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272 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
PEAK FLOW METERS are used for
|
MOITORING
|
|
SPIROMETERS are used for
|
DIAGNOSING
|
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What spirometry Indicationer determains asthma and COPD
|
reversibility
|
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What is maximum amount of air that can be exhaled
|
VITAL CAPACITY
|
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WHAT IS THE AMOUNT OF AIR CONTAINED IN THE FULLY EXPANDED LUNG
|
TOTAL LUNG CAPACITY
|
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Volume of air that enters the lung during a normal breath
|
Tidal Volume
|
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Amount of air remaining after maximum expiration
|
Residual Volume
|
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Indicates degree of lung and chest expansion and a good indicator of patient effort
|
FVC = Forced Vital Capacity
|
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Measures the total amount of air that a patient can blow out as rapidly as possible after inhaling as deeply as possible
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FVC = Forced Vital Capacity
|
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Indicates patency of large airways and indicates both large and small airway function
|
FEV1
|
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Measures the amount of air forcefully blown out during the first second of the effort
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FEV1
|
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Reduced FEV1/FVC(ratio)
may imply |
airway obstruction
|
|
Indicates large airway patency and is VERY EFFORT DEPENDENT
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PEF
|
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Measures the highest flow that can be generated by the patient forcefully blowing after fully inflating the lungs
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PEF
|
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what is the Correct Technique for a PFT
|
Deep, full maximal inspiration
Forced full exhalation to FVC Proper duration of effort Absence of coughs &/or extra breaths |
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what is the PFT criteria for a Restrictive airway
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decrease vital capacity (Lung volume); no decrease FEV1:FVC ratio
|
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what is the PFT criteria for an Obstructive airway
|
normal or decrease vital capacity; marked decrease FEV1:FVC ratio <70%
|
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What are the Restrictive airway D/Os
|
1. Neurological d/o
2. Tumors 3. Cavitations 4. Pneumonia 5. Fibrosis |
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what is the Restrictive Pattern
|
FEV1/FVC > 80, & FVC is decreased; Actual ratio, not predicted
|
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What are the Obstructive airway D/Os
|
1. Asthma
2. Emphysema 3. Chronic Bronchitis 4. Cystic Fibrosis |
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what is the Obstructive Pattern
|
FEV1/FVC < 80
|
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What Special Test Reflects ability of lung to transfer gas across alveolar/capillary interface
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Diffusing capacity DLCO
--Single-breath carbon monoxide |
|
Diffusing capacity DLCO is decreased in what Dz processes
|
- emphysema
- diffuse infiltrative lung disease - Pneumocystis |
|
Diffusing capacity DLCO is increased in what Dz processes
|
- pulmonary hemorrhage
- CHF - asthma (Due to increased pulmonary capillary blood volume) |
|
what are the 2 Bronchial Provocation Tests
|
- Methacholine challenge
- Inhaled methacholine/histamine |
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Methacholine challenge is used to Evaluate what Dz processes
|
- suspected asthma, when baseline spirometer is normal
- unexplained cough |
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What is the MOA of Inhaled methacholine/histamine
|
Cause bronchial smooth muscle constriction at lower doses than non-asthmatics
|
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What constututes and Positive Inhaled methacholine/histamine test
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If FEV1 falls > 20% this constitutes a positive test
|
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What are the measured components of ABG's
|
pH
pCO2 pO2 |
|
ABGs look at what 2 categories
|
1. Oxygenation
2. Acid-Base Balance |
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What is the MOA Oximetry
|
monitors hemoglobin O2 saturation
|
|
Oximetry Accuracy is reduced with
|
1. Severe anemia (< 5 g/dL Hgb)
2. Increased presence of metHgb, carboxy-Hbg, intravascular dyes, motion artifact 3. Lack of pulsatile arterial blood flow |
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Immediately apply pressure to ABG puncture site for a MINIMUM of
|
5 minutes
|
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If pt is on anticoagulant therapy (heparin, Coumadin) apply pressure to ABG puncture site for a MINIMUM of
|
10 min
|
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What is the 5th most common symptom for which pts seek care
|
Cough
|
|
when evaluating a Chronic or persistent cough, In addition to history & physical examination, a systematic diagnostic approach including
|
1. Chest radiograph (CXR)
2. Spirometry, bronchoprovocation 3. Sinus imaging 4. Esophageal pH monitoring |
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What is the duration of Chronic or persistent cough
|
> 8 weeks
|
|
What is the duration of Acute cough
|
≤ 3 weeks
|
|
What is the duration of Subacute
|
3-8 weeks
|
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What is the Mainstay of treatment for an Acute cough
|
nonspecific antitussive therapy
|
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What is the most common Complications of Chronic Cough
|
Feeling that something is wrong
|
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What are the most common other physiologic symptoms of chronic cough, due to high intrathoracic & intra-abdominal pressure
|
- cough syncope
- cardiac dysrhythmias - headache - subconjunctival hemorrhage - inguinal herniation - gastroesophageal reflux |
|
what is the most common overall cause of chronic cough
|
cigarette smoking
|
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What is the pathogenic triad of Chronic Cough
|
- PND
- asthma - GERD |
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What is the single most common cause of chronic cough in non-smokers
|
PND
|
|
Categories of PND include
|
Chronic sinusitis
Rhinitis |
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What are the Symptoms of PND
|
- Rhinorrhea
- Nasal congestion - Sensation of drainage or tickle in oropharynx - Throat clearing. |
|
Pathogenesis of cough in PND involves
|
stimulation of afferent receptors in upper airway rather than runoff of secretions into lower airway.
