Physical Assessment - Jarvis: Nurs2015 1St Incourse Exam Prep

Front 1

The 4 areas to consider during the general survey are:

Back 1

Physical appearance, body structure, mobility and behaviour.

Front 2

During the general survey part of the exam, gait is assessed. When walking, the base is usually how wide?

Back 2

as wide as the shoulder width.

Front 3

During the 8th and 9th decades of life, physical changes occur. How do Height and weight change?

Back 3

both decrease.

Front 4

During an initial home visit, the patient's temperature is noted to be 97.4* F. What other information do you need in order to assess if this temperature is normal?

Back 4

Patient's age.

Front 5

How long should you routinely count to accuratly assess a patient's pulse.

Back 5

Count for 30 seconds.

Front 6

Select the best description of an accurate assessment of a patient's respirations.

Back 6

Cound for 30 seconds following pulse assessment.

Front 7

Pulse pressure is:

Back 7

the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure.

Front 8

The examiner is going to assess for coarchtation of the aorta. In an individual with coarctation the thigh pressure would be:

Back 8

lower than the arm.

Front 9

Mean arterial pressure is:

Back 9

diastolic pressure plus one third pulse pressure.

Front 10

The part of the hand used for the assessment of vibration is (are) the:

Back 10

the ulnar surface of the hand

Front 11

When performing indirect percussion, where is the stationary finger struck?

Back 11

at the distal interphalangeal joint

Front 12

The best description of the pitch of a sound wave obtained by percussion is:

Back 12

the number of vibrations per second.

Front 13

The bell of the stethoscope is used for what pitch of sounds?

Back 13

Soft-low pitched sounds

Front 14

The ophthalmoscope has 5 apertures. Which size would be used to assess the eyes of a patient with undilated pupils?

Back 14

small

Front 15

At the conclusion of the examination, the examiner should always do this for the patient:

Back 15

Summarize the findings for the patient

Front 16

When reading a medical record you see the following notation: Patient states, I have had a cold for about a week, and now I am having difficulty breathing." This is an example of:

Back 16

a reason for seeking care.

Front 17

You have reason to question the reliability of the information being provided by a patient. One way to verify the reliability within the context of the interview is to:

Back 17

rephrase the same question later in the interview.

Front 18

The statement "Reason for seeking care" has replace the "chief complaint." This change is significant because:

Back 18

the newer term incorporates wellness needs.

Front 19

During an initial interview, the examiner askes, Mrs. J., "tell me what you do when you headaches occur." With this question, the examiner is seeking information about:

Back 19

aggravating or relieving factors.

Front 20

When recording a patient's perspective/report of pain descriptor, how do you document this?

Back 20

place the terms in " ".

Front 21

A genogram is useful in showing information concisely. It is used speifically for:

Back 21

family history

Front 22

Select the best description of review of systems as part of the health history.

Back 22

the evaluation of the past and present health state of each body system.

Front 23

Functional assessment measures how a person manages day-to-day activities. The impact of disease on the daily activities of older adults is referred to as:

Back 23

disease burden.

Front 24

When the begining the interview, include:

Back 24

your name, the purpose of the visit, approx. time, and assurance of confidentiality and any related costs.

Front 25

you have come into a patient's room to conduct an admission interiew. Because you are expecting a phone call, you stand near the door during the interiew. A more appropriate approach would be to:

Back 25

have someone else answer the phone so you can sit facing the patient.

Front 26

Students frequently ask teachers, May I ask you a question ?" This is an example of what kind of question?"

Back 26

a Closed question

Front 27

During a patient interview you recognize the need to use interpretation. This verbal response is:

Back 27

is based on the interviewer's inference from the data that have been presented.

Front 28

A good rule for an interviewer when balancing listening and speaking is to:

Back 28

spend more time listening to the tpatient than talking.

Front 29

What is included as examples of intimate-partner violence?

Back 29

An ex-boyfriend stalking his ex-girlfriend, marital rape, hitting a date

Front 30

Routine, universal screening for domestic violence means:

Back 30

asking all persons, who come into health care system if they are abused each time they come.

Front 31

Mental health problems associatied with intimate partner violence include:

Back 31

suicidality.

Front 32

Gynecological problems not associated with intimate partner violence include:

Back 32

ovarian cysts.

Front 33

Risk factors for intimate partner homicide include:

Back 33

abuse during pregnacy.

Front 34

Elder abuse and neglect include:

Back 34

willful infliction of force, witholding prescription medication without medical orders, not replacing broken eyeglasses, threatening to place someone in a nursing home.

Front 35

The secretion from the eccrine glands is:

Back 35

dilute saline solution

Front 36

Nevus is the medical term for:

Back 36

a mole

Front 37

To assess for early jaundice, you will assess:

Back 37

sclera and hard palate

Front 38

Checking for skin temperature is base accomplished by using:

Back 38

the dorsal surface of the hand

Front 39

skin turgor is assessed by Picking up a large fold of skin on the anterior ches tunder the clavicle. This is done to determine:

Back 39

dehydration

Front 40

You note a lesion during an examination. What would be included in a complete description?

Back 40

Color, raised/flat, borders, location, size and drainage.

Front 41

You examine nail beds for clubbing. The normal angle between the nail base and the nails is:

Back 41

160*

Front 42

The capilary beds should refill after being depressed in:

Back 42

1-2 seconds

Front 43

During a routine visit, M., aged 78, askes about small, round, flat, brown macules on the hands. Your best response after examining the area is:

Back 43

These are the result of sun exposure and do not require treatment.""

