Pathophysiology Final

Front 1

A FLAT circumscribed area less than 1 cm (0.4in) in diameter is a

Back 1

Macule

Front 2

An ELEVATED circumscribed area less than 1 cm (0.4 in) in diameter is a :

Back 2

Papule

Front 3

Irregularly shaped macule greater than 1 cm in diamter

Back 3

Patch

Front 4

Elevated, IRREGULAR shaped cutaneous edema (fluid inside) with variable diameter

Back 4

WHEAL (allergy related, therefore may be itchy)

Front 5

Elevated rough with flat top surface greater than 1 cm in diameter

Back 5

PLAQUE

Front 6

Elevated, FIRM, circumscribed 1-2 cm in diameter

Back 6

Nodule

Front 7

-ule: " ____"

Back 7

small

Front 8

Elevated, SOLID, clearly demarcated, GREATER than 2 cm

Back 8

TUMOR

Front 9

Elevated, FLUID FILLED, less than 1 cm in diameter

Back 9

Vesicle (Chicken Pox)

Front 10

Vesicle greater than 1 cm in diameter

Back 10

BULLA

Front 11

Elevated, pus-filled

Back 11

Pustule

Front 12

Elevated, ENCAPSULATED, filled with liquid or semisolid material

Back 12

Cyst (can be totally removed b/c it is well bordered with a wall structure Vs a pustule)

Front 13

Fine, IRREGULAR RED LINES produced by capillary dilation

Back 13

Telangiectasia

Front 14

Loss of epidermis due to scratching or scabies (transmitted via mites)

Back 14

Excoriation

Front 15

Rough thickened epidermis secondary to persistent irritation

Back 15

Lichenification "Like in if ication"

Front 16

Fibrous tissue that replaces normal skin following injury or surgery

Back 16

scar

Front 17

Linear crack or break form epidermis to dermis

Back 17

Fissure (feet, lips, anus "anal fissure" common in ppl with constipation/ dry stools, hands)

Front 18

Loss of part of epidermis following rupture of a vesicle or bulla

Back 18

EROSION

Front 19

Loss of epidermis and dermis, possibly even hypodermis

Back 19

ULCER

Front 20

Thinning of skin surface and loss of skin markings

Back 20

Atrophy

Front 21

Elevated, irregularly shaped progressively enlarging scar

Back 21

Keloid

Front 22

Very severe itching; carried by specific unmyelinated (neuro conduction is slow therefore itching sensation is little by little) nerve fibers and is triggered by a number of itch mediators

Back 22

Pruritus

Front 23

Pain stimuli at lower intensities can induce _______

Back 23

Itching

Front 24

Type 1 dermatitis is

Back 24

Atopic Dermatitis (immediate hypersensitivity)

Front 25

Which is bigger Plaque or Papule?

Back 25

Plaque

Front 26

Scaly, thick, silvery, elevated lesions, usually on the elbows and knees caused by a high rate of mitosis in the basal layer; shows evidence of dermal and epidermal thickening

Back 26

Psoriasis

Front 27

Scalp, front of knees and back of elbows are common areas for:

Back 27

Psoriasis

Front 28

Butterfly rash over the nose and cheeks is a symptom of:

Back 28

SLE (systemic Lupus Erythematosus)

Front 29

Lupus = " ____"

Back 29

"WOLF" because it causes damage like a wolf bite...

Front 30

Inflammatory autoimmune disease with cutaneous manifestations:

Back 30

Lupus

Front 31

Acne Vulgaris, Diaper Rash, Impetigo, Tinea Capitis, Thrush, Measles and Chicken pox, Molluscum Contagiosum, Scabies, Pediculosis (lice)... are all exmaples of common skin disorders in _____

Back 31

children

Front 32

Macuplopapulo rash in children, starts upper and moves to limbs

Back 32

Measles

Front 33

Vesicular rash in children primarily on the trunk of the body

Back 33

Chicken pox

Front 34

Pediculosis=

Back 34

Lice

Front 35

Bai Bu is a wash for

Back 35

Pediculosis

Front 36

GLOMERULUS, Proximal Convoluted tubule, Loop of Henle, Distal Convoluted tubule, Collecting tubule are the structures of the _________ system of the nephron.

