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90 Cards in this Set

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mechanism of amphotericin B
-binds to the ergosterol component of fungal cell membranes and alters permeability to allow leakage of ions and other intracellular components
-greater selectivity for fungal membranes which contain ergosterol instead of cholesterol as in mammalian cells
broadest-spectrum antifungal and is the drug of choice for major systemic fungal infections, especially in immunocompromised patients
amphotericin B
ADRs of amphotericin B
-infusion reactions: fever, chills, headache, nausea; usually occur 1-3 hr after starting infusion and severity lessens with subsequent dosing; may be managed by pretreatment with NSAIDs, antihistamines and steroids
-nephrotoxicity (80%)
((use lipid formulations to prevent nephrotoxicity))
__ is a synthetic pyrimidine antimetabolite used adjunctively in combination with amphotericin B for treatment of systemic mycoses and meningitis
Flucytosine (5FC)
Flucytosine (5FC) is a synthetic pyrimidine antimetabolite used adjunctively in combination with __ for treatment of __ and __
amphotericin B

systemic mycoses and meningitis
how do you take Flucytosine (5FC)?
it is a well absorbed PO..penetrates CNS
5FC is transported into fungal cells by a __(not found in mammalian cells) and is then converted to fluorouracil; after several steps the metabolite 5-FdUMP is formed which inhibits thymidylate synthetase, stopping DNA synthesis
permease
mechanism of action of azoles
inhibition of the P450 isoenzyme that converts lanosterol to ergosterol; inhibition of ergosterol production results in deficient fungal membranes with increased permeability, leakage of cellular contents, and inhibition of fungal growth
what impairs absorption of ketoconazole? what enhances it?
food, antacids, H2 antagonists, PPIs

acidic cola drinks
what are the ADRs of ketoconazole?
-endocrine: gynecomastia, impotence
-black box warning for hepatotoxicity: rare, serious hepatic dysfunction
DIs of ketoconazole
-Do not take with antacids since gastric acidity is required for dissolution and absorption. If antacids, anticholinergics, H2 blockers, or PPIs are needed, give at least 2 hr after ketoconazole.
-inhibits P450 system
antagonizes action of amphotericin B, concurrent use is contraindicated; considered a class effect of azoles
azoles
fluconazole: po absorption __ on gastric acidity
not dependent (like it is in ketoconazole)
what is fluconazole (diflucan) the DOC for?
- cryptococcal meningitis (excellent penetration into CSF)
- coccidioidomycosis
Itraconazole..is this used orally or topically? does it penetrate the CSF?
orally

no
indication for itraconazole
Pulse dosing for onychomycosis (fungal nail infections)
Pulse dosing for onychomycosis (fungal nail infections)
itraconazole
1st-line agent for treatment of acute, invasive aspergillosis
voriconazole
indications for voriconazole
-1st-line agent for treatment of acute, invasive aspergillosis
-treatment of nonneutropenic patients with candidemia or deep tissue candidal infection
treatment of nonneutropenic patients with candidemia or deep tissue candidal infection
voriconazole
prophylaxis of invasive aspergillosis and candidiasis in patients who are severely immunocompromised
Posaconazole
indication for Posaconazole
prophylaxis of invasive aspergillosis and candidiasis in patients who are severely immunocompromised
ADRs of posaconazole
- hepatic failure, sometimes severe
- QT prolongation
empirical treatment of presumed fungal infections in febrile, neutropenic patients
Caspofungin
indication for Caspofungin
empirical treatment of presumed fungal infections in febrile, neutropenic patients
OTC 1% cream or solution; treatment of tinea pedis, tinea cruris, and tinea corporis
clotrimazole
-interacts with the fungal cell microtubules to disrupt the mitotic spindle and inhibit mitosis
-therapy must be continued until normal tissue replaces infected tissue (weeks to months)
griseofulvin
is Griseofulvin fungicidal or fungistatic?
fungistatic..only active against dermatophytes
-synthetic fungicidal agent which inhibits squalene epoxidase, an essential enzyme in fungal sterol synthesis; produces a deficiency of ergosterol and an accumulation of squalene inside the fungal cell resulting in cell death
-indicated for treatment of onychomycosis of the toenail or fingernail due to dermatophytes
terbinafine
indication for terbinafine
treatment of onychomycosis of the toenail or fingernail due to dermatophytes
Agents for Topical/Vaginal Candidiasis
-Nystatin
-Clotrimazole
-Miconazole
vaginal formulations for local treatment of VVC
-terconazole
-butoconazole
how is Nystatin dosed?
oral suspension: 5 mL qid (one-half of dose in each side of mouth, “swish and swallow”, retaining the drug as long as possible before swallowing)

