Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
282 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
How do drugs and nutrients cross the fetus? |
by diffusion |
|
what trimester has generally the greatest danger of drug-induced developmental defects? |
1st trimester |
|
what are the three factors that contribute to the safety or potential harm of drug therapy during pregnancy? |
drug properties, fetal gestational age, and maternal factors |
|
the drug's chemistry, dosage, and concurrently administered drugs is referred to as? |
drug properites |
|
during what trimester is drug transfer to the fetus most likely to occur? |
last trimester |
|
why is drug transfer more common in the final trimester? |
because there is increased blood flow to the fetus, increased fetal surface area, and increased amount of free drug in the mother's circulation |
|
who implemented pregnancy safety categories? |
FDA |
|
which pregnancy safety category is under the description of "Studies indicate no risk to the human fetus?" |
Category A |
|
Which pregnancy safety category is under the description "Studies indicate no risk to the animal fetus; information for humans is not available" |
Category B |
|
Which pregnancy safety category is under the description "Adverse effects reported in the animal fetus; information for humans is not available" |
Category C |
|
Which pregnancy safety category is under the description "Possible fetal risk in humans has been reported;however, in selected cases consideration of the potential benefit versus risk may warrant use of these drugs in pregnant women" |
Category D |
|
Which pregnancy safety category is under the description of "Fetal abnormalities have been reported, and positive evidence of fetal risk in humans is available from animal and/or human studies. These drugs are not to be used in pregnant women |
Category X |
|
what type of infants are at a risk for exposure to drugs consumed by the mother? |
breastfed infants |
|
The ultimate decision as to whether a breastfeeding mother takes a particular drug depends on? |
risk/benefit ratio |
|
maximum age for a pediatric patient may be identified as? |
16 years of age |
|
younger than 38 weeks gestation? |
premature or preterm infant |
|
younger than 1 month |
neonate or newborn infant |
|
1 month up to 1 year |
infant |
|
1 year up to 12 years? |
child |
|
Why do pediatric patients handle drugs much differently than adult patients? |
because their vital organs are still immature |
|
what are some considerations for neonatal and pediatric patients when being prescribed meds? |
absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion |
|
What is important to know about absorption in neonatal and pediatric patients?
|
gastric pH less acidic until 1 to 2 years of age, gastric emptying slowed, and intramuscular absorption faster and irregular |
|
more drugs enter the brain of a neonatal and pediatric patient because? |
their blood brain barrier is still immature |
|
what does not produce enough microsomal enzymes in a childs metabolism?
|
an immature liver |
|
why are older children required to have a higher dose of meds compared to infants? |
because older children have increased metabolism |
|
what organ has to do with excretion? |
the kidney |
|
glomerular filtration rate and tubular secrection are affected in neonatal and pediatric patients due to? |
kidney immaturity |
|
a decreased perfusion rate of the kidneys may reduce? |
excretion of drugs |
|
Why is it not recommended to give little kids cold/cough meds? |
because their body can't excrete it fast enough so when parents give them meds every few hours their body isn't getting rid of it and its storing at toxic levels in the childs body |
|
what are some factors affecting pediatric drug dosages? |
skin is thin and permeable (limit baby lotion), stomach lacks acid to kill bacteria, lungs have weaker mucus barriers, body temperatures less well regulated and dehydration occurs easily, liver and kidneys are immature which impair drug metabolism and excretion |
|
when performing dosage calculations for pediatric patients what unit of weight should you always use? |
kilograms (NOT POUNDS) |
|
when performing dosage calculations for pediatric patients what unit of measure should you always use?