|
|
"cobblestoning" appearance of oropharyngeal mucosa
|
PND
|
|
is associated w/ increased likelihood of chronic sinusitis
|
Copious sputum
|
|
What type of radiography appears to provide as much information as standard 4-view series in PND
|
Single Waters' view
- C-T is more sensitive |
|
What is the 2nd most common cause of chronic cough in adults
|
Asthma
|
|
subset of asthmatic pts complain exclusively of cough
|
Cough-variant asthma
|
|
Proof that asthma is inciting factor in chronic cough requires
|
demonstration of a response to directed therapy
|
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What are the Historical features Asthma
|
wheezing, chest tightness, or exertional dyspnea in response to triggers (strong odors or perfumes, cold air, or allergens should suggest diagnosis)
|
|
What are the historical features of GERD
|
- exacerbation at night
- in supine position - or after eating (DO NOT reliably differentiate GERD-induced cough from other causes) if chronic cough |
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What itest is use in asthmatic pts to determaine if GERD is also a causes of cough
|
24-hour pH probe findings
|
|
A Cough due to ACE inhibitors usually occurs
|
within 1 week of starting medication, but may occur as late as 1 year
|
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Cough resolution may be delayed for up to ________ after discontinuation of the drug.
|
1 month
|
|
what Med does not cause cough & therefore are useful therapeutic alternatives
|
ARB
|
|
What Dz is characterized by productive cough on most days for 3 months in 2 consecutive years
|
Chronic bronchitis
|
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Chronic bronchitis is caused by
|
irritant-induced inflammation or by need to mobilize excessive secretions
|
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What is the Most common irritant of Chronic bronchitis
|
- cigarette smoke
- but occupational exposures or inflammatory bowel disease may also trigger this syndrome |
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What is the Mainstay of treatment for Chronic bronchitis
|
avoid offending agents
|
|
Particular vigilance with Chronic bronchitis is warranted when there is a
|
change in character of cough or sputum
|
|
A change in character of cough or sputum in Chronic bronchitis may be presenting feature of a
|
superimposed bronchogenic carcinoma
|
|
Develops when chronic inflammation or infection leads to progressive airway damage
|
Bronchiectasis
|
|
A pt with Bronchiectasis can produce who much sputum per day
|
2 tbsp/day.
|
|
evidence of tubular or cystic structures representing dilated, mucus-filled bronchi in a CXR indicates what Dz
|
Bronchiectasis
|
|
when do you perform a Chest CT on a pt with Bronchiectasis
|
equivocal or negative CXR findings
(Chest CT is a more sensitive tool) |
|
A Postinfectious Cough is Usually caused by
|
- respiratory viruses
- Mycoplasma species - Chlamydia pneumonia - Pertussis |
|
Management of chronic cough typically involves a combination of which simple screening studies
|
- CXR
- spirogram |
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What are the Specific diagnostic studies to DIAGNOSIS chronic cough
|
- Methacholine provocation
- sinus imaging - or a pH probe - & empiric therapy for the 3 most common entities (rhinitis, asthma, & GERD) |
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Treatment of chronic cough fails in a significant proportion of nonresponders due to
|
inadequate intensity or duration of treatment
|
|
In the treatment chronic cough what should be done prior to further investigations
|
Evaluation & treatment for
PND asthma and, or GERD |
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In assessing for presence of uncommon causes of chronic cough what test has a relatively higher diagnostic yield & should be performed prior to cardiac tests in absence of cardiac symptoms
|
chest CT
|
|
What is the Initial therapy for PND
|
antihistamine-decongestant combination
|
|
What are the Older-generation antihistamines
|
- dexbrompheniramine maleate
- azatadine maleate |
|
Why are the Older-generation antihistamines (dexbrompheniramine maleate or azatadine maleate), superior to second-generation (non-sedating) drugs
|
because of their additional anticholinergic activity
|
|
If drowsiness is problematic with the Initial therapy for PND what should be done
|
initiated therapy at bedtime, with escalation to BID dosing at a later time
|
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Second-generation antihistamine are useful primarily in
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- allergic rhinitis syndromes.
