Pharmacology Test #3 Set 3

Front 1

oropharyngeal & esophageal candidiasis, and cryptococcal meningitis-- tx?

Back 1

fluconazole

Front 2

Drugs that cause gingival enlargement:

Back 2

• phenytoin
• cyclosporine
• calcium channel blockers
• tegretol & depakene

Front 3

RAS affects what % of the population?

Back 3

20%

Front 4

Which infections are more insidious, bacterial or fungal?

Back 4

fungal

Front 5

Ambien=

Back 5

zopidem

Front 6

phenobarbital is used for the treatment of what?

Back 6

epilepsy

Front 7

toxicity of AZT is related to..

Back 7

bone marrow depression

Front 8

NUG patients w/ immunosuppression can take what drugs?

Back 8

PCN VK, & metronidazole

Front 9

Therapy of ___________ is aimed towards treating the secondary infection.

Back 9

angular cheilitis

Front 10

Streptomyces noursei is involved in which drug?

Back 10

nystatin

Front 11

DDS benzodiazepines: (5)

Back 11

• Triazolam
• Diazepam
• Lorazepam
• Alprazolam
• Midazolam

Front 12

'-zolam' '-zepam' '-zenil' '-ium' :

Back 12

benzodiazepines

Front 13

DDS benzodiazepines end in..

Back 13

-zolam or -zepam

Front 14

____________ produces elevated liver enzyme in 15% of patients.

Back 14

clotrimazole

Front 15

nystatin, clotrimazole, ketoconazole, & fluconazole are used to tx:

Back 15

oral candidiasis

Front 16

Serotonin reuptake inhibitors increase _________ levels.

Back 16

diazepam

Front 17

doconasol is the only nonprescription anti-_________.

Back 17

anti-viral

Front 18

Interferons possess what properties:

Back 18

antiviral, cytotoxic, immunomodulating

Front 19

Angular cheilitis w/ inflammation tx:

Back 19

antifungal & topical steroid

Front 20

the 1st protease inhibitor:

Back 20

saquinavir

Front 21

What % of acyclovir is metabolized in the liver?

Back 21

10%

Front 22

the current tx for RAS:

Back 22

Benadryl (DPH)

Front 23

kerototic actinic lip changes tx:

Back 23

5-FU

Front 24

______________ prevents synthesis of ergosterol.

Back 24

fluconazole

Front 25

____________ alters cell membranes & interferes w/ intracellular enzymes.

Back 25

ketoconazole

Front 26

raltegravir is in what HIV tx group?

Back 26

integrase inhibitor

Front 27

AZT=

Back 27

zidovudine

Front 28

benzodiazepines w/ valproic acid, what effect?

Back 28

increased sedation

Front 29

GI & CVS abnormalities, microencephaly, cleft lip/palate, & malformations to the fetus are caused by the pregnant mother taking what?

Back 29

benzodiazepines

Front 30

Tricyclic antidepressants structurally resemble:

Back 30

cyclobenzoprine

Front 31

the most commonly prescribed anti-anxiety drugs:

Back 31

benzodiazepines

Front 32

famciclovir & valacyclovir are antivirals used to tx:

Back 32

genital herpes

Front 33

acidic environment is required for what drug?

Back 33

ketoconazole

Front 34

Are benzodiazepines or barbiturates well-absorbed both orally & rectally?

Back 34

barbiturates

Front 35

maraviroc is in what HIV tx group?

Back 35

fusion/entry inhibitors

Front 36

synthetic antifungal:

Back 36

clotrimazole

Front 37

drug used for initial genital herpes & recurrent mucocutaneous herpes simplex:

Back 37

acyclovir

Front 38

chronic candidiasis may be given what drug?

Back 38

ketoconazole

Front 39

LFTs are needed w/ extended use of..

Back 39

ketoconazole

Front 40

_____________ decrease the effect of levodopa.

Back 40

benzodiazepines

Front 41

Usual doses of ___________ cause a marked reduction in stages 3 & 4 sleep.

