trachea & bronchi
Acute Bronchitis or Tracheobronchitis
If cough for Acute Bronchitis or Tracheobronchitis persist past 7 days consider
Pertussis
The Infectious Agent of Acute Bronchitis or Tracheobronchitis is most often _______, so _________ are unwarranted
viral
ANTIBIOTICS
What are the Physical Findings for Acute Bronchitis or Tracheobronchitis
- PE may be normal or with rhonchi & wheeze
- No signs of pulmonary consolidation
- CXR normal
- Fever may or may not be present
COPD a spectrum of respiratory diseases, _________is a clinical condition,__________ is a pathological entity
- Chronic Bronchitis
- Emphysema
COPD is Characterized by what S/S
cough
sputum
dyspnea
airflow limitation
& impaired gas exchange
term used to describe a process where chronic bronchitis &\or emphysema has led to development of airway obstruction
COPD
What are the Risk Factors for COPD
Cigarette smoking
Passive smoking
Heredity
α-1-antitrypsin deficiency
Ambient air pollution
Higher incidence in men, whites
Other inhaled substances
In Early onset of COPD what is the median onset age for Smokers
40
In Early onset of COPD what is the median onset age for NON-Smokers
53
Check A1A levels in patients with a family H/O early COPD at what age
30
What is the typical History of a COPD Pt
- Smoking Hx - usually > 40 pack years
- Environmental exposures
- Dyspnea - exertional vs rest
- Wheezing
- Cough characteristics - productive, amount, color, episodic
What is the typical Physical Exam presentation of a COPD Pt
- barrel chest
- Distant or decreased breath sounds
- Prolonged expiratory phase
- Wheezing on exhalation
- normal or wheezing with coarse crackles or prolonged expiration
Severe COPD is suggested by:
1. Accessory muscle use
2. Paradoxical abdominal motion
3. Pursed-lip breathing
COPD pts that has Predominant Emphysema have signs of
lung hyperinflation
weight loss
distressed respirations with use of accessory muscles
inspiration through pursed lips
COPD pts that has Predominant Chronic Bronchitis have signs of
overweight & cyanotic
usually no signs of distress at rest or use of accessory muscles
What are the Chest X-ray finding in COPD
1. Hyperinflation
- Flattening of hemi diaphragms
- Increased AP diameter
2. RV hypertrophy
3. Pulmonary HTN
4. Bullous lung disease
5. Narrowing of cardiac silhouette
what is the PFT bottom line in COPD
Prognosis for patient with severe COPD with FEV1 ≤ 0.75L is a 30% mortality rate at one year & a 95% mortality rate at 10 years
What condition in a COPD pt suggest chronic hypoxemia & indicates need for ABG & consideration of O2 therapy
Erythrocytosis
in Acute exacerbations of COPD what bacterias may found in the sputum
Streptococcus pneumoniae Haemophilus influenzae,
Moraxella catarrhalis (less frequently)
The clinical features for emphysema are
Older
Tall, Thin
Late cor pulmonale
mild hypoxemia
The clinical features for chronic bronchitis are
Younger
Stocky, obese
Early cor
When can the Diagnosis of Chronic Bronchitis can be made
Diagnosis can only be made when ALL other causes of chronic cough are excluded (i.e. TB, lung cancer, CHF)
how is a Chronic productive cough Dx
occur on most days for at least 3 months in each of 2 successive years with other causes of chronic cough excluded
Abnormal permanent enlargement of air sacs distal to terminal bronchioles, with destruction of alveolar walls & no obvious fibrosis
Emphysema
“Glad bags for lungs.”
Abnormal permanent enlargement of airspaces distal to terminal bronchioles
Emphysema
What is the Treatment Goal for COPD
- prevent further damage
- prevent & treat acute exacerbations & maximize current function
What meds should be avoided in the Tx of COPD
cough suppressants
& sedatives
What is the Tx for COPD
- Prevent further damage by eliminating inhaled irritants
- Improve secretion reduction with bronchodilators
- Correct hypoxia with O2 therapy - (Can prolong life)- Use ABGs for adjusting
COPD Tx Therapy includes
Smoking Cessation
β-agonists
Anticholinergics
Theophylline
Corticosteroids
Oxygen
Antibiotics
What med is used for Smoking Cessation
Anxiolytics (Zyban)
What is the second line agent for stable COPD
β-agonists
Short-acting (Albuterol):
4-6 puffs po QID
What is the First line agent for acute exacerbation
β-agonists
Short-acting (Albuterol):
What are the Side effects of Short-acting (Albuterol)
nervousness
tremors
elevated HR
What is the primary drug of choice for COPD
Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)
What med is a Controversial agent in COPD
Theophylline
When is oxygen therapy warranted in COPD
pO2 < 55 mm Hg, O2 sat < 89%
When are antibiotics warranted in COPD
change in color or consistency of sputum
What is the Tx for Mild continuous COPD
Atrovent 2-4 puffs po qid
PRN β-agonist & prior to exercise
What is the Tx for Moderate continuous COPD
Use scheduled β-agonist & Atrovent
Consider use of long-acting β-agonist
Consider use of theophylline
Consider use of inhaled steroids.