|
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most patients will have a symptomatic response within 1 week with antihistamine-decongestant therapy except for
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chronic sinusitis
|
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The Presence of bronchial hyperresponsiveness should be demonstrated by provocation testing or
|
reliable history prior to use of oral steroids & when bronchodilators alone are ineffective in presence of high clinical suspicion
|
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What is the maximal therapy in the Tx of GERD in chronic cough a pt
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- Avoid reflux-predisposing foods (fatty foods, chocolate, caffeine, alcohol)
- Tobacco cessation - elevation of head of bed - Not eating within 2-3 hours prior to lying down |
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What is the mainstay of medical therapy for GERD
|
Proton pump inhibitors
|
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What test is performed when maximal therapy for GERD fails
|
Ambulatory pH monitoring
|
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Documentation of persistent symptomatic acid reflux should prompt consideration of
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esophageal fundoplication
|
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What therapy markedly reduces symptoms of Chronic Bronchitis in > 50% of patients within 1 month
|
Smoking cessation
|
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What drug decrease cough frequency & sputum production most effectively in Chronic Bronchitis
|
Ipratropium MDI (2 puffs QID)
|
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What therapy is useful for Bronchiectasis pts who produce large volumes of sputum & during disease flares
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Chest physiotherapy techniques
|
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Tx of Bronchiectasis flares may also require
|
prolonged antibiotic courses
|
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The Benefits of treating a chronic cough with what 2 drugs has not been demonstrated
|
- beta-agonists
- theophylline |
|
What are the Essentials of Diagnosis of asthma
|
- Episodic or chronic s/s of airflow obstruction
- SX’S FREQUENTLY WORSE AT NIGHT OR EARLY MORNING - Prolonged expiration & diffuse wheezing - Limitation of airflow on PFT’s or Positive bronchial provocation - Complete or partial reversibility |
|
What is a reversible obstructive airway disease
|
Respiratory disease of increased irritability of tracheobronchial tree
|
|
What is the Bottom line adverse effect of Asthma
|
increased resistance to airflow
|
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What are the Characteristics of Asthma
|
Airway Obstruction
Airway Inflammation Airway Hyper responsiveness All effects not universal, patients are different - Bronchospasm - Mucus plugging |
|
What is the Most common chronic disease of childhood
|
Asthma
|
|
Theoretically every asthma death is
|
preventable
|
|
What appears to play an important roles in the Pathophysiology of asthma
|
Sensitization & inflammation
|
|
Regardless of trigger ____________ sustains bronchial hyperactivity
|
inflammation
|
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what is the Hallmark of an asthmatic Allergic Response
|
tendency to maintain persistent IgE response after antigen exposure
|
|
What denotes a group of diseases in people with inherited allergic tendencies to develop antibodies to common organic environmental allergens
|
Atopy
|
|
What is the Triad Asthma
|
Asthma
aspirin sensitivity & nasal polyposis |
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What happens in the early (acute bronchoconstrictive) phase of Airway Hyper responsiveness in Asthma to Antigens
|
involves rapid development of reversible airway obstruction to stimuli - Often resolves with bronchodilators
|
|
What happens in the Late Phase of Airway Hyper responsiveness in Asthma to Antigens
|
- reaction may occur 6-12 hours later
--Thought to be inflammatory response, responding to anti-inflammatories, but more refractory to bronchodilators |
|
What are the causes of Drug-Induced Asthma (non-allergy related)
|
- ASA/NSAID 2* altered prostaglandin metabolism
--S/S polyposis nasi & chronic sinusitis - ACE inhibitors - BB |
|