|
centimeters (NOT INCHES) |
|
what is the most common method of dosage calculation for pediatric patients called and what is it measured in? |
body weight dosage calculations (mg/kg) |
|
what are ericksons 8 stages of development? |
infancy(birth to 1 year old), toddler hood (1-3), preschool age(3-6), school age(6-12), adolescence(12-18), young adulthood (18-45), middle adult hood(45-65), older adult hood (over 65) |
|
what is the age for "older adults" |
older than age 65 |
|
what age group has a high use of medications? |
older adults |
|
the simultaneous use of multiple medications is called? |
polypharmacy |
|
What is the age approval range for meds? |
13-65 years old |
|
older adult patients handle drugs physiologically differently than adult patients due to? |
decline in organ function that occurs with advancing age |
|
the older adult patients are more likely to not take meds due to noncompliance or non adherence..what does this mean? |
some patients want to take their meds but truly cannot afford the medicine |
|
What are the most important organs from the standpoint of the breakdown and elimination of drugs? |
liver and the kidneys |
|
gastric pH less acidic, gastric emptying slowed, movement through GI tract slowed because of decreased muscle tone and activity, blood flow to GI tract reduced, absorptive surface of GI tract reduced |
absorption |
|
lower total body water percentages, INCREASED fat content, decreased production of proteins by the liver resulting in decreased protein binding of drugs (and increased circulation of free drugs) |
Distribution |
|
When the aging liver produces fewer microsomal enzymes and blood flow is reduced, what does that affect? |
drug metabolism |
|
When excretion is not properly working in the older adults, what can that cause when the patient is taking meds? |
a toxic effect on the body due to meds not being excreted out of the body fast enough
|
|
Decreased glomerular filtration rate and decreased number of nephrons |
excretion |
|
What type of common complications are associated with the medications "sedatives and hypnotics"? |
confusion, daytime sedation, ataxia, lethargy, increased risk for falls |
|
what types of common complications are associated with the medication "Thiazide diuretics"? |
electrolyte imbalance, rashes, fatigue, leg cramps, dehydration |
|
what are some considerations that should be taken for medication administration of older adults? |
age, allergies to drugs and foods, dietary habits, financial status and any limitations, list of all health-related care providers, (sensory, visual, hearing, cognitive, and motor-skill deficits), list of medications, existence of polypharmacy, self-medication practices, lab test results, history of smoking/alcohol, risk situations related to drug therapy |
|
what does KSA stand for? |
knowledge, skills and attitudes |
|
what are the six major initiatives of QSEN? |
patient-centered care, teamwork & collaboration, evidence based practice (EBP), quality improvement, safety, and informatics |
|
A research-based organizational framework for professional nursing practice that ensures the delivery of thorough, individualized, and quality nursing care to patients |
the nursing process |
|
What are the five steps of the nursing process? |
assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, evaluation |
|
data collection, review, and analysis? |
assessment |
|
What are some examples of objective data? |
blood pressure reading, specific drugs that the patient is taking, calling the pharmacy to get a med list |
|
what type of data involves the patient describing how they feel? |
subjective data |
|
These are used to communicate and share information about the patient and the patients experience? |
nursing diagnosis |
|
failure to act in accordance with a wish or command |
non-compliance |
|
what are some common nursing diagnoses related to drug therapy? |
deficient knowledge (never used it before), risk for injury (especially in elderly if they fall), noncompliance |
|
How would you write a nursing diagnosis? |
the problem related to etiology (causes) as evidence by signs and symptoms |
|
which step of the nursing process identifies goals and outcome of criteria? |
planning |
|
in the planning phase of the nursing process, what do the goals need to contain? |
they need to be patient focused, measurable, realistic, and established within an achievable time period
|
|
Initiation and completion of specific nursing actions as defined by the nursing diagnoses, goals, and outcome criteria |
implementation |
|
Implementation of nursing actions may be? |
independent, dependent, or collaborative |
|
What are the six rights of medication administration? |
Right drug, right dose, right time, right route, right patient, right documentation |
|
ongoing part of the nursing process that determines the status of the goals and outcomes of care? |
evaluation |
|
Nursing diagnoses have been developed through a formal process conducted by? |
NANDA-I |
|
any chemical that affects the physiologic processes of living organisms |
drug |
|
study or science of drugs |
pharmacology |
|
Describes the drug's chemical composition and molecular structure? |
chemical name |
|
Name given by the Unites States Adopted Names council |
generic name |
|
(non proprietary name)
|
generic name |
|
the drug has a registered trademark; use of the name is restricted by the drug's patent owner (usually the manufacturer) |
trade name |
|
proprietary name |
trade name |
|
What name do we have to know the drug by? |
the generic name |
|
Which name is NEVER capitalized? |
generic |
|
Which name is ALWAYS capitalized? |
TRADE NAME |
|
the study of how various drug forms influence the way in which the drug affects the body |
pharmaceutics
|
|
dissolving of solid forms and their absorption |
dissolution |
|
name the drug absorption of various oral preparations from fastest to slowest? |