Back 41

benzodiazepines

Front 42

___________ increases membrane permeability & allows leakage of K+.

Back 42

nystatin

Front 43

_____________ stops viral DNA synthesis.

Back 43

AZT

Front 44

_______________ can cause either increased salivation or xerostomia.

Back 44

benzodiazepines

Front 45

The selection of topical corticosteroids is based on:

Back 45

potency

Front 46

______________ are potent stimulators of liver enzyme production.

Back 46

barbiturates

Front 47

Benadryl & antidepressants are used for the palliative tx of:

Back 47

burning mouth/tongue syndrome

Front 48

Do sedatives provide analgesia?

Back 48

No

Front 49

enfuvirtide is in which HIV tx group?

Back 49

fusion/entry

Front 50

oral benzodiazepine that manages partial seizures:

Back 50

clonazepam

Front 51

intermittent porphyria OR a positive family hx of porphyria are contraindications of:

Back 51

barbiturates

Front 52

______________ have a reduced effect w/ nicotine.

Back 52

benzodiazepines

Front 53

Miconazole, Tolnaftate, & Undecylenic acid- tx of?

Back 53

tinea

Front 54

Do lower or higher doses of benzodiazepines cause drowsiness/sleep?

Back 54

higher

Front 55

______________ orally is not absorbed, but excreted unchanged in feces.

Back 55

nystatin

Front 56

T/F: Nystatin is well-absorbed in the GI tract.

Back 56

FALSE

Front 57

hypnotic for short-term management of insomnia:

Back 57

zolpidem

Front 58

There are 5 oral nucleoside/nucleotide analogs that are available for the treatment of chronic hep _____.

Back 58

chronic hep B

Front 59

Oral contraceptives, menstrual cycle phase, & smoking are risk factors of:

Back 59

alveolar osteitis

Front 60

RAU age of onset:

Back 60

after 20

Front 61

Telaprevir & Boceprevir are what?

Back 61

protease inhibitors for tx of chronic hep

Front 62

What antifungal is both fungistatic & fungicidal?

Back 62

nystatin

Front 63

Benzodiazepine CVS effects w/ usual dose:

Back 63

none

Front 64

purine nucleoside that inhibits DNA replication:

Back 64

acyclovir

Front 65

What drug causes purple-red urine?

Back 65

chlorzoxazone

Front 66

mupirocen is associated with tx what 2 conditions?

Back 66

angular cheilitis & impetigo

Front 67

1st generation cephalosporins:

Back 67

• cephalexin
• cefazolin

Front 68

Resistance develops rapidly when what TB agent is used alone?

Back 68

ethambutol

Front 69

Metronidazole potentiates the action of...

Back 69

warfarin

Front 70

Clindamycin is well absorbed __________, but can be given ___________.

Back 70

well-absorbed orally;

can be given IV, IM, or topically

Front 71

lower respiratory tract, skin, bones, joints, UTIs--tx?

Back 71

ciprofloxacin

Front 72

TB agent that is well-absorbed & widely distributed w/ effects including hepatoxicity, rash, hyperuricemia, & GI disturbance:

Back 72

PZA

Front 73

What, other than PCN, is more effective against rapidly growing organisms?

Back 73

cephalosporins

Front 74

______ & ______ are effective against gram+ cocci.

Back 74

ampicillin & amoxicillin

Front 75

Do tetracyclines have a narrow or broad spectrum of bacteria they're effective against?

Back 75

broad

Front 76

____________ may cause renal toxicity.

Back 76

Metronidazole

Front 77

1% of patients taking INH exhibit clinical _______, & up to 10% develop abnormal values.

Back 77

hepatitis

Front 78

Is ciprofloxacin bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

Back 78

bactericidal (effective against gram-)

Front 79

optic neuritis is a side effect of:

Back 79

ethambutol

Front 80

bone marrow suppression & hemolytic anemia are possible consequences of long-term large doses of:

Back 80

PCN

Front 81

What is produced by Streptomyces mediterranei?

Back 81

rifampin

Front 82

Antacids & probenicid interfere w/ absorption & serum concentration of:

Back 82

ciprofloxacin

Front 83

enterohepatic circulation is associated w/:

Back 83

rifampin

Front 84

PMC (pseudomembranous colitis/antibiotic-associated colitis) is associated with what? (2)

Back 84

clindamycin & quinolones

Front 85

children exposed to Haemophilus influenzae meningitis are treated with:

Back 85

rifampin

Front 86

________ is metabolized in the liver by hydrolysis.

Back 86

PCN

Front 87

ototoxicity & nephrotoxicity are effects caused by:

Back 87

aminoglycosides

Front 88

What TB drug is bactericidal ONLY against actively growing tubercle bacilli?