What are the Clinical Features of Severe asthma
|
use of accessory muscles, distant breath sounds, loud wheeze, hyperresonance, intercostal retractions
|
|
What are the Clinical Features of Mild asthma
|
slight tachycardia & tachypnea
|
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What are the 3 Questions You Must Ask An Asthmatic
|
1. Have you ever been Hospitalized due to Asthma
2. Have you ever been intubated due Asthma 3. Have you ever been placed on oral steroids for Asthma |
|
What are the Ominous Signs of asthma
|
- Fatigue (can get same with marked improvement)
- Pulsus paradoxus (>20 Hg mm) - Diaphoresis & cyanosis - Inaudible breath sounds with diminished wheezing - Unable to stay recumbent |
|
What type of cells may you find the in the sputum of an asthma
|
eosinophils
|
|
What may the PFT results of an asthmatic pt present
|
- may often be normal when asymptomatic
- consistent with typical obstruction dysfunction & partial reversibility w/ bronchodilators (FEV1 improves ≥12% & 200ml OR ≥15% and 200ml in FVC) |
|
What is the cornerstone Tx for asthma
|
Prevention
|
|
What is the drug of choice for acute bronchospasm
|
Beta2 selective agonists
(Inhaled sympathomimetics) |
|
What are the Short-acting beta-2 agonists
|
Albuterol Inhaler (Proventil, Ventolin Inhaler)
|
|
What are the Long acting beta-adrenoceptor agonists
|
SALMETEROL
Formoterol |
|
what drug is considered first line maintenance for mod to severe asthma
|
Inhaled Corticosteroids
|
|
What are the Inhaled Corticosteroids
|
Azmacort (Triamcinolone acetonide)
Aerobid (Flunisolide) Beclovent(Beclomethasone dipropionate) Flovent (Fluticasone propionate) Pulmicort (Budesonide |
|
What are the Oral Corticosteroids
|
Prednisone
Solu-Medrol |
|
which Corticosteroids is used IV
|
Solu-Medrol
|
|
What is the Concerns with using Oral Corticosteroids
|
hypo -pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis suppression
|
|
What is the Pediatrics: drug of choice for EIA
|
Mast Cell Stabilizers
(Cromolyn & nedocromil) |
|
What is the Drug of choice for COPD
|
Anticholinergics
|
|
What drug is used in some ERs in combination with beta 2
|
Anticholinergics
|
|
What drug is an Anticholinergics
|
Ipratropium bromide
|
|
What drug is used for mod to severe patients, especially nocturnal symptoms
|
Oral Theophylline
|
|
What drugs may allow elimination of oral & possibly inhaled steroids
|
Leukotriene Receptor Antagonists (LTRA)
- Zafirlukast (Accolate) - Montelukast sodium (Singulair) - Zileuton a similar drug |
|
What is the Tx plan for Step 4 (Severe Persistent)
|
Daily medications
- Anti-inflammatory: inhaled steroid (high dose) AND - Long-acting inhaled bronchodilator AND - Oral steroids; make attempts at reducing systemic steroids |
|
What is the Tx plan for Step 3 (Moderate Persistent)
|
Daily medications
Either Anti-inflammatory: inhaled steroid (medium dose) OR - Inhaled steroid & long acting bronchodilator esp. for night symptoms |
|
What is the Tx plan for Step 2 (Mild Persistent)
|
Daily Medications
- Anti-inflammatory: either inhaled steroid or cromolyn (mast cell stabilizer) |
|
What is the Tx plan for Step 1 (Mild Intermittent)
|
No daily medication needed
|
|
All asthma Patients are Tx with
|
short acting bronchodilator inhaled beta2-agonist
|
|
What is the Green Zone Asthma Action Plan
|
Doing Well
- No cough, wheeze, chest tightness, or SOB during day or night - Peak flow 80% or more of best - Take all RX as directed |
|
What is the Yellow Zone Asthma Action Plan
|
Asthma is getting worse
- Cough, wheeze, chest tightness, or SOB, OR - Waking at night due to asthma, OR Can do some, but not all, usual activities OR - Peak flow 50%-80% |
|
What is the procedure for a pt in the yellow zone
|
- Add: Quick-Relief Medicine-Keep taking your Green Zone medicine
- If your SXs return to green zone p 1 hr: take quick relief RX Q4hrs for 1-2 days Double the dose of your inhaled steroids - If SXs do not return to Green Zone: see Red Zone |
|
What is the procedure for a pt in the RED zone
|
- Very short of breath, OR
- Quick-relief medicines have not helped, OR - Cannot do usual activities, OR - Peak flow < 50% of best peak flow GO TO HOSPITAL NOW! |
|
What is the Beta2-agonist Nebulizer Tx plan
|
Up to 3 treatments given over 60-90 min
|
|
What is the alternative for o Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) in young & middle aged emergency asthma pts
|
Subcutaneous terbutaline
|
|