Back 36

Tubular

Front 37

The Afferent Arteriole brings blood into the _______ and the Efferent Arteriole takes blood away.

Back 37

Glomerulus,

Front 38

The Vasa Recta innervate the __________.

Back 38

Tissue of medulla pyramid surrounding the Loop of Henle

Front 39

The Arcuate artery and vein:

Back 39

are the major vein and artery supplying the medulla pyramid

Front 40

Erythropoietin is produced in the ______ for a fetus and the ____ in adults

Back 40

Liver, and Ki

Front 41

What hormone is produced by the Kidney and what is the action?

Back 41

Erythropoietin; stimulates the bone marrow to produce RBC's in response to tissue hypoxia

Front 42

What is the common clinical presentation of Kidney and Bladder Cancers?

Back 42

Painless hematuria

Front 43

What is the most common site (organ) of UTI?

Back 43

BLADDER

Front 44

How is nephritic syndrome different form nephrotic syndrome?

Back 44

NephRITIC Syndrome: Glomerulonephritis: INFLAMMATION of Glomerulus. VS.
NephROTIC Syndrome: Excretion of 3.5 grams + of protein in the urine per day due to glomerular injury

Front 45

Define Renal Insufficiency

Back 45

a decline in renal function to 25%

Front 46

Define Renal Failure

Back 46

More significant loss of F(x) than 25%

Front 47

Define End Stage Renal Failure (ESRF)

Back 47

Less than 10% renal f(x)

Front 48

Define Azotemia

Back 48

Presence of Nitrogen containing substances (urea/ creatine) in the blood

Front 49

Define Uremia

Back 49

azotemia accompanied by systemic symptoms and signs

Front 50

The most commons cause of ARF (acute renal failure) is _______, caused by impaired renal blood flow

Back 50

PRERENAL ARF

Front 51

This type of ARF is characterized by acute tubular necrosis, either postischemic or nephrotoxic

Back 51

INTRARENAL

Front 52

This type of ARF occurs with UTO (urinary tract obstructions) that affect the kidneys bilaterally.

Back 52

POSTrenal

Front 53

What is glomerular nephritis in children preceded by?

Back 53

A throat or skin infection of a group A alpha-hemolytic streptococci

Front 54

Organic causes, maturational lag, genetic factors, sleep patterns, and psychosocial theories are the etiologic theories behind what childhood disorder?

Back 54

ENURESIS

Front 55

Parietal cells secrete _____ which activates Pepsinogen to become Pepsin which digests proteins.

Back 55

HCL

Front 56

What part of the GI tract is the most active in nutrient absorption?

Back 56

JEJUNUM

Front 57

What is the largest internal organ?

Back 57

LIVER

Front 58

What is the Largest Organ of the Body?

Back 58

SKIN

Front 59

Neurogenic disorders, functional or mechanical conditions, low-residue diet, sedentary lifestyle, excessive use of antacids, changes in bowel habits.... are all common mechanisms of:

Back 59

CONSTIPATION

Front 60

Osmotic, Secretory, and Motility ______ are major mechanisms of:

Back 60

DIARRHEA

Front 61

Hematemesis is:

Back 61

vomitting of blood

Front 62

Hematochezia is:

Back 62

bloody stool

Front 63

Melena is:

Back 63

Tarry stool (indicative of upper GI bleeding; blood mixes with acid therefore- tarry)

Front 64

Occult bleeding is

Back 64

escape of blood in such small quantity that it can be detected only by chemical test or by microscopic or spectroscopic examination.

Front 65

What gastric diseases are associated with H. pylori?

