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236 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What are the 2 classes of immune defense?
Give examples of each |
Innate (skin, intact mucous membranes, GI tract, stomach acidity,neutrophils, macrophages)
Acquired (vaccinations, exposure) |
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What does sensitized mean?
A) being sensitive to microorganisms B) being completely clean at all times C) being exposed to an antigen D) coating of bacteria with antibodies |
C) being exposed to an antigen
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What are the functions on NK Cells?
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To attack tumor cells, differentiate self from non self
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What is an example of cells not being able to differentiate self from non self?
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Rheumatoid Arthritis and Autoimmune Disorders
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What category do B cells fall under?
What are their functions? |
Humoral Immunity
Func- memory cells, eliminate bacteria, produce and secrete immunoglobulin |
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What are the 5 classes of antibodies?
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IgG, IgD, IgE, IgA, IgM
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Which antibody is found in tears, saliva, respiratory?
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IgA
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Which antibody is found in hypersensitivity?
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IgE
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Antibody IgE is usually associated with which type of cell?
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Mast cells
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Mast cells contain what?
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histamine and leukotrines
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What are T cells important for?
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Directly killing antigens
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Which category do T cells fall under?
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Cell-Mediated Immunity
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What do NK cells do in terms of cancer?
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they go on surveillance to look out for cancerous cells
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What is the purpose of lymph nodes?
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to drain foreign material from lymph fluids
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What organ helps filter blood antigens and helps fight serious infections?
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Spleen
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What is active immunity?
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Disease exposure, Vaccination
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What is passive immunity?
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breast feeding, mom passing antibodies to baby
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How long do antibodies last?
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IgA can be detected in infants 13 days after birth and adult levels are 6-7 years
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What are the 3 main categories of immune disorders?
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Autoimmunity, Hypersensitivity, and Immunodeficiency
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What is an example of Immunodeficiency disease?
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AIDS
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What happens with AIDS?
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Person gets HIV, goes through primary infection, latent period and overt AIDS.
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What are very common opportunistic infections?
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Kaposi's Sarcoma and Pneumocystis Carinii
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How long does it take before somebody knows they are infected with HIV?
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Months
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What is one test used to confirm infection?
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Western Blot
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What is usually going on when someone suspects something is up?
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Recurrent Infections
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What are some ways that HIV and AIDS can be transmitted?
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Sexual Contact, Perinatal routes, Parenteral
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If someone is HIV positive, does that mean they have AIDS?
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No, it means that they have the virus.
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Type 1 Hypersensitivity involves which antibody?
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IgE - releases histamine (inflammatory mediators)
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What are the 2 ways that allergic reactions can be classified?
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Locally and Systemic
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What is an example of local reaction?
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Allergic Rhintis
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What are the symptoms of Allergic Rhinitis and what can be done to treat it?
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Symp: inflammation, runny nose, itchy nose
Treat: Benadryl |
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How does Benadryl work?
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blocks histamine
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What is another Type I Local Reaction?
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Hives
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What can cause Hives?
What can be done to treat Hives? |
Causes: food, poison ivy
Treat: ointment, hydrocortisone |
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How does Hydrocortisone work?
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It is a corticosteriod, therefore it suppresses inflammation.
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What is a systemic reaction?
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Anaphylaxis
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What is the worst that can happen with Anaphylaxis and how?
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Death by suffocation due to low BP, vasodilation and cardiac arrest
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What drug should be used for Anaphylaxis?
Why? |
Epinephrine
It increases HR, causes vasoconstriction and bronchodilation |
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What are common causes of Anaphylaxis?
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Bee stings, Peanuts, Strawberrys
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What is the big thing with Type III Hypersensitivity?
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Formation of antibody-antigen complex and they get stuck in tissue causing inflammation and scarring
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What are some examples of Type III Hypersensitivity?
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Glomerulonephritis and Systemic Lupus Erytheromatosus
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What is happening with Glomerulonephritis?
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It follows a strep infection but not immediately after as it takes a while for antibody (meds) to work.
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What are the symptoms of Glomerulonephritis?
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Effects urine output, cola colored urine, concentrated urine
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Does albumin have color?
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Clear, yellow
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What is an example of Type IV Hypersensitivity?
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Contact Hypersensitivity
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Is Type IV Hypersensitivity Immediate or Delayed?
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Delayed as it takes a while to penetrate
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What are some causes of Type IV Hypersensitivity?
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Various chemicals, tapes, latex, cosmetics
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What are the 2 forms of Allergic Rhinitis?
Give examples of each |
Seasonal (outdoors, pollen)
Perineal (pet dander, indoor allergens, dust mites) |
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Give an example of an Antihistamine.
What does it block? How is it administered? What is a major adverse effect? What do you NOT mix it with? |
ex) Benadryl (Hyphenadramine)
-it blocks histamine -can be administered orally or IV -adverse effects are sedation, confusion (elderly) -don't mix with depressants |
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What do Mast Cell Stabilizers do?