Back 88

INH

Front 89

antibacterial produced by Pseudomonas fluorescens:

Back 89

mupirocin

(( pseudomonas ))

Front 90

'cefaclor' is what generation cephalosporin?

Back 90

2nd generation

Front 91

What is BEST at having acquired resistance?

Back 91

viruses (bacteria can too)

Front 92

disulfiram-like reactions are caused by:

Back 92

• cephalosporins
• alcohol & metronidazole interaction

Front 93

increasing membrane permeability-- MOA of:

Back 93

nystatin

Front 94

Increasing membrane permeability is specific to anti-_________.

Back 94

antifungals (bc bacteria do not have sterols in their membrane)

Front 95

inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis-- MOA of:

Back 95

PCN & cephalosporins

Front 96

inhibition of bacterial ribosomal synthesis-- MOA of :

Back 96

macrolides & tetracyclines

Front 97

T/F: A vaginal tablet can be used as an oral lozenge to avoid sugar intake w/ nystatin.

Back 97

TRUE

Front 98

T/F: Cultures should be performed when prescribing nystatin.

Back 98

FALSE

Front 99

The most serious adverse reaction associated with ketoconazole is __________, whereas the most frequent adverse reaction associated with ketoconazole is ___________.

Back 99

most serious- hepatoxicity;

most frequent- GI upset

Front 100

One should have LFTs periodically when taking what?

Back 100

ketoconazole

Front 101

Due to serious adverse effects, what should only be used after topical anti fungal agents have been ineffective?

Back 101

ketoconazole

Front 102

mucocutaneous & oropharygeal candidiasis-- tx?

Back 102

ketoconazole

Front 103

___________ primarily damage the pathogenic microorganism by damaging the cell wall or interfering w/ protein synthesis, whereas _________ cause the host cell to be destroyed along with it.

Back 103

antibacterials;

antivirals

Front 104

Acyclovir inhibits _____ synthesis.

Back 104

DNA

Front 105

docosanol is an OTC med used to treat:

Back 105

herpes simplex

Front 106

imidazoles are used to treat _______ infections.

Back 106

fungal infections

Front 107

nucleoside/nucleotide analogues & interferons are used to tx:

Back 107

chronic hep. B

Front 108

protease inhibitors are used to tx:

Back 108

chronic hep. C

Front 109

sudden discontinuation of what can lead to relapse & even death?

Back 109

nucleoside/nucleotide analogs

Front 110

imidazoles increase...

Back 110

cell membrane permeability

Front 111

nonbenzodiazepine, nonbarbiturate sedative hypnotic w/ rapid onset & short duration:

Back 111

chloral hydrate

Front 112

chloral hydrate is popular for sedation of...

Back 112

children

Front 113

T/F: Serotonin action is not related to the action of benzodiazepines.

Back 113

True

Front 114

T/F: Buspirone is the only anxioselective anxiolytic agent, and it has no other therapeutic indications.

Back 114

True

Front 115

Ramelteon is agent used for the treatment of ________.

Back 115

insomnia

Front 116

T/F: Treatment is important in herpetic infections.

Back 116

FALSE

Front 117

___________ suppress body's ability to fight virus.

Back 117

corticosteroids

Front 118

fluocinonide & betamethasone are examples of what?

Back 118

corticosteroids

Front 119

analgesics, benadryl (DPH), viscous lidocaine, & kaolin are palliative tx agents for tx ofL

Back 119

herpes simplex

Front 120

When are antibiotics indicated for alveolar osteitis?

Back 120

only if infection is present

Front 121

oral & topical steroids, oral retinoids, & immunosuppressants used for tx of:

Back 121

lichen planus

Front 122

____________ is often treated w/ amitriptyline (an antidepressant that also reduces pain).

Back 122

Burning mouth/tongue syndrome

Front 123

T/F: APF is an effective desensitizing agent.

Back 123

FALSE (low pH could cause root sensitivity)

Front 124

5-fu is used for tx of:

Back 124

keratotic (possibility of progression to malignancy) actinic lip changes