Phys Final 2

Front 1

Glands are derived from what type of tissue?

Back 1

C) epithelial

Front 2

What organ system functions in communication between cells of the body?

Back 2

D) both nervous and endocrine

Front 3

Where is most of our total body water?

Back 3

D) inside cells

Front 4

What is the primary mechanism for maintaining homeostasis?

Back 4

B) negative feedback

Front 5

Which of the following nucleotide sequences accurately reflects the mRNA that would be produced from the double-stranded DNA pictured in Figure 2.1?

Back 5

C) UGUCUCACUGUCUUG

Front 6

What type of molecule is shown in the accompanying figure?

Back 6

B) disaccharide

Front 7

________ are molecules that form the core structure of cell membranes and micelles.

Back 7

A) Phospholipids

Front 8

Based on the following figure, what type of molecule is this?

Back 8

C) steroid

Front 9

In the chemical equation A + B ⇔ C + D, which of the chemicals would be termed the

Back 9

C) A and B

Front 10

Chemical reactions that involve the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids that produce water as a byproduct are called ________ reactions.

Back 10

C) condensation

Front 11

During what type of reaction are electrons removed from the reactant?

Back 11

A) oxidation

Front 12

ATP is synthesized by substrate-level phosphorylation during which of the following?

Back 12

glycolysis and the Krebs cycle only

Front 13

The chemical force for which of the following ions is directed into the cell?

Back 13

E) both sodium and calcium

Front 14

How will increases in the concentration difference of an uncharged molecule across a membrane affect the rate of diffusion between two compartments?

Back 14

B) Diffusion rate will increase.

Front 15

What transport process couples the movement of an ion against its electrochemical gradient to another ion that is moving down its electrochemical gradient that was established using cellular energy (ATP)?

Back 15

B) Secondary active transport

Front 16

When solute is actively transported across epithelium, what usually follows?

Back 16

A) water movement in the same direction

Front 17

What organelle packages peptide/protein messengers into secretory vesicles?

Back 17

D) Golgi apparatus

Front 18

The β1 adrenergic receptor has the greatest affinity for what messenger?

Back 18

B) epinephrine and norepinephrine equally

Front 19

Which of the following ions can act as a second messenger?

Back 19

C) calcium only

Front 20

In its active form, a G protein will have ________.

Back 20

D) the alpha subunit separated from the gamma and beta subunit

Front 21

What hormone released by the posterior pituitary functions in uterine contraction and milk letdown in the breast?

Back 21

D) Oxytocin

Front 22

Which tropic hormone is responsible for controlling the release of follicle stimulating hormone from the anterior pituitary?

Back 22

D) gonadotropin releasing hormone

Front 23

Which of the following is a correct example of short-loop negative feedback?

Back 23

D) TSH inhibits the release of TRH.

Front 24

A person has a tumor in the hypothalamus causing an excess in TRH secretion. Which of the following correctly describes changes in plasma levels of hormones?

Back 24

A) increased TRH, increased TSH, and increased thyroid hormones

Front 25

What type of ion channels in the membrane of neurons allow ions to move across the membrane at rest and thereby contribute to resting membrane potential?

Back 25

D) leak channels

Front 26

Which of the following statements about sodium is FALSE?

Back 26

D) At the potassium equilibrium potential, there is an electrical force driving sodium ions out of the cell.

Front 27

The Na+/K+ pump is called an electrogenic pump because the imbalance between ________.

Back 27

D) Na+ out to K+ in leaves the inside of the cell with a net negative charge

Front 28

The fact that a cell has an electrical potential difference across its membrane makes that cell ________.

Back 28

D) polarized

Front 29

For cells that communicate by electrical synapses, the message travels between cells via ________.

Back 29

C) gap junctions

Front 30

Neurotransmitters can be reused through the process of ________, where neurotransmitters are transported across the presynaptic membrane.

Back 30

A) reuptake

Front 31

If the resting membrane potential is equal to chloride's equilibrium potential, in which direction will chloride ions move if chloride channels open while the cell remains at resting membrane potential?

Back 31

D) Ions will move equally in both directions.

Front 32

During presynaptic inhibition, the release of a neurotransmitter from the modulating neuron causes which of the following?

Back 32

A) a decrease in neurotransmitter release from the neuron it is modulating

Front 33

Cerebrospinal fluid is produced within the ________ and is reabsorbed into the venous circulation by special structures called the ________.

Back 33

D) choroid plexus : arachnoid villi

Front 34

The face is innervated by what type of nerves?

Back 34

C) cranial

Front 35

What region of the diencephalon provides an important link between the endocrine and nervous system?

Back 35

A) hypothalamus

Front 36

Which of the following areas of the brain is involved in control of posture?

Back 36

C) brainstem nuclei

Front 37

The gate-control theory of pain modulation states that ________.