Front 44

An area of thin, shiny skin with decreased visibility of normal skin marking is called:

Back 44

atrophy

Front 45

Flattening of the angle between the nail and its base is:

Back 45

clubbing

Front 46

The configuration for individual lesions arranged in circles or arcs, as occurs with ringworm is caled

Back 46

annular

Front 47

The A" in the ABCDE rule stands for:"

Back 47

asymmentry

Front 48

A risk factor for melanoma is:

Back 48

skin that frecles or burns before tanning

Front 49

Lyme disease in more prevalent:

Back 49

in May to September

Front 50

The secretion form the eccrine glands is

Back 50

dilute saline solution

Front 51

Nevus is the medical term for:

Back 51

a mole

Front 52

To assess for early jaundice, you will assess:

Back 52

sclera and hard palate

Front 53

Checking for skin temperature is base accomplished by using:

Back 53

the dorsal surface of the hand

Front 54

skin turgor is assessed by Picking up a large fold of skin on the anterior ches tunder the clavicle. This is done to determine:

Back 54

dehydration

Front 55

You note a lesion during an examination. What would be included in a complete description?

Back 55

Color, raised/flat, borders, location, size and drainage.

Front 56

You examine nail beds for clubbing. The normal angle between the nail base and the nails is:

Back 56

160*

Front 57

The capilary beds should refill after being depressed in:

Back 57

1-2 seconds

Front 58

During a routine visit, M., aged 78, askes about small, round, flat, brown macules on the hands. Your best response after examining the area is:

Back 58

These are the result of sun exposure and do not require treatment.""

Front 59

An area of thin, shiny skin with decreased visibility of normal skin marking is called:

Back 59

atrophy

Front 60

Flattening of the angle between the nail and its base is:

Back 60

clubbing

Front 61

The configuration for individual lesions arranged in circles or arcs, as occurs with ringworm is caled

Back 61

annular

Front 62

The A" in the ABCDE rule stands for:"

Back 62

asymmentry

Front 63

A risk factor for melanoma is:

Back 63

skin that frecles or burns before tanning

Front 64

Lyme disease in more prevalent:

Back 64

in May to September

Front 65

The Palpebral fissure is:

Back 65

the open space between the eyelids

Front 66

The corneal reflex is mediated by cranial nerves:

Back 66

5 and 7

Front 67

The retinal structures viewed throughthe opthalmoscope are:

Back 67

the optic disc, the retinal vessels, the gernal background, and the macula

Front 68

The examiner records positive consensual light reflex." This is:"

Back 68

the simultaneous constriction of the other pupil when one eye is exposed to bright light

Front 69

Several changes occur in the eye with the aging process. The thickening and yellowing of the lens is referred to as:

Back 69

senile cateract

Front 70

Symptoms that may constitute an eye emergency include:

Back 70

sudden onset of vision change

Front 71

Visual acuity is assessed with:

Back 71

the Snellen eye chart

Front 72

the cover test is used to assess for:

Back 72

muscle weakness

Front 73

When using the ophthalmoscope, you would:

Back 73

remove your own eye glasses and approach the patient's left eye with your left eye.

Front 74

The six muslces that control eye movement and are innervated by cranial nerves:

Back 74

3, 4, 6

Front 75

Conjuctivitis is always associated with:

Back 75

reddened conjuctiva

Front 76

A Patient has blurred peripheral vision. You suspect glaucoma, and test the visual fields. A person with normal vision would see your moving finger temporally at:

Back 76

90*

Front 77

A person is known to be blind in the left eye. What happens to the pupils when the right eye is illuminated by a penlight beam?

Back 77

Both pupils constrict

Front 78

Use of the ophthalmoscope: an interruption of the red relex occurs when:

Back 78

there is an opacity in the cornea or lens

Front 79

Once cause of visual impairment in aging adults is:

Back 79

stabismus - squint, crossed eye, disparity of ey axes

Front 80

Using the otoscope, the typmanic membrane is visualized. The color of a normal membrane is:

Back 80

pearly gray

Front 81

Sensorineural hearing loss may be related to:

Back 81

a gradual nerve degeneration

Front 82

Prior to examining the ear with the otoscope, what should be palpated for tenderness?

Back 82

pinna, tragus, and mastoid process

Front 83

While viewing with the otoscope,the examiner instructs the person to hold the nose and swallow. During this maneuver, the eardrum should:

Back 83

Flutter

Front 84

To diferentiate between air conduction and bone conduction hearing loss, the examiner would perform:

Back 84

Rinne test

Front 85

In examining the ear of an adult, the canal is straightened by pulling the auricle:

Back 85

up and back

Front 86

Darwin's tubercle is:

Back 86

a congentital, painless nodule at the helix

Front 87

When the ear is being examined with the otoscope, the patient's head should be:

Back 87

Tilted away from the examiner

Front 88

The hearing receptors are located in the:

Back 88

cochlea

Front 89

The sensation of vertigo is the result of:

Back 89

pathology in the semicircular canals

Front 90

A common cause of conductive hearing loss is:

Back 90

impacted cerumen

Front 91

In the Rinne test, the 2 to 1 ratio refers to:

Back 91

the lengths of time until the patient stops hearing the tone by air conduction and by bone conduction

Front 92

Upon examination of the tympanic membrane, visualizaiton of which of the following findings indicates the infection of acute purulent otitis media?

Back 92

absent light reflex, reddened drum, bulging drum

Front 93

In examining a young adult woman, you observe her tympanic membrane to be yellow in color. You suspect she has:

Back 93

serum in the middle ear.

Front 94

Risk reduction for acute otitis media includes:

Back 94

eliminating smoking in the house and car