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312 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
APGAR Categories (5)
|
Activity (muscle tone)
Pulse (HR) Grimace (reflex irritability) Appearance (skin color) Respirations |
|
|
Infant pulse
|
100-140 bpm
|
|
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Infant BP
|
65-115 / 42-80
|
|
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Infant Respirations
|
25-50 breaths/min
|
|
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Infant Body Temp
|
99.4-99.7
|
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Neonatal pulse
|
120-160 beats/min
|
|
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Neonatal BP
|
65-85 / 45-55
|
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Neonatal Respirations
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40-60 breaths/min
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Neonatal Body Temp
|
97.6-99
|
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LGA
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90%+ birth weight
|
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SGA
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below 10% birth weight
|
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3 stages of iron deficiency anemia
|
1. low iron stores
2. low blood iron 3. anemia |
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Low bloof iron stores labs
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Low serum ferritin
|
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Low blood iron labs
|
low MCV
low transferrin saturations |
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Anemia labs
|
low Hb/Hct
|
|
|
= Serum iron / TIBC
|
transferrin saturation
|
|
|
Anemia definition of kids 6-24 mos old
|
- Hb less than 11
OR Hct less than 33 |
|
|
Screening for anemia is performed at (2)
|
- 10-12 months
- 18-24 months |
|
|
2nd stage of iron deficiency is associated with
|
small RBCs (low MCV)
|
|
|
2 yr old should have an MCV of?
7 yr old should have an MCV of? |
72
77 |
|
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MCHC < 32
|
Hypochromia
|
|
|
MCV can be low in iron deficiency and _____
|
alpha thalassemia trait
|
|
|
Sickle cell dz screening is done at
|
10-12 months
|
|
|
daily requirement of iron
|
10mg/day
|
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2 mos gross motor
|
holds head up
|
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4 mos gross motor
|
rolls front to back
|
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2 mos fine motor
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swipes at object
|
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4 mos fine motor
|
grasps object
|
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2 mos language
|
coos
|
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4 mos language
|
orients to voice
|
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2 mos social/cognition
|
social smile
|
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4 mos social/cognition
|
laughs
|
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age when prone, lifts head to 90
|
4 mos
|
|
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age of voluntary grasp
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5 mos
|
|
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6 mos gross motor (2)
|
rolls back to front
sits up |
|
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6 mos fine motor