oral disintegration, liquids/syrups, suspension solutions, powders, capsules, tablets, coated tablets, and enteric-coated tablets |
|
what does xl, xr, cr indicate? |
extended release pills (takes them longer to be released in the body) |
|
The study of what the body does to the drug |
Pharmacokinetics |
|
What are the 4 different phases of pharmacokinetics? |
absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion |
|
the movement of a drug from its site of administration into the bloodstream for distribution to the tissues |
absorption |
|
extent of drug absorption |
bioavailability |
|
drug passes through the liver before it goes into full systemic circulation; it may get metabolized partially in the liver...what is this know as? |
first pass effect |
|
are IV's 100% bioavailable? |
yes |
|
Why are bioavailability and first pass effect important? |
because IV and oral meds will be in different dosages from each other due to their bioavailability |
|
The drug is absorbed into the systemic circulation through the mucosa of the stomach and/or small or large intestine (GI tract) |
enteral route |
|
what are some examples of enteral route? |
oral, sublingual, buccal, rectal |
|
this type of route absorbed meds under the tongue |
sublingual route |
|
drugs administered through the oral mucosa between the cheek and the gum |
buccal route |
|
What is the fastest route by which a drug can be absorbed? |
parenteral route |
|
any route of administration other than the GI tract and most commonly refers to injection |
parenteral route |
|
application of medications to various body surfaces |
topical route |
|
drug delivery through adhesive parches (absorbed into skin) |
transdermal route |
|
drugs are delivered to the lungs as micrometer-sized drug particles through what type of route? example:inhaler |
inhaled route |
|
directed into the muscle through a shot; not as fast as IV, but faster than oral |
intramuscular |
|
directed into fatty tissue |
subcutaneous |
|
injections under the more superficial skin layers immediately underneath the epidermal layer of skin and into the dermal layer are known as what type of injections? |
intradermal |
|
injection into the artery |
intraarterial |
|
a spine injection |
intrathecal |
|
injection into the joints |
intraarticular |
|
why are ointments sometimes hard to use on patients? |
because absorption rates may vary depending on the person and the type of ointment being used |
|
What are some examples of topical routes? |
skin, eyes, ear, nose, lungs (inhalation), rectum, vagina |
|
transport of a drug bu the bloodstream to its site of action |
distribution |
|
what are the 1st and 2nd areas where drugs will be distributed to the fastest?
|
first are areas with greatest blood supply then second are extra-vascular areas |
|
occurs when the presence of one drug increases or decreases the actions of another drug that is administered concurrently (at different times) |
drug-drug interaction |
|
The most common blood protein and carries the majority of protein bound drug molecules |
albumin |
|
some drugs like to bind to albumin but not all of the drug stays bound so those molecules can pass through? |
vascular system |
|
what type of drug can be administered to someone who has a failure to thrive diagnoses? |
highly protein bound drug |
|
if protein levels are low, what are albumin levels like? |
albumin levels are usually low |
|
This is also referred to as "biotransformation" |
metabolism |
|
This involves biochemical alteration of a drug into an inactive metabolite, a more soluble compound, a more potent active metabolite, or a less active metabolite |
metabolism |
|
inactive drug converted to active form by the liver |
prodrug |
|
What organ is used for metabolism? |
liver |
|
if a drug is a prodrug, then what type of condition must the liver be in? |
patient must have a good liver to activate the drug when passed through the liver |
|
what lab tests do you perform to check for liver function? |
bilirubin, AST, ALT, Alk-phos |
|
very large class of hepatic enzymes that control reactions that aid in the metabolism of medications |
cytochrome P-450 enzymes |
|
what is another name for cytochrome P-450 enzymes? |
microsomal enzymes |
|
"fat loving" |
lipophilic |
|
"water loving" |
hydrophilic |
|
what body organ is used for excretion? |
kidney |
|
what are the lab tests done to check kidney function? |
BUN (blood, urea, nitrogen), creatinine (CR) |
|
Elimination of drugs from the body? |
excretion |
|
What is the primary excretion? |
renal excretion |
|
drugs that are eliminated by this route are taken up by the liver, released into the bile, and eliminated in the feces |
biliary excretion |
|
Between the BUN and the creatinine tests, which one can change based on diet? |
BUN |
|
What does it mean when creatinine levels are > than 1.1? |
then kidneys are stressed and not functioning like they should be |
|
time required for half (50%) of a given drug to be removed from the body |
half-life |
|
refers to the physiological state in which the amount of drug removed via elimination is equal to the amount of drug absorbed with each dose |
steady state |
|
what helps to keep consistent drug levels and max therapeutic benefits? |
steady state |
|
highest blood level |
peak level |
|
lowest blood level |
trough level |
|
If peak blood level is too high, what may occur? |
toxicity |
|
Physiological reaction of the body to the drug |
drug effect |
|
time required for the drug to elicit a therapeutic response (usually between 30-60 minutes) |
onset of action |
|
time required for a drug to reach its maximum therapeutic response; happens within duration of action |
peak effect |
|
the length of time that the drug concentration is available to elicit a therapeutic response |
duration of action |
|
peak and trough values are measured to verify adequate drug exposure, maximize therapeutic effects, and minimize drug toxicity. |
therapeutic drug monitoring |
|
what is the therapeutic index?