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They block the release chemical mediators
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What are Mast Cell Stabilizers used in?
What are they NOT used in? |
They are used in Allergic Rhinitis and Asthma.
They are NOT used for acute situations as they take weeks to show effects. |
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Give an example of a Med to use with Allergic Rhinitis
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Flonase (inhaled corticosteroid)
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Before using Flonase (inhaled corticosteriod) what might a patient do first?
A) brush their teeth B) gargle their mouth C) drink lots of water D) blow their nose |
D) blow their nose
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How is Atrivant helpful with Allergic Rhinitis?
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It inhibits grandular secretions so it prevents gonorrhea
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If a person knows that they are allergic to wasps, and they are going camping, what should they carry with them?
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Epi-pen
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What is important to know or keep in mind about the Epi-pen?
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How to use it, its side effects, date/discoloration, dirt
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What slows drugs down?
A) Their expiration B) Their different cycles C) How you use it D) Diluting it |
B) Their different cycles
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What do low albumin levels indicate?
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The pulling of interstitial space into capillaries is lowered leading to edema.
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What are the signs and symptoms of Fluid Volume Excess Loss?
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Vomit, Diarrhea, Sweating
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How is inadequate fluid volume shown?
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Slowed Skin Turgor
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What are the signs of Severe Fluid Loss?
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Decreased BP, Increased HR, Increased Urine Output
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What mechanism is built into our body to help maintain fluid balance?
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Thirst Mechanism
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Thirst mechanism maybe disturbed where a person may not be able to recognize it. What do we do with fluid loss in this case?
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Give fluid orally or IV (isotonic saline)
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In fluid volume deficit, what would the hematocrit be?
Why? |
Increased.
Because there is a greater proportion of RBC than the fluid since fluid is lost. |
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In fluid volume excess, what is the hematocrit level?
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Decreased. (increased weight)
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What is the normal way of losing fluids and electrolytes?
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breathing, sweating, urine
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What are the abnormal ways of losing fluids and electrolytes?
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Vomiting and Diarrhea
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What is the normal range for Sodium?
A) 45-60 mEq/L B)160-180 ml/dL C)135-145 ml/dL D) 135-145 mEq/L |
D) 135-145 mEq/L
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What are some causes of Hypnatremia?
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Near drowning in freshwater
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What's happening in Freshwater Drowning?
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Salt follows water, therefore, before drowning, most of the sodium is in the body.
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What are the possible causes of hyponatremia?
What are the signs and symptoms? |
Causes: drinking too much water, tap water enemas
S&S: muscle cramping, seizures, fusion |
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What can be done about hyponatremia?
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Fluid restriction, saline solution (give carefully as it effects brain cells)
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What is Hypernatremia?
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Salt water drowning
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Where is the highest concentration in hypernatremia?
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Lungs
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What are some reasons for Hypernatremia?
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salt tablets, excessive sodium intake, sport drinks, someone who can't tell if they need drinks
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What are the signs and symptoms of Hypernatremia?
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Being thirsty, decreased turgor, slowed reflexes, possible neuro symptoms
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How is swelling caused?
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sodium attracts salt causing swelling
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What would diabetes insipidous lead to?
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body unable to save H2O, therefore, there is water loss and increased sodium.
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What are the normal potassium levels?
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3.5-5 mEq/L
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What can cause Hypokalemia?
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Anorexia, Diarrhea, MPO, Diuretics (lasix, potassium wasting)
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What are the signs and symptoms of Hypokalemia?
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Dysrhythmias, confusion, abdominal swelling
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If eating and drinking is normal, what can be done to help one that's hypokalemic?
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Give potassium chloride, eat a supplement, take K Dorr.
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If a patients potassium level is 2.8, the patient is in the hospital, and can't swallow, what would be prescribed?
Also, what precautions should be taken? |
IV Route
Be cautious: give slowly, diluted, never give bolus, and no IV push, monitor EKG, it may burn. **too much too fast will kill patient*** |
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What is hyperkalemia and its measurements?
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The release of potassium into blood
Measurements: above 5 mEq/L |
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What are some causes of hyperkalemia?
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Crushing Injury, Excessive Oral Ingestion
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What are the signs and symptoms of patients with Renal Failure?
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Nausea, Vomiting, Heart Dysrhythmias
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What medications maybe prescribed to bring potassium levels down?
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Kayexelate (orally or rectally)
Hold breath for 10 mins (retention enema) |
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What can cause Hypocalcemia?
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Chronic Diarrhea, Pancreatitis, Laxative Abuse
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What are the signs and symptoms of Hypocalcemia?
Treatment? |
S&S: Neuromuscular irritability, increased reflexes, parasthesias (pins)
Treatment: Calcium gluconate, calcium chloride |
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What can cause hypercalcemia?
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Hyperparathyroidism, Bone tumors, Overconsumption of Vit D
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What are the signs and symptoms of hypercaclemia?