|
transfers object
|
|
|
6 mos language
|
babbles
|
|
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6 mos social/cognition (2)
|
stranger anxiety, sleeps all night
|
|
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9 mos gross motor (2)
|
-crawls
-pulls to stand |
|
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9 mos fine motor (2)
|
- pincer grasp
- eats with fingers |
|
|
9 mos language
|
1st words
|
|
|
9 mos social/cognition (2)
|
-waves bye
-responds to name |
|
|
pat-a-cake occurs at
|
9 mos
|
|
|
12 mos gross motor
|
stands
|
|
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12 mos fine motor
|
mature pincer
|
|
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12 mos language
|
mama and dada (specific)
|
|
|
12 mos social/cognition
|
picture book
|
|
|
separation anxiety occurs at
|
12 mos
|
|
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2 cube tower occurs at
|
13 mos
|
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15 mos gross motor
|
walks
|
|
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15 mos fine motor
|
uses cup
|
|
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15 mos language
|
4-6 words
|
|
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15 mos social/cognition
|
temper tantrum
|
|
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1 step commands occurs at
|
15 mos
|
|
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18 mos gross motor (2)
|
- throws ball
- walks upstairs |
|
|
18 mos fine motor
|
use spoon
|
|
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18 mos social/cognition
|
start toilet training
|
|
|
2 yrs gross motor
|
- runs
- up/down stairs |
|
|
2 yrs fine motor
|
uses spoon for semi-solids
|
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2 yrs language
|
2 word sentence
|
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2 yr cognition/social
|
follows a 2 step command
|
|
|
6 cube tower at
|
2 yrs
|
|
|
3 yrs gross motor
|
rides tricycle
|
|
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3 yrs fine motor
|
eats neatly with utensils
|
|
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3 yrs language
|
3 word sentence
|
|
|
3 yrs social/cognition
|
knows first and last name
|
|
|
ties shoelace at
|
5 yrs
|
|
|
Myelination starts occuring at ___ gestation
|
30 wk
|
|
|
cerebellar white matter aquires myelin at ______
|
1-3 mos
|
|
|
newborn's weight decreases by ____ in 1st wk due to excess extravascular fluid and limited nutrition
|
10%
|
|
|
infants regain birthweight by ___
|
2 wks
|
|
|
normal growth for 1st month is ___ (fastest postnatal growth)
|
30g
1 oz/day |
|
|
In first month, sleep is in blocks of ____
|
5-6 hrs
|
|
|
at ____ babies need the most sleep and then it slowly tapers
|
1 wk
|
|
|
Between 3-4 mos of age the growth slows to
|
20g/month
|
|
|
By ____, birth weight is doubled
|
4 mos
|
|
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By age ____, everything goes in the mouth
|
6 mos
|
|
|
object permanence occurs at
|
9mos
|
|
|
pivot while sitting at
|
9 mos
|
|
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By ____, birth weight has tripled
|
12 mos
|
|
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by 12 mos, length has increased by ____
|
50%
|
|
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At ___, poor weight gain is normal b/c kid is getting more independent and doesn't pay attn to eating
|
9 mos
|
|
|
Height reaches 2x birth length by ____
|
3-4 yrs
|
|
|