Back 65

Stomach Ulcers, Duodenal Ulcers

Front 66

Endocrine cells secrete:

Back 66

Gastrin

Front 67

GERD stands for

Back 67

GastroEsophageal Reflux Disease can cause reflux esophagitis

Front 68

Failure of the chemical processes of digestion is termed

Back 68

Maldgestion

Front 69

Failure of the intestinal muscosa to absorb digested nutrients is termed

Back 69

Malabsorption

Front 70

Ulcerative colitis is one of two forms of _____

Back 70

IBD (irritable bowel disease)

Front 71

Crohn's disease is one of two types of _____

Back 71

IBD

Front 72

Portal Hypertension, Jaundice, Hepatorenal syndrome (at advanced liver failure), Cirrhosis are all manifestations of:

Back 72

LIVER DISORDERS

Front 73

What are the examples of disorders of gastroesophogeal motility?

Back 73

GERD, DYSPHAGIA (difficulty swallowing), ACHALASIA (denervation of smooth muscle in the esophagus and lower esophogeal sphincter)

Front 74

Jaundice is differentiated according to causes, name them.

Back 74

Prehapatic: HEMOLYSIS (RBC destruction); OBSTRUCTIVE (extra/intrahepatic)

Front 75

This Hepatitis virus can be transmitted via food or person to person

Back 75

Hepatitis A

Front 76

This Hepatitis virus is transmitted via blood and body fluids

Back 76

Hepatitis B

Front 77

This Hepatitis is believed to be transmitted only through Blood

Back 77

Hepatitis C

Front 78

This Hepatitis Virus is transmitted via blood and must be CO-INFECTED with Hep B

Back 78

Hepatitis D

Front 79

This Hepatitis virus can be transmitted several ways. It is shed in the feces of infected people/animals (fecal-oral contamination)

Back 79

Hepatitis E

Front 80

The 5 'F's (Female, forty, fat, fertile, and flatus) are risk factors for what pathologies

Back 80

Cholecystitis and cholelithiasis

Front 81

Hirschbrung disease is a congenital disease found in which part of the body?

Back 81

Colon; referring to childhood pathologies

Front 82

What are the examples of congenital impairment of motility in children?

Back 82

cleft lip, cleft palate, and both combined, pyloric stenosis, esophageal atresia (condition in which the esophagus ends in a blind pouch), Tracheaesophageal Fistula (abnormal connection between the two), Congenital Aganglionic Megacolon (failure of the parasympathetic to form intramural ganglian cells in the enteric nerve plexus)

Front 83

What are the example of ACQUIRED impairment of motility in children?

Back 83

Intussusception (telescoping or invagination of one part of the intestine into another.

Front 84

What is the TRIAD of Cystic Fibrosis?

Back 84

PANCREAS, LUNGS, and KIDNEY's are affected. Overproduction of pancreatic enzymes, overproduction of mucus in the lungs, abnormally elevated Na and Cl concentrations in sweat.

Front 85

Hepatolenticular disease is also known as _________ and is characterized by the inability to metabolize Copper. (Autosomal recessive defect)

Back 85

Wilson's Disease

Front 86

In _______ disease the patient loses villous epithelium in the intestinal tract upon consumption of Gluten

Back 86

Celiac's

Front 87

osteoblasts and osteoclasts are responsible for:

Back 87

BONE REMODELING

Front 88

What fracture is the most commonly seen in children?

Back 88

GREENSTICK (incomplete fracture)

Front 89

An ______ fracture is a HIDDEN fracture

Back 89

OCCULT

Front 90

What is a pathologic fracture?

Back 90

Fracture of a diseased bone (osteoporosis)

Front 91

Tear or injury to a muscle or tendon is termed:

Back 91

STRAIN

Front 92

Tear or injury to joint or ligament is termed

Back 92

SPRAIN

Front 93

Complete seperation of a tendon or ligament from its bony attachment site is termed:

Back 93

Avulsion

Front 94

Porous bone or poorly mineralized bone is termed:

Back 94

OSTEOPOROSIS

Front 95

MALACIA:

Back 95

Vit D affecting Calcium

Front 96

Osteomalacia

Back 96

Deficiency of VIT D lowers Calcium absorption therefore softening of bones as they do not calcify

Front 97

Osteo_______ is most often caused by a staphylococcal infection

Back 97

myelitis

Front 98

acute and chronic inflammation, fever, pain and necrotic bone are symptoms of _________

Back 98

osteomyelitis

Front 99

This type of sarcoma is predominant in adolescents and young adults, accounts for 38% of bone tumors, 50% of the cases occur around the knees.