-topical for superficial Candida fungal infections of the skin, mucous membranes, and intestinal tract
-oral suspension for “swish and swallow” treatment of oral candidiasis
(too toxic for systemic administration; not absorbed po)
polyene antibiotic similar in structure and mechanism of action to amphotericin B (alters cell membrane permeability); broad-spectrum, may be either fungicidal or fungistatic
nystatin
is clotrimazole fungicidal or static?
cidal
how is clotrimazole given?
buccal tablet: indicated for local treatment of oropharyngeal candidiasis (1 troche 5 times qd for 14 days), and for prophylaxis of oropharyngeal candidiasis in immunocompromised patients
DOC for trichomoniasis
metronidazole
metronidazole tx for trichomoniasis guidelines
- clinical syndromes of vaginitis, nongonococcal urethritis (5% of cases in males), prostatitis
- must also treat sexual partner and practice abstinence until cure is effected (therapy completed and both partners asymptomatic)
- preferred regimen is 2 g po single dose
DOC for helminthic infections (pinworm, whipworm, roundworm, hookworm)
Mebendazole: 100 mg chewable tablet
what is mebendazole the DOC for?
helminthic infections (pinworm, whipworm, roundworm, and hookworm)
CDC recommended that neither __ or __ be used for treatment or prophylaxis of influenza in the US until susceptibility is re-established among circulating influenza A viruses
amantadine nor rimantadine
ADR of zanamivir
not recommended for treatment or prophylaxis in patients with underlying airways disease (asthma or COPD) due to risk of serious bronchospasm
- treatment of uncomplicated acute illness due to influenza virus (Types A and B) in adults and adolescents >= 7 years old who have been symptomatic for <= 2 days
zanamivir
treatment of uncomplicated acute illness due to influenza virus in patients > 1 year of age who have been symptomatic for <= 2 days
oseltamivir
neuraminidase inhibitors
zanamivir and oseltamivir
__is a synthetic guanosine nuceloside analog; in host cells, ribavirin is phosphorylated by cellular kinases to the monophosphate, diphosphate, and triphosphate forms; these forms subsequently interfere with critical reactions needed for viral replication, blocking the synthesis and replication of viral RNA
ribavirin
TREATMENT of severe lower respiratory tract infections due to RSV in hospitalized infants and young children
ribavirin
indicated for prevention of serious lower respiratory tract disease caused by RSV in high-risk pediatric patients
palivizumab
TX of RSV is __
PREVENTION of RSV is __
ribavirin
palivizumab
acyclovir is phosphorylated in the viral-infected cell by the viral enzyme __; basis for selective toxicity is that this reaction occurs 100 times more rapidly inside the virus-infected cell than in noninfected host cells
thymidine kinase
what disease is resistant to acyclovir? why? what diseases are sensitive to it?
cytomegalovirus (CMV) is resistant since it lacks a specific viral thymidine kinase