Newborns feed on demand every ____
|
1-2 hrs
|
|
|
______ fed infants take longer to regain weight
|
breastfed
|
|
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Add iron fortified cereals by ____
|
4-6 mos
|
|
|
At _____ add whole-fat cow milk
|
1 yr
|
|
|
At ____ change from whole milk to skim
|
2 yrs
|
|
|
Syndrome of recurrent irritability that persists for several hrs, usually in late afternoon or evening
|
Colic
|
|
|
Sx = kid draws knees to abdomen and cries inconsolably
|
Colic
|
|
|
Rec to just breastfeed for
|
6 mos
|
|
|
Breastfed babies have lower incidence of: (7)
|
- Infection
- Otitis media - Pneumo - Sepsis - Meningitis - Allergy - Colic |
|
|
Day 2-4 after having a baby, milk supply dominated yb
|
lactogenesis
|
|
|
Day 6 and on, with breastfeeding
|
breasts should feel empty after feeding
|
|
|
Breast milk contains (10)
|
- IgA - TGF
- Macrophages - Nerve growth factor - PAF - Glutathione peroxidase - Lactoferrin - K-casein - Cytokines - Oligosaccharides |
|
|
Protein in breast milk that
- increases the availability of iron - has inhibitory effect on e coli |
Lactoferrin
|
|
|
Antiadhesive protein in breast milk
|
K-casein
|
|
|
In breast milk, prevents bacterial attachment
|
Oligosaccharides
|
|
|
Breast feed babies need ___ supplement
|
Oral Vit D
|
|
|
Mom contraindications for breastfeeding (13)
|
- HIV - TB - Drugs - Antithyroid meds - Lithium - Isoniazid - Chemo - VZV - HSV - CMV -Hep C - Alcohol - Smoke
|
|
|
Baby contraindication for breastfeeding
|
Galactosemia
|
|
|
In first 3 mos, bottle feeds should be ____
|
25-30g/day = 140-200 mL/kg/day
|
|
|
4-6 mos = add foods but stay on formula/breast feed until
|
1 yr
|
|
|
_____ fed infants are at risk for excessive weight gain
|
bottle
|
|
|
Failure to thrive = persistent weight below ___ OR ____
|
- 3rd%
- falling off a previously established growth curve |
|
|
Failure to thrive is associated with _____
|
developmental delay
|
|
|
BMI over ____ = overweight
|
95%
|
|
|
Metabolic syndrome combo (4)
|
- Obesity
- HTN - Insulin resistance - Dyslipidemia |
|
|
breastfeeding ______ commonly due to insufficient fluid intake, dehydration and hypernatremia
|
jaundice
|
|
|
HBV is a _____ vaccine
|
monovalent
|
|
|
HBV is given at (3)
|
- birth
- 2 mos - 6mos |
|
|
DTaP is given at (5)
|
- 2 mos
- 4 mos - 6 mos - 15-18 mos - 4-6 yrs |
|
|
DTaP components
|
- diphtheria and tetanus are toxoids
- pertussis is acellular |
|
|
Hib is given at (4)
|
- 2 mos
- 4 mos - 6 mos - 12-15 mos |
|
|
PCV is given at (4)
|
- 2 mos
- 4 mos - 6 mos - 12-18 mos (booster) |
|
|
IPV is given at (4)
|
- 2 mos
- 4 mos - 6 mos - 4-6 yrs |
|
|
MMR is given at (2)
|
- 12-15 mos
- 4-6 yrs |
|
|
MMR is
|
live virus
|
|
|
Varicella (Varivax vaccine) is given at (2)
|
- 12-15 mos
- 4-6 yrs |
|
|
Influenza minimum age
|
6 mos
|
|
|
HAV recommended for kids older than
|
1 yr
|
|
|
Meningococcal vaccine (MSV4) recommended for kids aged ____ and all college students who will live in dorms
|
11-12
|
|
|
HPV 3 doses
|
- 1st
- 2 mos later - 6 mos after 1st |
|
|
Rotavirus is given at (3)
|
- 2 mos
- 4 mos - 6 mos (note: 1st dose should not be given after 12 mos) |
|
|
A pentavalent, live virus vaccine
|
Rotavirus
|
|
|
SubQ vaccines (5)
|
- IPV
- Varicella - MMR - PCV - MPSV4 |
|
|
Intranasal vaccine
|
flumist
|
|
|
Oral vaccine
|
OPV/Rotateq
|
|
|
High risk groups who receive the pneumococcal vaccine (4)
|
- sickle cell
- asplenia - chronic dz - HIV/immunosuppression |
|
|