what med is used to Tx very severe & unresponsive asthma pt
|
Corticosteroids (IV)
( if pt is on oral Corticosteroid D/C them) |
|
Clinical condition caused by acute inflammation of trachea & bronchi
|
Acute Bronchitis or Tracheobronchitis
|
|
If cough for Acute Bronchitis or Tracheobronchitis persist past 7 days consider
|
Pertussis
|
|
The Infectious Agent of Acute Bronchitis or Tracheobronchitis is most often _______, so _________ are unwarranted
|
viral
ANTIBIOTICS |
|
What are the Physical Findings for Acute Bronchitis or Tracheobronchitis
|
- PE may be normal or with rhonchi & wheeze
- No signs of pulmonary consolidation - CXR normal - Fever may or may not be present |
|
COPD a spectrum of respiratory diseases, _________is a clinical condition,__________ is a pathological entity
|
- Chronic Bronchitis
- Emphysema |
|
COPD is Characterized by what S/S
|
cough
sputum dyspnea airflow limitation & impaired gas exchange |
|
term used to describe a process where chronic bronchitis &\or emphysema has led to development of airway obstruction
|
COPD
|
|
What are the Risk Factors for COPD
|
Cigarette smoking
Passive smoking Heredity α-1-antitrypsin deficiency Ambient air pollution Higher incidence in men, whites Other inhaled substances |
|
In Early onset of COPD what is the median onset age for Smokers
|
40
|
|
In Early onset of COPD what is the median onset age for NON-Smokers
|
53
|
|
Check A1A levels in patients with a family H/O early COPD at what age
|
30
|
|
What is the typical History of a COPD Pt
|
- Smoking Hx - usually > 40 pack years
- Environmental exposures - Dyspnea - exertional vs rest - Wheezing - Cough characteristics - productive, amount, color, episodic |
|
What is the typical Physical Exam presentation of a COPD Pt
|
- barrel chest
- Distant or decreased breath sounds - Prolonged expiratory phase - Wheezing on exhalation - normal or wheezing with coarse crackles or prolonged expiration |
|
Severe COPD is suggested by:
|
1. Accessory muscle use
2. Paradoxical abdominal motion 3. Pursed-lip breathing |
|
COPD pts that has Predominant Emphysema have signs of
|
lung hyperinflation
weight loss distressed respirations with use of accessory muscles inspiration through pursed lips |
|
COPD pts that has Predominant Chronic Bronchitis have signs of
|
overweight & cyanotic
usually no signs of distress at rest or use of accessory muscles |
|
What are the Chest X-ray finding in COPD
|
1. Hyperinflation
- Flattening of hemi diaphragms - Increased AP diameter 2. RV hypertrophy 3. Pulmonary HTN 4. Bullous lung disease 5. Narrowing of cardiac silhouette |
|
what is the PFT bottom line in COPD
|
Prognosis for patient with severe COPD with FEV1 ≤ 0.75L is a 30% mortality rate at one year & a 95% mortality rate at 10 years
|
|
What condition in a COPD pt suggest chronic hypoxemia & indicates need for ABG & consideration of O2 therapy
|
Erythrocytosis
|
|
in Acute exacerbations of COPD what bacterias may found in the sputum
|
Streptococcus pneumoniae Haemophilus influenzae,
Moraxella catarrhalis (less frequently) |
|
The clinical features for emphysema are
|
Older
Tall, Thin Late cor pulmonale mild hypoxemia |
|
The clinical features for chronic bronchitis are
|
Younger
Stocky, obese Early cor |
|
When can the Diagnosis of Chronic Bronchitis can be made
|
Diagnosis can only be made when ALL other causes of chronic cough are excluded (i.e. TB, lung cancer, CHF)
|
|
how is a Chronic productive cough Dx
|
occur on most days for at least 3 months in each of 2 successive years with other causes of chronic cough excluded
|
|
Abnormal permanent enlargement of air sacs distal to terminal bronchioles, with destruction of alveolar walls & no obvious fibrosis
|
Emphysema
|
|
“Glad bags for lungs.”
Abnormal permanent enlargement of airspaces distal to terminal bronchioles |
Emphysema
|
|
What is the Treatment Goal for COPD
|
- prevent further damage
- prevent & treat acute exacerbations & maximize current function |
|
What meds should be avoided in the Tx of COPD
|
cough suppressants
& sedatives |
|
What is the Tx for COPD
|
- Prevent further damage by eliminating inhaled irritants
- Improve secretion reduction with bronchodilators - Correct hypoxia with O2 therapy - (Can prolong life)- Use ABGs for adjusting |
|
COPD Tx Therapy includes
|
Smoking Cessation
β-agonists Anticholinergics Theophylline Corticosteroids Oxygen Antibiotics |
|
What med is used for Smoking Cessation
|
Anxiolytics (Zyban)
|
|