herpes simplex virus-1 (HSV1), HSV2, varicella-zoster virus (VZV), Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
ADR of acyclovir
nephrotoxicity if given as IV bolus or if solubility is exceeded due to tubular precipitation of ACY crystals (give only by slow infusion over at least 1 hr with adequate hydration)
synthetic analog of ACY; prodrug which is converted intracellularly to an active triphosphate form
ganciclovir
spectrum of antiviral activity is similar to ACY with the exception that ganciclovir is __
active vs. CMV
antiviral that is active against CMV
ganciclovir
ADR of ganciclovir
myelosuppression
- neutropenia
- anemia
- thrombocytopenia
DIs with ganciclovir
-nephrotoxic drugs: increased SCr, additive nephrotoxicity
-probenecid: decreased renal clearance of ganciclovir
-zidovudine: additive neutropenia and anemia
prodrug of the antiviral agent penciclovir
famciclovir
indication for famciclovir
treatment of acute herpes zoster
treatment of acute herpes zoster
famciclovir
prodrug of acyclovir to counter the problems with absorption of ACY
valacyclovir (also acyclovir)
2nd-line agent to ganciclovir for CMV
foscarnet sodium
indications for foscarnet sodium
-2nd-line agent to ganciclovir for CMV
-active vs. ganciclovir-resistant CMV and ACY-resistant HSV and VZV
ADRs of foscarnet sodium
-renal dysfunction
-seizures- increased risk with low serum calcium
-chelation of divalent cations may cause hypocalcemia; decreased serum calcium may cause seizures;
-anemia
3rd-line agent for CMV
cidofovir
how must cidofovir be given?
must be administered by slow IV infusion with probenecid and IV saline prehydration
ADRs of cidofovir
-nephrotoxicity
-neutropenia
ester prodrug of ganciclovir
valganciclovir
primary keratoconjunctivitis and recurrent epithelial keratitis due to HSV-1 and HSV-2
trifluridine
indicated for treatment of recurrent herpes labialis (cold sores) in adults
penciclovir
antiretroviral therapy (ART) should be initiated in all patients with __ or __
a history of an AIDS-defining illness or with a CD4 count < 350 cells/cmm
ART should also be initiated, regardless of CD4 count, in patients with the following conditions: (3)
-pregnancy
-HIV-associated nephropathy
-HBV coinfection when treatment of HBV is indicated
antiretroviral therapy is recommended for patients with CD4 counts between __cells/cmm
350-500
HHART-all of the currently preferred regimens have the following characteristics:(3)
-at least three antiretroviral drugs are used
-the regimens have combinations of drugs that have different mechanisms of action
-class-sparing
recommended preferred antiretroviral regimens for initiating treatment in naïve patients
regimen #1: one NNRTI plus two NRTIs

(efavirenz plus tenofovir/emtricitabine)
HAART: regimen #2
ritonavir boosted PI plus two NRTIs

(atazanavir plus ritonavir tenofovir/emtricitabine or darunavir plus ritonavir tenofovir/emtricitabine)
HAART: regimen #3
INSTI plus two NRTIs

(raltegravir plus tenofovir/emtricitabine)
preferred antiretroviral regimen for pregnant women
lopinavir/ritonavir plus zidovudine/lamivudine
HAART: __is the essential parameter in decisions to start or modify the drug regimen
HIV RNA viral load testing
key factor for deciding whether to initiate antiretroviral therapy and chemoprophylaxis for OIs
CD4+ cell count
HIV: strongest predictor of subsequent disease progression and survival
CD4+ cell count
treatment of acute HIV infection is considered __at this time
optional
resistance testing is of greatest value when performed before or within __
4 weeks after drugs are discontinued
NRTI stands for?
NucleoSide Inhibitors of Viral Reverse Transcriptase
clas effect ADR of NRTI
rare cases of lactic acidosis with hepatic steatosis
ADRs of zidovudine
myelosuppression, neutropenia, severe anemia
ADRs of didanosine
-pancreatitis
-class effect: lactic acidosis and severe hepatomegaly with steatosis
-peripheral neuropathy
ADR of lamivudine
peripheral neuropathy
combivir is a combination of what two drugs?
lamivudine plus zidovudine
ADR of abacavir
hypersensitivity reactions

***screen them for HLA-B*5701 before starting this drug