give HBV vaccine at birth within first 12 hrs if mom is ____
|
HbSAg +
(may give later if mom is negative) |
|
|
MPSV4 is given to all kids age 2-10 yrs with (3)
|
- terminal complement deficiencies
- asplenia - other risk factors |
|
|
HPV vaccine protects against (4)
|
6, 11, 16, 18
|
|
|
Pediarix is combo of (3)
|
- IPV
- DTaP - HepB |
|
|
Pediatrix is given at (3)
(DTap, IPV, HepB) |
- 2 mos
- 4 mos - 6 mos |
|
|
Comvax vaccine given at (4)
(HiB and HBV) --> results in 4 doses of HBV = okay |
- 2 mos
- 4 mos - 12-15 mos |
|
|
Pentacel vaccine comprised of (3)
|
DTaP, IPV, Hib
|
|
|
Proquad is combo of MMR and VVX and is given
|
at 4 yrs only
|
|
|
3 vaccines NOT given after 6 yrs
|
- DTaP
- Prevnar - Hib |
|
|
Stage 3 = ___% of girls have menarche
|
30%
|
|
|
Stage 4 = ___% of girls have menarche
|
95%
|
|
|
menarche occurs ___ after growth spurt starts
|
1 yr
|
|
|
Male avg age of puberty
|
11.5 yrs
|
|
|
Lower testis in male
|
left
|
|
|
F avg age of puberty
|
10.5
|
|
|
= breast bud onset
|
thelarche
|
|
|
Tanner stage, lengthened penis
|
3
|
|
|
Tanner stage, thicker penis, darker scrotum
|
4
|
|
|
tanner stage, projection of areola to form secondary projection
|
4
|
|
|
tanner stage, elevation of breast and areola
|
3
|
|
|
HEADDSSS
|
Home
Education/Employment Activities Drugs Diet Safety Sex Suicide |
|
|
Neonatal mortality is classified as between birth and ____
|
28 days
|
|
|
APGAR at 1 minute reflects
|
intrauterine environment and the birth process
|
|
|
APGAR at 5 mins is indicative of
|
neonate's success at transitioning
|
|
|
APGAR of 0-3 indicates (3)
|
cardiorespiratory arrest due to metabolic acidosis, CNS depression or hypoventilation
|
|
|
traumatic subperiosteal hemorrhage that goes away in weeks that does not cross suture lines
|
cephalohematoma
|
|
|
diffuse, edematous, dark swelling of soft tissue of the scalp that crosses suture lines and resolves in a couple of days
|
caput succedaneum
|
|
|
More common fractures clavicle - gets entrapped under pubic symphysis
|
R clavicle
|
|
|
key to detecting clavicle fracture
|
crepitus
|
|
|
aka waiter's tip
|
erb palsy
|
|
|
From excessive traction of the neck - injures nerves C5 and C6
|
Erb's Palsy
|
|
|
Signs = absent moro, positive hand grasp
|
Erb Palsy
|
|
|
Low birthweight defined as less than ____
|
2500 g
|
|
|
Very low birth weight defined as less than
|
1500g
|
|
|
Post mature baby defined as greater than
|
42 wks
|
|
|
post gestation babies are at increased risk for
|
meconium aspiration
|
|
|
Small for gestational age is defined as body weight below
|
10%
|
|
|
Early onset SGA is due to IUGR before
|
28 wks
|
|
|
IUGR after ____ has normal head circumference but decrease length and weight
|
28 wks
|
|
|
LGA defined as ___ or __
|
weight > 90%
weight > 2 STD above mean |
|
|
macrosomic = babies greater than
|
4,000 g
|
|
|
polyhydramnios is too much amniotic fluid and is defined as ___ or more
|
2L
|
|
|
Oligohydramnios + clubbed feet + compressed facies + pulmonary hypoplasia
|
Potter's syndrome
|
|
|
Late onset infant sepsis defined as after
|
3 days
|
|
|
Causes of osteomyelitis in the newborn (2)
|
1. GBS
2. S aureus |
|
|
Causes of Arthritis in the newborn (4)
|
N Gonn
S aureus Candida Gram - |
|
|
Bulging fontanelle is a sign of
|
sepsis
|
|
|
Infants with chlamydia - tx eyes eye with topical ____ to stop gonococcal ophthalmia
|
erythromycin
|
|
|
Blueberry muffin rash and hearing loss associated with
|
rubella
|
|
|
#1 congenital infection
|
CMV
|
|
|