Back 37

D) non-painful somatic signals can inhibit signals of pain

Front 38

In order to focus light coming from a near source onto the retina, the lens adjusts its refractive power through what process?

Back 38

A) accommodation

Front 39

The closure of sodium channels is mediated by a decrease in the cytosolic concentration of ________, which is degraded by ________.

Back 39

B) cGMP : phosphodiesterase

Front 40

Which of the following statements about hair cells in the ear is FALSE?

Back 40

D) Both the hair cells for hearing and those for equilibrium are depolarized when bent toward the kinocilium.

Front 41

At rest, what is the relative contribution of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems to the regulation of homeostasis?

Back 41

B) Both systems are active but the parasympathetic predominates.

Front 42

Which of the following are indicative of the relative release of catecholamines from the adrenal medulla?

Back 42

D) 80% epinephrine : 20% norepinephrine

Front 43

Binding of acetylcholine to ________ receptors causes a ________ by opening channels that permit both sodium and potassium to permeate the membrane

Back 43

C) nicotinic : depolarization

Front 44

Which of the following descriptions is true for the parasympathetic nervous system, but NOT the sympathetic nervous system?

Back 44

D) Postganglionic fibers release acetylcholine.

Front 45

The sequence of events that links the action potential to changes in skeletal muscle force development is called what?

Back 45

D) excitation-contraction coupling

Front 46

Which of the following best describes the function of transverse (t) tubules and the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle contraction?

Back 46

C) Action potentials in T tubules are detected by DHP receptors, which are coupled to ryanodine receptors in the sarcoplasmic reticulum and open channels for calcium.

Front 47

During intense (heavy) exercise, the ability of oxidative phosphorylation to provide enough ATP for force generation by the skeletal muscle is ________, thereby causing the muscle fiber to derive energy from ________.

Back 47

B) diminished : substrate-level phosphorylation

Front 48

A muscle is stimulated at a frequency that allows the muscle to relax completely between contractions. However, the amount of tension increases with each contraction. What is this called?

Back 48

E) treppe

Front 49

The opening and closure of the atrioventricular and semilunar valves is driven by ________.

Back 49

D) differences in pressure across the valve

Front 50

Conduction through which of the following is slow to allow atria to contract before the ventricles?

Back 50

C) AV node

Front 51

What causes the rapid depolarization phase of a contractile cell action potential?

Back 51

A) sodium movement into the cell

Front 52

The small increase in ventricular pressure observed late in diastole is caused by ________.

Back 52

C) atrial contraction

Front 53

Which of the following accurately compares active hyperemia to reactive hyperemia?

Back 53

C) One is caused by increased metabolic activity, the other in response to release of an occlusion to blood flow.

Front 54

The effects of epinephrine on vascular resistance are dependent upon which of the following?

Back 54

D) relative distribution of alpha and beta receptors

Front 55

The reduction in organ blood flow that results from a decrease in mean arterial pressure would be exacerbated by the ________ that occurs as a consequence of the baroreceptor reflex.

Back 55

D) increased peripheral resistance

Front 56

Given the following information, calculate the net filtration pressure: capillary hydrostatic pressure = 30 mm Hg, interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure = 5 mm Hg, capillary oncotic pressure = 25 mm Hg, and interstitial fluid oncotic pressure = 10 mm Hg.

Back 56

C) 10 mm Hg, favoring filtration

Front 57

What hematopoietic growth factor controls red blood cell synthesis, and what organ releases it?

Back 57

D) erythropoietin : kidney

Front 58

During hemoglobin metabolism, what is the yellow pigmented substance produced by the removal of the iron group called?

Back 58

D) bilirubin

Front 59

Which of the following is the first step of hemostasis?

Back 59

D) vascular spasm

Front 60

In healthy endothelial cells, arachidonic acid is converted to ________, which ________ formation of blood clots.

Back 60

C) prostacyclin : inhibits

Front 61

Which of the following occurs when intra-alveolar pressure exceeds atmospheric pressure?

Back 61

B) air moves out of the lung

Front 62

Which of the following is true when the lung volume is equal to the functional residual capacity?

Back 62

A) the elastic recoil of the lungs is balanced by the elastic recoil of the chest wall

Front 63

As the volume of the chest wall increases, the concomitant expansion of the lungs is due to a(n) ________.

Back 63

E) increase in transpulmonary pressure

Front 64

A normal tidal volume at rest is approximately ________ mL.

Back 64

B) 500

Front 65

The relationship between the concentration of a gas in solution and the partial pressure of that gas can be described by ________.

Back 65

D) Henry's Law

Front 66

At sea level, what is the normal partial pressure of oxygen in the pulmonary veins?