What is the Tx for Severe continuous COPD
Scheduled anticholinergic & β-agonist
Long-acting β-agonist (Serevent)
Inhaled corticosteroid
Ventolin 4 puffs MDI or neb prn
Theophylline
May require low dose po steroids
May require oxygen @ 2L
What are the Complications of COPD
Acute respiratory failure
Secondary pneumothorax
Multifocal atrial tachycardia(MAT)
Pulmonary HTN
Cor pulmonale
What test is indicated if symptoms suggestive of sleep apnea
Polysomnography
What are the inclusion criteria of a Lung Reduction
1. Age < 70
2. FEV1% < 40% predicted
3. pCO2 < 50
4. < 10 mg Prednisone/day
5. No substantial co-morbid illness
What are the inclusion criteria of a Lung Transplantation
- Physiologic age < 60
- Life expectancy of 12-18 months
- Adequate cardiac function with no systemic illnesses
- FEV1 < 30% or FEV1/FVC% < 40%
- Hypoxemia with pO2 < 55 mm Hg
- Presence of hypercarbia
Pneumonia is a infection of what
infection of pulmonary parenchyma
Pneumonia Involves what parts of the lung
- interstitial tissue or alveoli
- alveoli & adjacent bronchi
- or even entire lobe
Pneumonia may cause lung abnormality
- patchy infiltrations
- full lobe consolidation
- accumulation of pus (empyema)
- necrotic cavities
what is the Most common cause of death due to infectious disease
Pneumonia
What are the bodies Mechanical Defenses to pneumonia
1. Anatomic barriers
2. Aerodynamics - deposition of particles
3. Epithelial cell barriers
4. Mucus
5. Mucociliary escalator
What are the bodies Pulmonary Defenses to pneumonia
- Alveolar macrophages - resident phagocytic cell in airways, alveoli
- Inflammatory response - PMNs, complement and humoral immunity
- Specific immune responses for: viruses, fungi & mycobacteria
A pt w/ DKA is more susceptible to what type of pneumonia
S. pneumonia
S. aureus
An Alcoholic is more susceptible to what type of pneumonia
Klebsiella
Anaerobes
A pt w/ COPD is more susceptible to what type of pneumonia
H. flu
M. Cat
Legionella
A pt w/ HIV, CD4 > 200 is more susceptible to what type of pneumonia
S. pneumonia
H. Flu
TB
A pt w/ HIV, CD4 < 200 is more susceptible to what type of pneumonia
PCP (Pneumocystis jiroveci)
Histo
Crypto
The Physical finding of periodontal Dz indicates what possible organism
Anaerobes
Polymicrobial
The Physical finding of Bullous myringitis indicates what possible organism
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
The Physical finding of Absent gag or altered MS indicates what possible organism
Polymicrobial aspiration
15-54 y/o pt with reoccurring pneumonia consider
HIV
What preceedure should be done if significant effusion present in pneumonia
Thoracentesis
Focal opacity on CXR of CAP indicates
S. pneumoniae
L. pneumophila
C. pneumoniae
S. aureus
Multifocal opacity on CXR of CAP indicates
S. aureus
L. pneumophila
S. pneumo
Interstitial pattern on CXR of CAP indicates what organism
M. pneumoniae
Viruses
Pneumocystis carinii
C. psittaci
Miliary pattern on CXR of CAP indicates what organism
M. tuberculosis
Fungi
Varicella zoster
Cavitation pattern on CXR of CAP indicates what organism
Mixed aerobic/anaerobic
GNR
M. tuberculosis
C. neoformans
Nocardia
Actinomyces
What tests should be done on all hospitalized pneumonia patients
Blood and sputum cultures
What tests should be done on all ICU pneumonia patients
Urine Legionella antigen
“Typical” pneumonia is most commonly caused by
Strep pneumoniae
20 y/o F w/ sudden onset of fever, chills, purulent sputum, signs of consolidation, leukocytosis, CXR with patchy or lobar infiltrates, pleuritic chest pain with splinting may be present - they look “sick” indicates