What is the second line agent for stable COPD
|
β-agonists
Short-acting (Albuterol): 4-6 puffs po QID |
|
What is the First line agent for acute exacerbation
|
β-agonists
Short-acting (Albuterol): |
|
What are the Side effects of Short-acting (Albuterol)
|
nervousness
tremors elevated HR |
|
What is the primary drug of choice for COPD
|
Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)
|
|
What med is a Controversial agent in COPD
|
Theophylline
|
|
When is oxygen therapy warranted in COPD
|
pO2 < 55 mm Hg, O2 sat < 89%
|
|
When are antibiotics warranted in COPD
|
change in color or consistency of sputum
|
|
What is the Tx for Mild continuous COPD
|
Atrovent 2-4 puffs po qid
PRN β-agonist & prior to exercise |
|
What is the Tx for Moderate continuous COPD
|
Use scheduled β-agonist & Atrovent
Consider use of long-acting β-agonist Consider use of theophylline Consider use of inhaled steroids. |
|
What is the Tx for Severe continuous COPD
|
Scheduled anticholinergic & β-agonist
Long-acting β-agonist (Serevent) Inhaled corticosteroid Ventolin 4 puffs MDI or neb prn Theophylline May require low dose po steroids May require oxygen @ 2L |
|
What are the Complications of COPD
|
Acute respiratory failure
Secondary pneumothorax Multifocal atrial tachycardia(MAT) Pulmonary HTN Cor pulmonale |
|
What test is indicated if symptoms suggestive of sleep apnea
|
Polysomnography
|
|
What are the inclusion criteria of a Lung Reduction
|
1. Age < 70
2. FEV1% < 40% predicted 3. pCO2 < 50 4. < 10 mg Prednisone/day 5. No substantial co-morbid illness |
|
What are the inclusion criteria of a Lung Transplantation
|
- Physiologic age < 60
- Life expectancy of 12-18 months - Adequate cardiac function with no systemic illnesses - FEV1 < 30% or FEV1/FVC% < 40% - Hypoxemia with pO2 < 55 mm Hg - Presence of hypercarbia |
|
Pneumonia is a infection of what
|
infection of pulmonary parenchyma
|
|
Pneumonia Involves what parts of the lung
|
- interstitial tissue or alveoli
- alveoli & adjacent bronchi - or even entire lobe |
|
Pneumonia may cause lung abnormality
|
- patchy infiltrations
- full lobe consolidation - accumulation of pus (empyema) - necrotic cavities |
|
what is the Most common cause of death due to infectious disease
|
Pneumonia
|
|
What are the bodies Mechanical Defenses to pneumonia
|
1. Anatomic barriers
2. Aerodynamics - deposition of particles 3. Epithelial cell barriers 4. Mucus 5. Mucociliary escalator |
|
What are the bodies Pulmonary Defenses to pneumonia
|
- Alveolar macrophages - resident phagocytic cell in airways, alveoli
- Inflammatory response - PMNs, complement and humoral immunity - Specific immune responses for: viruses, fungi & mycobacteria |
|
A pt w/ DKA is more susceptible to what type of pneumonia
|
S. pneumonia
S. aureus |
|
An Alcoholic is more susceptible to what type of pneumonia
|
Klebsiella
Anaerobes |
|
A pt w/ COPD is more susceptible to what type of pneumonia
|
H. flu
M. Cat Legionella |
|
A pt w/ HIV, CD4 > 200 is more susceptible to what type of pneumonia
|
S. pneumonia
H. Flu TB |
|
A pt w/ HIV, CD4 < 200 is more susceptible to what type of pneumonia
|
PCP (Pneumocystis jiroveci)
Histo Crypto |
|
The Physical finding of periodontal Dz indicates what possible organism
|
Anaerobes
Polymicrobial |
|
The Physical finding of Bullous myringitis indicates what possible organism
|
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
|
|
The Physical finding of Absent gag or altered MS indicates what possible organism
|
Polymicrobial aspiration
|
|
15-54 y/o pt with reoccurring pneumonia consider
|
HIV
|
|
What preceedure should be done if significant effusion present in pneumonia
|
Thoracentesis
|
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Focal opacity on CXR of CAP indicates
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S. pneumoniae
L. pneumophila C. pneumoniae S. aureus |
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Multifocal opacity on CXR of CAP indicates
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S. aureus
L. pneumophila S. pneumo |
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Interstitial pattern on CXR of CAP indicates what organism
|
M. pneumoniae
Viruses Pneumocystis carinii C. psittaci |
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Miliary pattern on CXR of CAP indicates what organism
|
M. tuberculosis
Fungi Varicella zoster |
|
Cavitation pattern on CXR of CAP indicates what organism
|