Back 66

D) 100 mm Hg

Front 67

If hemoglobin is saturated (1.3 mL of oxygen per gram) and there are 150 grams of hemoglobin per liter of blood, how much oxygen can be delivered to the tissue if cardiac output is 15 liters per minute?

Back 67

D) 2925 mL O2/min

Front 68

During quiet breathing, a person's breathing cycle consists of ________.

Back 68

B) contraction and relaxation of inspiratory muscles

Front 69

What is the sum of Starling's forces within the renal corpuscle called?

Back 69

A) glomerular filtration pressure

Front 70

What is the normal glomerular filtration rate?

Back 70

A) 125 mL/min

Front 71

When the solute concentration is high enough in the lumen of the renal tubules such that all of the carrier proteins or pumps for that solute are occupied, the system is operating at ________.

Back 71

D) transport maximum

Front 72

Which of the conditions listed below is NOT indicative of a decrease in plasma osmolarity?

Back 72

D) neural hyperexcitability

Front 73

If nothing else is removed from the filtrate once it reaches the late distal tubules, the urine excreted would have which of the following properties?

Back 73

D) low osmolarity and large volume

Front 74

What is the strongest stimulus for the release of antidiuretic hormone from the posterior pituitary?

Back 74

C) increase in plasma osmolarity

Front 75

Which of the following best describes sodium movement in the distal tubule?

Back 75

A) Sodium is transported across the basolateral membrane by the Na+/K+ pump and across the apical membrane by diffusion through sodium channels.

Front 76

What do the secretory cells in the crypts of Lieberkuhn's secrete?

Back 76

C) succus entericus

Front 77

In order to convert amino acids to fatty acids and/or gluconeogenic precursors, an ammonium ion must be removed in the liver and converted to ________ before being excreted by the kidneys.

Back 77

A) urea

Front 78

The central component of the long reflex pathway typically involves the ________ nervous system, which acts to promote an increase in gastrointestinal activity.

Back 78

A) parasympathetic

Front 79

What causes segmentation?

Back 79

A) contraction of the circular muscle at one intestinal segment coupled with its relaxation at adjoining segments

Front 80

In order to lose weight, a person must be ________.

Back 80

B) in a state of negative energy balance

Front 81

Insulin is secreted by the ________ cells of the pancreas and stimulates ________.

Back 81

B) beta : anabolism

Front 82

What is the normal level of glucose in blood?

Back 82

C) 100 mg/dL

Front 83

A substance that causes an increase in the set point for body temperature is called a ________.

Back 83

A) pyrogen

Front 84

What does an increase in cAMP levels in thyroid follicular cells cause?

Back 84

A) increase in secretion of thyroid hormones

Front 85

The absence of ________ in the fetus will further the development of the ________ into the female reproductive tract.

Back 85

E) Müllerian-inhibiting substance : Müllerian ducts

Front 86

What hormone is responsible for secondary sex characteristics in males?

Back 86

C) testosterone

Front 87

Erectile function requires an increase in ________, whereas ejaculation involves increases in ________.

Back 87

C) parasympathetic nervous activity : sympathetic nervous activity

Front 88

During the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle, one follicle (the dominant follicle) will continue to develop because its cells ________.

Back 88

A) maintain estrogen secretion

Front 89

Fetal release of ________ appears to be partly responsible for stimulating parturition.

Back 89

C) corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)

Front 90

In order to be completely functional, a T cell must be activated by ________.

Back 90

E) the thymus gland

Front 91

For leukocytes to battle an infection, adhesion molecules are necessary including ________, which loosely bind leukocytes to the blood vessel wall slowing down their movement, and ________, which tightly attaches leukocytes to the blood vessel wall in preparation for diapedesis.

Back 91

C) selectin : integrin

Front 92

Compared to humoral immunity, cell-mediated immunity is more likely to defend against which of the following?

Back 92

E) virally-infected cells, cancer cells, and transplanted tissue

Front 93

Activation of cytotoxic T cells requires binding to class I MHC molecule complexed with a foreign antigen and the release of ________ from ________.

Back 93

D) interleukin-2 : helper T cells

Front 94

A natural form of passive immunity involves the transfer of ________.

Back 94

D) IgA antibodies to an infant through the mother's milk

Front 95

By what percentage has the incidence of diabetes mellitus type 1 increased in the United States over the last twenty years?

Back 95

D) 50

Front 96

In diabetes mellitus type 2, blood vessel damage occurs primarily through what process?

Back 96

C) decrease in nitric oxide release from endothelial cells

Front 97

What is dysthesia?

Back 97

A) unpleasant sensation produced by innocuous stimuli

Front 98

What cell type initiates the inflammatory response?

Back 98

A) macrophages

Front 99

Dietary control of diabetes mellitus type 1 includes limiting the intake of ________.

Back 99

A) carbohydrates