Strep pneumoniae
18 y/o M w/ gradual onset, dry cough, abnormalities on CXR despite minimal PE findings other than rales, predominance of extrapulmonary symptoms (dry cough, HA, malaise, myalgias, N/V, diarrhea), may or may not have pleurisy or appear “sick” indicates
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
“Atypical” Pneumonia
“Atypical” Pneumonia is most commonly caused by
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Outpatient, age < 60, no co- morbidity the most common pathogens is
Streptococcus pneumoniae
What is the Empirical Treatment for Outpatient, age < 60, no co- morbidity
macrolide azithromycin (Zithromax) or Doxycycline for 10-14 days
What is the Empirical Treatment for Outpatient with Comorbidity or >age 60
beta-lactamase inhibitor (Augmentin) OR
2nd generation cephalosporin (Ceftin) OR beta-lactam Cefuroxime OR
IV Ceftriaxone
Plus Macrolide or Doxy
What is the most common pathogens for Outpatients with Comorbidity or >age 60
Strep pneumoniae
Whay is the Empirical IV Treatment for CAP Requiring Hospitalization
- 2nd or 3rd generation cephalosporin (Zinacef or Rocephin) or β-lactam/β-lactamase inhibitor (Timentin)
- Use or add a macrolide (erythromycin) if Legionnaires is suspected
Who should receive the influenza vaccine
- everyone > 50,
- plus High risk pts, HCWs, families & close contacts with high risk pts
Prevention of CAP
- Influenza vaccine
- Pneumococcal vaccine
- Avoid certain circumstances if possible (nursing homes, other institutions)
what are the High Risk Patients with CAP
- Patient’s age > 60
- Co-morbid conditions
- Abnormal PE
What are the Co-morbid conditions
- Neoplastic disease
- CHF
- CNS
- renal
- Liver disease
What are the Abnormal PE finding for High Risk Patients with CAP
- Altered MS
- Pulse > 125, RR > 30, Sys BP < 90
- Temp < 35 C or > 40 C
What is the most common pathogens for Hospitalized pt's Severely ill with CAP
Strep pneumoniae
What is the Empirical IV Treatment for a Hospitalized pt with Severely ill CAP
combination therapy with macrolide & 3rd generation cephalosporin with antipseudomonal activity (Fortaz) or other antipseudomonal agent (Cipro)
A Categories of risk score < 90
send home
A Categories of risk score > 91
admit
What meds are given during a outbreak of influenza A
Amantadine
or Rimantadine
What is the TX for Pneumocystis jirovecii in HIV
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
What is the TX for Tuberculosis
INH
If pneumonia occurs > 48 hours after admission if is considered
Nosocomial pneumonia (HAP):
If pneumonia occurs < 48 hours after admission if is considered
CAP
What are the Organisms that are encountered most frequently & can be referred to as “core pathogens” :
S. pneumonia
H. influenzae
S. aureus
Aerobic GN bacilli
Most HAP cases result from
micro aspiration of previously colonized oropharyngeal secretions
What test should be performed to obtain a good bacteria specimen in HAP
Fiberoptic bronchoscopy
sub-type of HAP which occurs in people who are on mechanical ventilation
Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP):
What is the Empiric treatment for VAP
should be with a wide spectrum antibiotic or combination, based on patient severity & what has been seen in hospital recently
What is the Tx for HAP patients on ventilation &/or in ICU
broad spectrum & an aminoglycoside
What is the discharge Criteria for HAP
- Meet criteria for switching to oral antibiotics.