Mixed aerobic/anaerobic
GNR M. tuberculosis C. neoformans Nocardia Actinomyces |
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What tests should be done on all hospitalized pneumonia patients
|
Blood and sputum cultures
|
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What tests should be done on all ICU pneumonia patients
|
Urine Legionella antigen
|
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“Typical” pneumonia is most commonly caused by
|
Strep pneumoniae
|
|
20 y/o F w/ sudden onset of fever, chills, purulent sputum, signs of consolidation, leukocytosis, CXR with patchy or lobar infiltrates, pleuritic chest pain with splinting may be present - they look “sick” indicates
|
Strep pneumoniae
|
|
18 y/o M w/ gradual onset, dry cough, abnormalities on CXR despite minimal PE findings other than rales, predominance of extrapulmonary symptoms (dry cough, HA, malaise, myalgias, N/V, diarrhea), may or may not have pleurisy or appear “sick” indicates
|
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
“Atypical” Pneumonia |
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“Atypical” Pneumonia is most commonly caused by
|
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
|
|
Outpatient, age < 60, no co- morbidity the most common pathogens is
|
Streptococcus pneumoniae
|
|
What is the Empirical Treatment for Outpatient, age < 60, no co- morbidity
|
macrolide azithromycin (Zithromax) or Doxycycline for 10-14 days
|
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What is the Empirical Treatment for Outpatient with Comorbidity or >age 60
|
beta-lactamase inhibitor (Augmentin) OR
2nd generation cephalosporin (Ceftin) OR beta-lactam Cefuroxime OR IV Ceftriaxone Plus Macrolide or Doxy |
|
What is the most common pathogens for Outpatients with Comorbidity or >age 60
|
Strep pneumoniae
|
|
Whay is the Empirical IV Treatment for CAP Requiring Hospitalization
|
- 2nd or 3rd generation cephalosporin (Zinacef or Rocephin) or β-lactam/β-lactamase inhibitor (Timentin)
- Use or add a macrolide (erythromycin) if Legionnaires is suspected |
|
Who should receive the influenza vaccine
|
- everyone > 50,
- plus High risk pts, HCWs, families & close contacts with high risk pts |
|
Prevention of CAP
|
- Influenza vaccine
- Pneumococcal vaccine - Avoid certain circumstances if possible (nursing homes, other institutions) |
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what are the High Risk Patients with CAP
|
- Patient’s age > 60
- Co-morbid conditions - Abnormal PE |
|
What are the Co-morbid conditions
|
- Neoplastic disease
- CHF - CNS - renal - Liver disease |
|
What are the Abnormal PE finding for High Risk Patients with CAP
|
- Altered MS
- Pulse > 125, RR > 30, Sys BP < 90 - Temp < 35 C or > 40 C |
|
What is the most common pathogens for Hospitalized pt's Severely ill with CAP
|
Strep pneumoniae
|
|
What is the Empirical IV Treatment for a Hospitalized pt with Severely ill CAP
|
combination therapy with macrolide & 3rd generation cephalosporin with antipseudomonal activity (Fortaz) or other antipseudomonal agent (Cipro)
|
|
A Categories of risk score < 90
|
send home
|
|
A Categories of risk score > 91
|
admit
|
|
What meds are given during a outbreak of influenza A
|
Amantadine
or Rimantadine |
|
What is the TX for Pneumocystis jirovecii in HIV
|
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
|
|
What is the TX for Tuberculosis
|
INH
|
|
If pneumonia occurs > 48 hours after admission if is considered
|
Nosocomial pneumonia (HAP):
|
|
If pneumonia occurs < 48 hours after admission if is considered
|
CAP
|
|
What are the Organisms that are encountered most frequently & can be referred to as “core pathogens” :
|
S. pneumonia
H. influenzae S. aureus Aerobic GN bacilli |
|
Most HAP cases result from
|
micro aspiration of previously colonized oropharyngeal secretions
|
|
What test should be performed to obtain a good bacteria specimen in HAP
|
Fiberoptic bronchoscopy
|
|
sub-type of HAP which occurs in people who are on mechanical ventilation
|
Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP):
|
|
What is the Empiric treatment for VAP
|
should be with a wide spectrum antibiotic or combination, based on patient severity & what has been seen in hospital recently
|
|
What is the Tx for HAP patients on ventilation &/or in ICU
|
broad spectrum & an aminoglycoside
|
|
What is the discharge Criteria for HAP
|
- Meet criteria for switching to oral antibiotics.