Syphillis transmission during the 1st trimester is __
|
100%
|
|
|
Snuffles, saddle nose, osteochondritis, hutchinson teeth and anterior bowing of tibia all characteristic of
|
syphilis
|
|
|
common skin rash - yellow white pustules surrounded by red base
|
erythema toxicum
|
|
|
diaper rash tx
|
baking soda in bathwater to neutralize acidity of urine
|
|
|
used to prevent diaper rash
|
zinc oxide
|
|
|
aka infant acne
|
infantile pustulosis
|
|
|
infantile pustulosis (infantile acne) is secondary to ____
|
mom hormones
|
|
|
infant rash due to sebaceous gland problem
|
seborrhea
|
|
|
seborrhea on the nose
|
milia
|
|
|
seborrhea on the scalp =
|
cradle cap
|
|
|
seborrhea on the roof of the hard palate =
|
epsteins pearl
|
|
|
infant rash that causes hypopigmentation in blacks
|
seborrhea
|
|
|
erythematous, scaling, greasy rash of newborn
|
seborrhea
|
|
|
seborrhea tx
|
mild soap (NOT corticosteroid)
|
|
|
light brown pigment lesions with ragged borders (if more than 5, think NF)
|
cafe au lait
|
|
|
aka stork bit
|
salmon patch
|
|
|
= melanocytes that have stopped migration from neural crest to epidermis
|
Mongolian spot
|
|
|
localized impetigo = tx with
|
ABX ointment = mupirocin
|
|
|
systemic impetigo = tx wtih
|
erythromycin
|
|
|
F 10-35 yrs
Herald patch + salmon colored macules --> xmas tree pattern pruritis viral exanthema |
Pityriasis Roscea
|
|
|
Tx = steroid, uvb light, dapsone, acyclovir
|
Pityriasis Roscea
|
|
|
= melanocytes that are present at birth and disappear in exposed areas
self limiting |
Vitiligo
|
|
|
Associated with alz, and dec vit d
Reversible unless follicular destruction |
alopecia
|
|
|
Atopic dermatitis associated with IgE
|
Eczema
|
|
|
contact dermatitis =
|
allergic dermatitis
|
|
|
contact dermatitis = type ___ hypersensititvity
|
4
|
|
|
T cell hypersensitivity
|
Contact dermatitis
|
|
|
Pruritic, allergic rxn - change shape fast
|
Urticaria
|
|
|
Dx of tinea corpora
|
wood's lamp
|
|
|
- papulosquamous, red, scaly
- annular lesion with central clearing and papules along the border |
tinea corpora
|
|
|
- dome shaped, fleshy lesion
- pox virus |
molluscum contagiosum
|
|
|
- Paramyxovirus
- Koplik spots - Cough, coryza, conjunctivitis |
Measles - Rubeola
|
|
|
- Togavirus
- Suboccipital lymphadenopathy - Rash on face then generalizes |
Rubella
|
|
|
HHV6
- high fever then rash |
Roseola
|
|
|
_____ = rash that is very dangerous in sickle cell pts b/c can cause aplastic crisis
|
erythema infectiosum
|
|
|
Family and personal hx can detect _____% of conditions that might adversly affect safe participation
|
64-78%
|
|
|
3 contraindications to participating in sports
|
1. CVD
2. diarrhea 3. fever |
|
|
Jaundice = BR >
|
5 mg/dL
|
|
|
Physiologic newborn jaundice due to high bili production and deficiency in _____ in immature liver
|
glucoronly transferase
|
|
|
____ hyperbilir is always pathologic
|
conjugated
|
|
|
associated with conjugated hyperbili (7)
|
- sepsis
- torch - syph - hepatitis - galactosemia - alpha 1 antritrypsin def - dubin johnson |
|
|
Jaundice tx = phototherapy with
|
Blue light (NOT UV)
|
|
|
Br > 25 tx = _____- which directly removes Br from the intravascular space
|
exchange transfusion
|
|
|
MR can happen secondary to kernicterus = bilirubin in
|
basal ganglia and hippocampus
(yellow stain) |
|
|
causes of jaundice within 24 hrs (2)
|
Hemolysis (ABO/Rh incom)
Hereditary spherocytosis |
|
|
Jaundice causes within 48 hrs (3)
|
- Hemolysis
- Infection - Physiologic |
|
|
Causes of jaundice after 48 hrs (5)