|
the point between the peak level and toxic level |
|
what is the therapeutic range? |
the point from where the patient first starts to feel the effect of the drug until it becomes toxic |
|
How is narrow therapeutic range likely to be monitored? |
through labs |
|
The study of what the drug does to the body and how its working inside the body |
pharmacodynamics |
|
What are the three mechanisms of action in pharmacodynamics? |
1. receptor interactions 2. enzyme interactions 3. nonselective interactions |
|
drugs that completely attach to receptor site and mimic response |
agonist drug |
|
drugs that attach to receptor site but block the response |
antagonist |
|
These drugs can either physically interfere with or chemically alter cellular structures or processes |
nonselective interactions |
|
substances that catalyze nearly every biochemical reaction in a cell? |
enzymes |
|
can be defined as a reactive site on the surface or inside of a cell? |
receptor |
|
The clinical use of drugs to prevent and treat diseases |
pharmacotherapeutics |
|
any condition that makes drug therapy dangerous to the patient |
contraindications |
|
involves more intensive drug treatment and is implemented to those with rapid onset of illness |
acute therapy |
|
therapy that will prevent progression of a disease or condition |
maintenance |
|
therapy that supplies the body with a substance needed either because it cannot be made by the body or because it is produced in insufficient quantity |
supplemental therapy |
|
goal of this therapy is to try and make the patient as comfortable as possible |
palliative therapy |
|
therapy that maintains the integrity of body functions while the patient is recovering from illness or trauma |
supportive therapy |
|
drug therapy provided to prevent illness or other undesirable outcomes during planned events |
prophylactic therapy |
|
therapy that is given based on clinical probability; when a certain pathologic condition has a high likelihood of occurrence based on the patients initial presenting symptoms |
empiric therapy |
|
beneficial affect |
therapeutic action |
|
side effect of a drug that needs to be addressed |
adverse affect |
|
a greater level of harm and can be life threatening |
toxic effects |
|
ratio of toxic level to level of therapeutic benefit |
therapeutic index |
|
value of drug that is in your blood |
drug concentration |
|
asking patient how they are doing or knowing what their disease is |
patient condition |
|
decreasing response to repeated drug doses |
tolerance |
|
physiologic or psychological need for a drug |
dependence |
|
physiological need for a drug to avoid physical withdrawal symptoms |
physical dependence |
|
also known as addiction and is the obsessive desire for the euphoric effects of a drug |
psychological dependence |
|
alteration of one drug by another |
drug interactions |
|
when two drugs with similar actions are given together they can have what type of effect? |
additive effects |
|
2 drugs interact and combine so that effect is great when given together |
synergistic effects |
|
2 drugs interact in body and overall effect decreases |
antagonistic effects |
|
2 meds interact and form chemical reactions which form a precipitate and that is dangerous to the body |
incompatibility |
|
any undesirable occurrence involving medications |
adverse drug event |
|
stop medication abruptly or too soon |
adverse drug withdrawal event |
|
preventable situation in which there is a compromise in the "Six Rights" of medication use |
medication error |
|
any reaction to a drug that is unexpected and undesirable and occurs at therapeutic drug dosages |
adverse drug reaction |
|
extension of the drug's normal effects in the body |
pharmacologic reaction |
|
patients immune system recognizes it as foreign body and tries to attack it (patient suffers from hives, swollen throat, etc.) |
hypersensitivity (allergic) reaction |
|
not the result of a known pharmacologic property of a drug or of a patient allergy, but instead occurs unexpectedly in a particular patient |
idiosyncratic reaction |
|
occurs when the presence of two or more drugs in the body produces an unwanted effect |
a drug interaction |
|
structural defects in the fetus |
teratogens |
|
permanent changes in the genetic composition of living organisms and consist of alterations in chromosome structure, number of chromosomes, or the genetic code of the DNA |
mutagenic |
|
cancer-causing effects of drugs, other chemicals, radiation, and viruses |
carcinogenic effects |
|
The study of natural (versus synthetic) drug sources (examples: plants, animals, minerals) |
Pharmacognosy |
|
study of the economic factors influencing the cost of drug therapy |
pharmacoeconomics |
|
Science of the adverse effects of chemicals on living organisms |
toxicology |
|
deals specifically with the care of poisoned patients |
clinical toxicology |
|
this medicine is based on science, evidence, and research |
western medicine |
|