Back 99

Osteosarcoma

Front 100

_________ is characterized by degeneration of synovial tissues, Heberdan nodes/Bouchard nodes, and pain is worse upon activity, while _________ __________ is better with activity and is autoimmune. characterized by ulnar deviation and swan neck

Back 100

Osteoarthritis; rheumatoid arthritis

Front 101

_______ manifests high levels of uric acid in the blood as the bodies metabolism of it is disrupted. This uric acid crystalizes and gets deposited in connective tissues throughout the body. Commonly felt in the big toe.

Back 101

GOUT

Front 102

Increased sensitivity to touch, absence of inflammation, fatigue, and sleep disturbances are "vague" symptoms of this disorder. Diagnosis is based on 11/18 trigger points

Back 102

FIBROMYALGIA

Front 103

Bed rest, trauma, casting or nerve damage cause muscular ______.

Back 103

ATROPHY

Front 104

Insufficient Vit D, Insensitivity to Vit D, Renal wasting of Vit D or the bodies inability to absorb Vit D in the gut can cause:

Back 104

Rickets

Front 105

______ _______ is a static disorder of muscle tone and balance caused by an ischemic insult to the brain; Where, _______ _______ are a PRGRESSIVE and genetic group of disorders that cause degeneration of skeletal muscle fibers causeing symmetrical weakness and wasting of muscle groups.

Back 105

CEREBRAL PALSY; Muscular Dystrophies

Front 106

scaly, thick, silvery, elevated lesions, usually on the scalp, elbows, or knees caused by a high rate of mitosis in the basale layer. Dermal and Epidermal thickening. Epidermal turnover goes from 26-30 days to 3-4.

Back 106

Psoriasis

Front 107

Inflammatory, autoimmune disease, with cutaneous manifestations: butterfly rash over the nose and cheeks

Back 107

SLE (systemic Lupus erythematosus)

Front 108

acne vulgaris, impetigo, tinea capitis, thrush, Molluscum Contagiosum, measles/chicken pox, scabies and pediculosis are:

Back 108

common skin disorders in children

Front 109

Folliculitis, furuncle, carbuncle, cellulitis, and erysipelas are different ______ infections of the skin

Back 109

Bacterial

Front 110

Herpes simplex virus, and herpes zoster are _______ infections of the skin

Back 110

Viral

Front 111

fungi causing superficial skin lesions are called:

Back 111

dermatophytes

Front 112

Fungal infections are called:

Back 112

Mycoses

Front 113

Mycoses caused by dermatophytes are termed:

Back 113

Tinea

Front 114

Tinea: capitis, pedis, corporis, cruris, and unguium; AND Candidiasis are ________ infections

Back 114

FUNGAL

Front 115

A widespread impairment of cellular metabolism resulting from inadequate tissue perfusion due to cardiovascular failure

Back 115

SHOCK

Front 116

Cardiogenic, Neurogenic, Anaphylactic, Hypovolemic, Septic, and Traumatic

Back 116

Different forms of shock according to their cause

Front 117

This type of burn only involves the epidermis without injury to dermis or subcutaneous tissue

Back 117

1st degree burn

Front 118

A ______ degree burn apears as thin-walled, fluid filled blisters, are painful and affect the dermis

Back 118

2nd degree

Front 119

A ______ degree burn results in destruction of the entire epidermis, dermis, and often hypodermis

Back 119

3rd degree

Front 120

What is the most common type of pediatric burn injury?

Back 120

Cigarette burn