|
- infection
- hemolysis - breasst milk - biliary atresia - hepatitis |
|
|
Frequency of jaundice in newborns
|
2/3
|
|
|
Jaundice complications (4)
|
- kernicterus
- hearing loss - gaze palsy - dental dysplasia |
|
|
Newborn Jaundice etiology (2)
|
- Excessive Br formation
- Impaired conjugation |
|
|
Br peaks at ____
|
3-5days
|
|
|
Concern if total serum Br is above the __
|
75%ile
|
|
|
A Br of ___ at 96hrs is in the 95th percentile
|
17mg
|
|
|
Assess jaundiced newborns every
|
8-12 hrs
|
|
|
Gestational age of _____ increases jaundice risk
|
35-36 wks
|
|
|
cephalohematoma, asian race and exclusive breastfeeding all put an infant at risk for
|
jaundice
|
|
|
Minor risk factor for jaundice is gestational age of
|
37-38 wks
|
|
|
Cremer study found that exposure of premature infants to ____ results in fall of Br
|
sunlight
|
|
|
Prolonged jaundice =
> ___ days in term infant > ____ days in preterm infant |
14 days term
21 days preterm |
|
|
Etiologies of prolonged jaundice (7)
|
- breast milk
- hypothyroidism - galactosemia - G6PD def - UTI - Gilbert syndrome - Crigler-Najar |
|
|
Causes of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia (5)
|
- Biliary atresia
- Choledochal cyst - Neonatal hepatitis - metabolic --> galactosemia, fructose intolerance - complications of TPN |
|
|
Pathogens of otitis media (4)
|
- S pneumo
- H infl - Moraxella - S pyrogenes |
|
|
complication of otitis media
- infection penetrates the tip of the mastoid and pus travels along SCM --> abcess in posterior triangle |
Bezolds abscess
|
|
|
Otitis media abscess complication that displaces the ear
|
Postauricular abscess
|
|
|
= fluid behind TM but no evidence of inflm
|
Otitis media with effusion
|
|
|
= gray TM, translucent, no fever, no ear pain
|
otitis media with effusion
|
|
|
Otitis media with effusion tx if it lasts longer than 3 months
|
T tube
|
|
|
topical tx of chronic otitis media
|
quinolone
|
|
|
2 sinuses that are not present at birth and develop later (2)
|
- Sphenoid
- Frontal |
|
|
Allergic rhinitis type of hypersensitivity
|
1
|
|
|
Associated with boggy, bluish nasal mucosa and inc IgE
|
Allergic rhinitis
|
|
|
tx of allergic rhinitis
|
H1 blocker
|
|
|
Food intolerance = undesirable ______ rxn
|
non-immunologic
|
|
|
___% of all food allergies present during 1st yr of life
|
80%
|
|
|
1/3 of those with a food allergy also have ______
|
atopic dermatitis
|
|
|
10% of those with ____ have a food allergy
|
asthma
|
|
|
Food allergy dx gold std
|
double blind placebo & food challenge
|
|
|
= quantitative measurement of food specific IgE Ab
|
Virto RAST - CAP RAST
|
|
|
Outgrown allergies (4)
|
- cow milk
- soy - egg - wheat |
|
|
Protective vs food allergies in first 6 mos
|
breast feeding
|
|
|
inspiratory obstruction = _____ airway problem
|
upper
|
|
|
expiratory obstruction = ______ airway problem
|
lower
|
|
|
Obstructive sleep apnea can lead to this lung problem
|
cor pulmonale
|
|
|
Lower airway obstructive dz (3)
|
- wheezing
- asthma - CF |
|
|
More than 50% of asthma pts are less than ____ yrs
|
6 yrs
|
|
|
3 characteristics of asthma
|
- reversible airway obstruction
- inflammation - bronchial hyper-responsiveness |
|
|
Hospitilization due to __ infection incs the risk of asthma
|
RSV
|
|
|
Pts with persistant asthma should have ____ done yearly
|
PFTs
|
|
|
Most effective for chronic asthma
|
inhaled steroids (beclomethasone)
|
|
|
Asthma tx --> reduces smooth muscle ctx
|
Levalbuterol
B2 agonist |
|
|