deals with herbal substances and nonspecific scientific alternatives |
eastern medicine |
|
Body of knowledge for understanding the specific impact of cultural factors on patient drug response |
Ethnopharmacology |
|
What has a huge influence on how one person may react to a drug compared to someone else? |
genetics |
|
Are there resources available to seek additional info about cultural factors? |
yes; many online resources like CDC, etc. |
|
variation in response to a drug because of a patient's age, gender, size, and/or body composition |
drug polymorphism |
|
same drug may result in a different result in a different individual |
drug polymorphism |
|
A type of warning that appears in a drug's prescribing information and is required by the U.S. food and drug administration to alert prescribers of serious adverse events that have occurred with the given drug |
black box warning |
|
The customary beliefs, social forms, and material traits of a racial, religious, or social group |
culture |
|
The study of the effect of ethnicity on drug responses, specifically drug absorption, metabolism, distribution, and excretion as well as the study of genetic variations to drugs |
ethnopharmacology |
|
acceleration of the usual investigational new drug approval process by the FDA, usually for drugs used to treat life-threatening diseases |
expedited drug approval |
|
An act that protects health insurance coverage for workers and their families when they change jobs. It also protects patient info. If confidentiality of a patient is breached, severe fines may be imposed |
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) |
|
Written permission obtained from a patient consenting to a specific procedure |
informed consent
|
|
A drug not yet approved for marketing by the FDA but available for use in experiments to determine its safety and efficacy |
Investigational new drug (IND) |
|
When performing a cultural assessment, how do you know when you need an interpreter? |
First you need to know what type of information you are interpreting so you can decide if a family member would be an okay interpreter or if you need a trained professional |
|
When was the federal food and drug act originated? |
1906 |
|
A special type of negligence or the failure of a professional and/or individual with specialized education and training to act in a reasonable and prudent way |
malpractice |
|
a legal term established under the Harrison Narcotic Act of 1964. The term is currently used in clinical settings to refer to any medically administered controlled substance and in legal settings to refer to and illicit or "street" drug; also referred to as opioid |
narcotic |
|
The failure to act in a reasonable and prudent manner or failure of the nurse to give the care that a reasonably prudent (cautious) nurse would render or use under similar circumstances |
negligence |
|
A special category of drugs that have been identified to help treat patients with rare diseases |
orphan drugs |
|
Drugs available to consumers without a prescription, Also called nonprescription drugs |
over-the-counter drugs |
|
The study of genetics in drug response |
pharmacogenetics |
|
What do you need in order to be able to access a patients records or ask information about a patient to another health care provider? |
a need to know |
|
Primary purpose of the FDA is to protect patients and ensure drug effectiveness |
Food and Drug administration (FDA) |
|
Any meds administered that are a controlled substance |
narcotics |
|
"prescription drugs" really differentiated between over the counter or written prescription |
legend drugs |
|
an act that states that any nutritional supplement has a safety precaution and wont case harm to the person but no guarantee it will be effective or that there will be the same amount of each ingredient in each one |
Dietary supplement Health and Education Act of 1994 |
|
How are controlled substances categorized? |
in schedule c1-c5 |
|
What are the categories for schedule c1? |
high abuse potential,medical use not accepted , and dependency potential is sever physical and psychological |
|
What are the categories for schedule c2 |
High abuse potential,medical use is accepted, dependency potential is sever physical and psychological |
|
What are the categories for schedule C3 |
Abuse potential is less than C2, medical use is accepted , Dependency potential is moderate to low physical or high psychological |
|
What are the categories for schedule C4? |
Abuse potential is than C3, medical use is accepted, dependency potential is limited physical or pschological |
|
What are the categories for schedule C5? |
Abuse potential is less than C4, medical use is accepted, Dependency potential is limited physical or pschological |
|
What are the dispensing restrictions for schedule C1? |
Only with approved protocol |
|
What are the dispensing restrictions for schedule C2? |
Written prescription only, no refills, and container must have a warning label |
|
What are the dispensing restrictions for schedule C3?