- WBC count < 12 x 109 /L - Stable comorbid illness - Normal oxygenation saturation (> 90% on RA) - if COPD, pO2 > 60 & pCO2 < 45 mm Hg |
|
What pneumonia causeing bacteria is described as, often follows an upper respiratory infection, CXR: lobar consolidation, Very common in CAP
|
Streptococcus pneumonia
|
|
What is the Drug of choice and Alternative Tx for Streptococcus pneumonia
|
- Zithromax
- Alternative: Levofloxacin |
|
What pneumonia causeing bacteria is described as, common in alcoholics, diabetics, & HAP
CXR: lobar consolidation, Can cause cavitation & empyema |
Klebsiella pneumoniae
|
|
What pneumonia causes bacteria is described as, Common in CAP, often hitting young adults in summer & fall, Often has an “Atypical” presentation, Complicated by bullous myringitis, CXR: extensive patchy infiltrates
|
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
|
|
What pneumonia causes bacteria is described as, Can be CAP or HAP, Often seen in summer or fall with exposure to contaminated construction site, water source, or air conditioner CXR: patchy or lobar consolidation
|
Legionella species
|
|
What pneumonia causes bacteria is described as, Often seen in pre-existing lung disease (i.e. smokers), elderly, pts on long term high dose corticosteroids or immunosuppressive therapy (i.e. transplant patients), CXR: patchy infiltrates or occasional lobar consolidation
|
Moraxella catarrhalis
|
|
What is the Preferred Treatment and Alternative for Moraxella catarrhalis
|
2nd or 3rd generation cephalosporin
Alternative: Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid (Augmentin) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim/Septra) |
|
What is the Drug of Choice Legionella species
|
Azithromycin (Zithromax)
|
|
What is the Drug of Choice Mycoplasma pneumoniae
|
Azithromycin (Zithromax)
|
|
What is the Drug of Choice Klebsiella pneumoniae
|
Cefotaxime (Claforan)
|
|
What is the Preferred Treatment for Pneumocystis jiroveci
|
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole or pentamidine plus prednisone
- AIDS patients often on chemoprophylaxis of Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole & inhaled (aerosolized) pentamidine |
|
What pneumonia causes bacteria is described as, Seen in AIDS, immunosuppressive or cytotoxic therapy, & cancer, CXR: diffuse interstitial ^ alveolar infiltrates
|
Pneumocystis jiroveci
|
|
What is the Preferred Treatment for Anaerobic Pneumonia & Lung Abscess
|
Clindamycin
|
|
What procedure is required for an empyema
|
Tube thoracostomy
|
|
What pneumonia causes bacteria is described as, Predisposition to aspirate, Possibly foul-smelling sputum
|
Anaerobic Pneumonia
|
|
What is the causative agent of Tuberculosis
|
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
|
|
How is Tuberculosis tranmitted
|
airborne droplets
|
|
Patients usually have symptoms, are contagious in Infection or Disease Tuberculosis
|
TB disease
|
|
TB Disease can be from a
|
primary infection, but usually from reactivation
|
|
Pts who have or suspected of having pulmonary or laryngeal TB should be considered infectious if they are
|
- Coughing
- Undergoing cough-inducing or aerosol-generating procedures - Have sputum smears positive for acid-fast bacilli - Are not receiving treatment - Have just started therapy, or - Have poor clinical or bacteriological response to therapy |
|
Patients are not considered infectious for TB if they met ALL these criteria
|
- Adequate therapy received for 2-3 weeks
- Favorable clinical response to therapy, AND - consecutive NEG sputum smear results from sputum collected on different days |
|
What are the Administrative Infection Control Measures for TB
|
- Consider TB in ALL HIV-infected pts with undiagnosed pulmonary disease
- If TB is suspected, take appropriate precautions to prevent transmission |
|
What are the Engineering Infection Control Measures for TB
|
- Use ventilation systems in TB isolation rooms to maintain negative pressure & to exhaust air properly
- Use HEPA filtration & ultraviolet irradiation only in conjunction with other infection control measures |
|
Personal respiratory protective equipment is use in what areas
|
- TB isolation rooms
- Rooms where cough-inducing procedures are done - Homes of infectious TB patients |
|
a form of Primary infection going directly disease where immune system doesn’t stop dissemination throughout lung
|
“Miliary”(resembling millet seed) TB
|
|
What are calcified primary foci or focus with calcified hilar lymph node
|
Ranke complexes
|
|
calcified primary focus
|
Ghon complex
|
|
What test is good for diagnosis on individual exposed to TB
|
Mantoux (PPD)
|
|
A PPD induration of ≥ 5 mm would be consider POS on class of people
|
- HIV infected or at risk for infection
- Close contacts of individuals with TB - Persons with CXR consistent with old healed TB |
|
A PPD induration of ≥ 10 mm would be consider POS on class of people
|
- Military
- Persons from high risk countries Asia, Africa, Latin American - IV drug users - Medically Underserved, - Low-income populations - Long-term residents - High risk medical patients |
|
the inability to react to skin test because of immunosuppression
|
Anergy
|
|
The anergy skin test panel consist of
|
- Tetanus toxoid
- Mumps - or Candida antigen skin test - & Mantoux at same time |
|
What is the major cause of TB treatment failure & drug resistance
|
Noncompliance
|
|
TB Drugs SE for
Isoniazid (INH): Rifampin: Ethambutol: Streptomycin: |
- Isoniazid (INH): hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy
- Rifampin: hepatitis, GI bleed - Ethambutol: Optic neuritis - Streptomycin: 8th nerve damage, nephrotoxicity |
|
When is the BCG (bacillus Calmette-Guerin) vaccine used and how is interpreted
|
- recommended only when INH can’t be used ( children exposed frequently to untreated population)
- specific population who don’t respond to aggressive TB control strategies - Interpret same as person w/out BCG |