Leukotriene receptor agonists good in younger pts with short acting asthma (2)
|
- Monteleukast
- Zafirleukast |
|
|
TOC for acute asthma
|
inhaled bronchodilator
|
|
|
TOC for symptoms control and avoiding exacerbations of asthma
|
corticosteroid inhaled
|
|
|
_____ in any pediatric pt warrants CF testing
|
Nasal polyps
|
|
|
Common presentation in newborn of CF
|
meconium ileus
|
|
|
CF dx = sweat chloride test greater than ___
|
60
|
|
|
Abx tx of choice in asthma
|
tobramycin
|
|
|
restrictive lung dz's due to decreased _____ of chest wall or lung
|
compliance
|
|
|
Restrictive lung dz's (4)
|
- Pectus excavatum/carinatum
- scolosis - obesity - NM dz (guillain barree, MD) |
|
|
Apnea of infancy = cessation of breathing > ___ seconds
OR pauses associated with color changes, hypotonia, dec responsiveness, bradycardia |
20
|
|
|
- From RSV
- Fever --> cough + wheezing + tachypnea + nasal flushing |
Bronchiolitis
|
|
|
- Parainfluenza virus
- Fall-winter - 3 mos to 3 yrs - steeple sign - barking cough + inspiratory stridor |
Croup
|
|
|
1st stage of pertussis = cough, rhinorrhea, wheeze
|
Catarrhal stage
|
|
|
2nd stage of pertussis = whoops cough
|
Paroxysmal
|
|
|
3rd stage of pertussis = persistant chronic cough
|
convales
|
|
|
Pertussis tx
|
macrolide
|
|
|
Innocent heart murmur of infancy due to
|
peripheral pulmonary stenosis
|
|
|
Innoncent heart murmur age 3-6yrs due to BF across aortic valve
Does not radiate to carotids Musical sound |
Still's murmur
|
|
|
Innocent heart murmur of 3-6 yrs
Continuous, turbulent flow at jx of innominate vein drainage into SVC |
venous hum
|
|
|
pulm flow murmur of 8-14 yrs
= normal turbulence across ___ and ___ |
Pulmonary valve and R ventricle
|
|
|
Acyanotic murmur heard at the L sternal border
|
VSD
|
|
|
Acyanotic mumur
wide pulse pressure |
PDA
|
|
|
Systolic murmur that radiates to the axilla and back
|
Coarctation of aorta
|
|
|
Cyanotic heart problem
Single S2 without murmur |
transposition of great arteries
|
|
|
egg shaped on CXR
|
transposition of great arteries
|
|
|
heart problem associated with wide mediastinum
VSD always present |
truncus arteriosus
|
|
|
Single S2, no murmurs
pulm veins not connected to LA |
total anomalous pulmonary venous return
|
|
|
= no BF through left side of heart --> most common cause of death from CHD
|
Hypoplastic L heart
|
|
|
R--> L shunt probs that cause central cyanosis --> dec pulm BF --> CHD (9)
|
- Hyaline membrane dz
- Meconium aspiration - Pneumo - CNS dz - Polycythemia - MetHb - Sepsis - Shock - Hypoglycemia |
|
|
#1 cause of pediatric abdominal pain
|
constipation
|
|
|
vomiting is progressive in ________ b/c of elongation, hypertrophy and pylorospasm
|
pyloric stenosis
|
|
|
SMA syndrome = compression of _____ by SMA and aorta --> vomit when supine
|
duodenum
|
|
|
vomit in AM --> inc ICP -->
|
tumor or pseudotumor cerebri
|
|
|
Emesis + seizure can indicate ____
|
inc ICP
|
|
|
GI problem that causes hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
|
pyloric stenosis
|
|
|
GI problem that causes nonbilious vomit
and palpable olive sized mass |
pyloric stenosis
|
|
|
less than 1 month
bilious emesis that can be blood stained --> abd distension |
Volvulus
|
|
|
= Diarrhea + emesis + fever
|
Gastroenteritis
|
|
|
Bilious emesis + abdominal pain =
|
intenstinal obstruction
|
|
|
Hyperactive bowel sounds =
|
gastroenteritis
|
|
|
Emesis + vaginal discharge =
|
PID
|
|
|
= small bowel inflm
|
enteritis
|
|
|
= lg bowel inflm
|
colitis
|