|
Written or oral prescription that expires in 6 months, no more than 5 refills in a 6 month period, container must have warning label |
|
What are the dispensing restrictions for schedule C4?
|
Written or oral prescritpion that expires in 6 months, no more than 5 refills in a 6 month period, container must have a warning label |
|
What are the dispensing restrictions for schedule C5?
|
Written prescription or over the counter (varies with state law) |
|
What is the U.S. FDA drug approval process? |
Preclinical testing, clinical testing, investigational drug studies, and expedited drug approval |
|
In order to get informed consent, what are the three things you need to explain to the patient? |
the purpose of the test, procedure, and possible benefits and risks involved |
|
Current medical ethics require that all new drugs undergo laboratory testing using both in vitro (tissue or cell) and animal studies before any testing in human subjects can be done |
preclinical testing |
|
what are the four clinical phases? |
phase 1- usually involves small number of healthy subjects to determine optimal dosage range Phase 2- involve small # of volunteers who have the disease to determine therapeutic dosage range Phase 3- involve large # of patients who are followed by medical research centers and these patients provide info about rare adverse effects that may not yet have been observed during previous smaller studies Phase 4- postmarked studies to obtain further proof of the therapeutic and adverse effects of the new drug |
|
"voluntary recall" Providers can prescribe meds but patients need to understand there are high risk for certain side effects |
Black Box warning |
|
What are the three different classes for a recall of a drug? |
class 1-most serious; drug product carries a reasonable probability of serious adverse health effects or death Class 2- less sever; use of drug products may result in temporary or medically reversible health effects, but probability of lasting major adverse health effects is low Class 3- Least severe; use of drug product is not likely to result in any significant health problems |
|
Can a nurse be eligible for malpractice or negligent? |
yes |
|
Self-determination and the ability to act on one's own; related nursing actions include promoting a patient's decision making, supporting informed consent, and assisting in decisions or making a decision when a patient is posing harm to him/her self |
autonomy |
|
The ethical principle of doing or actively promoting good; related nursing actions include determining how the patient is best served |
beneficence |
|
The duty to respect privileged information about a patient; related nursing actions include not talking about a patient in public or outside the context of the health care setting |
confidentiality |
|
The ethical principle of being fair or equal in one's actions; related nursing actions include ensuring fairness in distributing resources for the care of patients and determining when to treat |
justice |
|
The duty to do no harm to a patient; related nursing actions include avoiding any deliberate harm while rendering nursing care |
nonmaleficence |
|
The duty to tell the truth; related nursing actions include telling the truth with regard to placebos, investigational new drugs, and informed consent |
veracity |
|
A broad term used to refer to any errors at any point in patient care that cause or have the potential to cause patient harm |
medical error |
|
These have preventable adverse drug effects |
medication errors |
|
encouraging medical personnel to report errors to investigation can occur to hopefully make those situations safer and prevent them from occurring again in the future |
just culture |
|
Any undesirable occurrence related to administration of or failure to administer a prescribed medication |
adverse drug event |
|
Unexpected, unintended, or excessive responses to medications given at therapeutic dosages |
adverse drug reactions |
|
an immunologic reaction resulting from an unusual sensitivity of a patient to a certain medication |
allergic reaction |
|
Any abnormal or unexpected response to a medication, other than an allergic reaction, that is unusual to an individual patient |
idiosyncratic reaction |
|
During what steps can errors occur in the medication process? |
at any step |
|
where do half of all errors in medication begin? what is the second most common error? |
half of all errors begin in prescribing and then 2nd is administering |
|
what are some issues contributing to error? |
organizational issues (work load is too much), educational system issues, sociological factors (nurse says outloud "this is 5mg right?" and the other nurse automatically assumes she is right and doesn't really notice if its wrong), use of abbreviations (can easily be mistaken for other meanings) |
|
What are some types of medication errors? |
1. no error, although circumstances or events occurred that could have led to an error 2. medication error that causes no harm (patient receives more meds than prescribed but it doesn't actually do harm to the body). 3. medication error that does cause harm 4. medication error that results in death |