- WBC count < 12 x 109 /L
- Stable comorbid illness
- Normal oxygenation saturation (> 90% on RA)
- if COPD, pO2 > 60 & pCO2 < 45 mm Hg
What pneumonia causeing bacteria is described as, often follows an upper respiratory infection, CXR: lobar consolidation, Very common in CAP
Streptococcus pneumonia
What is the Drug of choice and Alternative Tx for Streptococcus pneumonia
- Zithromax
- Alternative: Levofloxacin
What pneumonia causeing bacteria is described as, common in alcoholics, diabetics, & HAP
CXR: lobar consolidation, Can cause cavitation & empyema
Klebsiella pneumoniae
What pneumonia causes bacteria is described as, Common in CAP, often hitting young adults in summer & fall, Often has an “Atypical” presentation, Complicated by bullous myringitis, CXR: extensive patchy infiltrates
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
What pneumonia causes bacteria is described as, Can be CAP or HAP, Often seen in summer or fall with exposure to contaminated construction site, water source, or air conditioner CXR: patchy or lobar consolidation
Legionella species
What pneumonia causes bacteria is described as, Often seen in pre-existing lung disease (i.e. smokers), elderly, pts on long term high dose corticosteroids or immunosuppressive therapy (i.e. transplant patients), CXR: patchy infiltrates or occasional lobar consolidation
Moraxella catarrhalis
What is the Preferred Treatment and Alternative for Moraxella catarrhalis
2nd or 3rd generation cephalosporin
Alternative: Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid (Augmentin) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim/Septra)
What is the Drug of Choice Legionella species
Azithromycin (Zithromax)
What is the Drug of Choice Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Azithromycin (Zithromax)
What is the Drug of Choice Klebsiella pneumoniae
Cefotaxime (Claforan)
What is the Preferred Treatment for Pneumocystis jiroveci
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole or pentamidine plus prednisone
- AIDS patients often on chemoprophylaxis of Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole & inhaled (aerosolized) pentamidine
What pneumonia causes bacteria is described as, Seen in AIDS, immunosuppressive or cytotoxic therapy, & cancer, CXR: diffuse interstitial ^ alveolar infiltrates
Pneumocystis jiroveci
What is the Preferred Treatment for Anaerobic Pneumonia & Lung Abscess
Clindamycin
What procedure is required for an empyema
Tube thoracostomy
What pneumonia causes bacteria is described as, Predisposition to aspirate, Possibly foul-smelling sputum
Anaerobic Pneumonia
What is the causative agent of Tuberculosis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
How is Tuberculosis tranmitted
airborne droplets
Patients usually have symptoms, are contagious in Infection or Disease Tuberculosis
TB disease
TB Disease can be from a
primary infection, but usually from reactivation
Pts who have or suspected of having pulmonary or laryngeal TB should be considered infectious if they are
- Coughing
- Undergoing cough-inducing or aerosol-generating procedures
- Have sputum smears positive for acid-fast bacilli
- Are not receiving treatment
- Have just started therapy, or
- Have poor clinical or bacteriological response to therapy
Patients are not considered infectious for TB if they met ALL these criteria
- Adequate therapy received for 2-3 weeks
- Favorable clinical response to therapy, AND
- consecutive NEG sputum smear results from sputum collected on different days
What are the Administrative Infection Control Measures for TB
- Consider TB in ALL HIV-infected pts with undiagnosed pulmonary disease
- If TB is suspected, take appropriate precautions to prevent transmission
What are the Engineering Infection Control Measures for TB
- Use ventilation systems in TB isolation rooms to maintain negative pressure & to exhaust air properly
- Use HEPA filtration & ultraviolet irradiation only in conjunction with other infection control measures
Personal respiratory protective equipment is use in what areas
- TB isolation rooms
- Rooms where cough-inducing procedures are done
- Homes of infectious TB patients
a form of Primary infection going directly disease where immune system doesn’t stop dissemination throughout lung
“Miliary”(resembling millet seed) TB
What are calcified primary foci or focus with calcified hilar lymph node
Ranke complexes
calcified primary focus
Ghon complex
What test is good for diagnosis on individual exposed to TB
Mantoux (PPD)
A PPD induration of ≥ 5 mm would be consider POS on class of people
- HIV infected or at risk for infection
- Close contacts of individuals with TB
- Persons with CXR consistent with old healed TB
A PPD induration of ≥ 10 mm would be consider POS on class of people
- Military
- Persons from high risk countries Asia, Africa, Latin American
- IV drug users
- Medically Underserved,
- Low-income populations
- Long-term residents
- High risk medical patients
the inability to react to skin test because of immunosuppression
Anergy
The anergy skin test panel consist of
- Tetanus toxoid
- Mumps
- or Candida antigen skin test
- & Mantoux at same time
What is the major cause of TB treatment failure & drug resistance
Noncompliance
TB Drugs SE for
Isoniazid (INH):
Rifampin:
Ethambutol:
Streptomycin:
- Isoniazid (INH): hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy
- Rifampin: hepatitis, GI bleed
- Ethambutol: Optic neuritis
- Streptomycin: 8th nerve damage, nephrotoxicity
When is the BCG (bacillus Calmette-Guerin) vaccine used and how is interpreted
- recommended only when INH can’t be used ( children exposed frequently to untreated population)
- specific population who don’t respond to aggressive TB control strategies
- Interpret same as person w/out BCG