|
What are some ways of preventing medication errors? |
1.Multiple systems of checks and balances should be implemented to prevent medication errors (warning signs popping up on the machine saying "your taking out a higher dose than prescribed")2. Prescribers must write legible orders that contain correct information, or orders should be entered electronically 3. Authoritative resources, such as pharmacists or current (within the past 3-5 years) drug references or literature, must be consulted. |
|
How many times do nurses need to check the medication order before giving the drug? |
3 TIMES!!! |
|
When should be your last and final check of the six rights of medication administration? |
at the bedside right before you are going to give the patient the medication |
|
What are the two common "patient identifiers"? |
name and date of birth stated by the patient |
|
When does the "two patient identifiers" need to be asked? |
the patient must state their name and date of birth EVERYTIME the nurse enters the room and before the administration of meds (if patient cant state name/birth then the nurse must visually see it on their bracelet) |
|
If you cant read a medication order from a physician what do you need to do? |
call the physician to get clarification on the order |
|
Do you use a "trailing zero" when writing a medication order? why/why not? |
NEVER, because the trailing zero can be misread such as 1.0mg might be mistaken for 10mg |
|
Do you use a "leading zero" for decimal dosages? |
ALWAYS! because if there is no zero then .25 might be misread as 25 instead of its correct meaning of 0.25mg |
|
What does MAR stand for? |
med administration record |
|
The moment a patient questions their meds, what do you need to do? |
you need to question them as well and figure out if that really is the right med (maybe the patient has seen it as a blue pill but now its white because the dosage has increased) |
|
Who usually has the most consistency and the best understanding of medications that the patient is taking? |
the patient and/or family members because they are usually aware of what medications the patient is on |
|
Who do you need to report medication errors to? |
the prescriber and nursing management or charge nurse |
|
what are the two things you need to do for documentation after making a medication error? |
1. need to document in patient record by being very factual and noting the medication administered, actual dose, observed changes in the patient conditions, prescriber notified and follow up orders DO NOT MENTION INCIDENT REPORT HERE 2. Write an incident report-this never goes in the medical record. This is an internal document that can't be used in a court of law. It drives investigation process so something can be done to try and prevent the error from happening again |
|
Continuous assessment and updating of patient medication information (done at all points of entry and exit to or from a health care entity) It is designed to ensure that there are no discrepancies between what the patient was taking at home and in the hospital |
medication reconciliation |
|
What are the three steps to medication reconciliation? |
1.Verification 2. Clarification 3. reconciliation |
|
When performing an assessment regarding medication reconciliation, what types of questions should you start out with? |
ask the patient open ended questions and gradually move to yes-no questions to help determine specific medication information
|
|
level at which basic knowledge is learned and stored |
cognitive domain |
|
conduct that expresses feelings, needs, beliefs, values, and opinions |
affective domain |
|
involves the learning of a new procedure or skill and is often called the "doing domain" |
psychomotor domain |
|
the patients choice not to take meds (they think the doctor is just prescribing them meds that they dont need just to over charge them) |
noncompliance |
|
Patient wants to take the med but cant afford it |
nonadherence |
|
for adults, it is recommended that material be written at what reading grade level? |
8th grade reading level |
|
medications that are legally available without a prescription |
over-the-counter drugs |
|
The OTC drug review states that the med has to have what 3 things? |
safety & efficacy, appropriate labeling standards, and reclassification |
|
what are the potential hazards of using over the counter drugs? |
1. may postpone effective treatment of more chronic disease states 2. may delay treatment of serious or life-threatening disorders 3. may relieve symptoms of a disorder but not the cause 4. toxicity 5.interactions with current prescription medications may occur 6. abuse |
|
what is the max amount of acetaminophen that should be taken? |
3g every 24 hours |
|
what is hepatic toxicity |
liver damage |
|
using herbs to heal |
herbal medicine |
|
orally administered alternative medicines, including herbal supplements |
dietary supplement |
|
plant components, including bard, berries, roots, leaves, gums, seeds, stems, and flowers, used for their medicinal qualities |
herbs |
|
Natural does not mean safe! true or false? |
true |