Treatments? |
nausea, vomiting, decrease in neuromuscular, cardiac dysrhythmia
Treatments: cacitonin (inhibits bone reabsorption) |
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What are the normal measurements for Magnesium?
What are Hypomagnesium measurements? |
NORMAL 1.8-3.0 mg/dL
Hypomagnesium: < 1.8mg/dL |
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What are some possible causes of Hypomagnesmia?
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Malnutrition, Alcoholism
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What are the signs and symptoms of Hypomagnesia?
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Personality Changes, Positive Babinski, Trousseau Signs
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What are the treatments for Hypomagnesia?
What is important to know about the treatment? |
Milk of Magnesia, Magnesium Sulfate
(it results in paralysis of the respiratory muscles) |
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What are the causes, signs and symptoms of Hypermagnesia?
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Causes - Excessive IV administration of magnesium, excessive oral intake and kidney disease
S&S: lethargy, hyperreflexia, coma, drowsiness, confusion, respiratory depression, cardiac dyshythmia |
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What is the treatment of Hypermagnesia?
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cessation of magnesium administration and administration of calcium
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What are some protective mechanisms of the Renal System?
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Washout Phenomenon, Mucin layer of bladder, local immune responses, low pH of urine
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What is a common cause of UTI?
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E. Coli ( due to poor hygiene, anatomical reasons)
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What is urethrovesical reflux?
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Urine from urethra is drawn back into bladder due to increase in intraabdominal pressure from coughing and sneezing
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What is vesicouretral reflex?
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Urine from the bladder moves into the ureters due to defects of the ureter (diameter)
-most common in children |
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UTI in the bladder is called what?
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Cystitis
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What are the signs and symptoms of UTIs?
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Back pain, cloudy and smelly urine, frequent urination, burning and fever
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What are the treatments for UTI?
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Bactrim (Septra), Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole, Nitrofurantoin (Macrbid), Phenazopyradine (Urogesic, Pyridium)
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What are some teachings of the Meds for UTIs?
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Biridium - take all of them, may get a yeast infection, may get diarrhea due to killing of normal flora
Pyridium - may cause staining |
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What is polynephritis?
Acute- Chronic- |
Acute- Inflamed/Infected Kidneys
Chronic- Reoccurring Infections (scars tissues) |
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What are the signs and symptoms of Polynephritis?
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Blank pain, Blood in Urine, Chills, Vomiting
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What is Glomerulonephritis?
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Antigen-Antibody complex that embeds itself in basement membrane.
Inflammation of Glomerular Structures |
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What are the signs and symptoms of Glomerulonephritis?
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Cola-colored urine, protein in urine, decreased urine output, edema of face and hands
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What are the 3 main categories of Acute Renal Failure?
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Pre Renal, Intra Renal and Post Renal
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What are the causes of the 3 categories of Acute Renal Failure?
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Pre - Shock, poor perfusion, trauma
Intra - damage to tissue caused by hypoxia, nephrotoxic drugs Post - obstruction such as kidney stones, tumors, mass, EPA |
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What is Renal Calculi and what are the signs and symptoms?
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Kidney Stones
S&S: back pain (side), blood, nausea, vomiting |
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What are the 4 types of Renal Calculi?
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Calcium, Mangesium Ammonium, Uric Acid and Cystine
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What are some causes of Chronic Renal Failure?
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Diabetes and Hypertension
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What happens to potassium in Chronic Renal Failure?
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May potentially increase
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What happens to elimination of nitrogenous waste?
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It increases (creatine BUN levels)
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Why are people with Chronic Renal Failure typically anemic?
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Because they have a lower ability to produce Erythropoeitin (RBC)
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What are the signs and symptoms of Chronic Renal Failure?
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Hypertension, Nausea, Vomiting
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What are the 3 main Respiratory Disorders that are considered Pulmonary?
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Asthma, Bronchitis, Emphysema (COPD)
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Which COPD is reversible?
Why? |
Asthma
Due to increased secretion and inflammation |
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What are the signs and symptoms of Asthma?
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Increased Respiratory Rate
Increased Heart Rate Anxiety Need for Oxygen |
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What are the signs and symptoms of Chronic Bronchitis?
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Excess mucous
Excess Goblet Cells |
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What happens with Emphysema?
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Structural destruction of Alveoli
Loss of Elasticity |
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What is Atelectasis?
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Alveoli collapses causing lung to collapse due to obstruction in bronchioles (may re expand)
Incomplete expansion of lung/portion of lung |
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How do you keep your patient from Atelectasis?
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Breathing, Air Open, Pulomonary Toilet
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What is Simple Pneumothorax?
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Air in pleural space resulting in lung collapse
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What is Tension Pneumothorax caused by?
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Gun shot wound, Stabbing
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What are the signs and symptoms of Tension Pneumothorax?
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Trachial Deviation, Increased HR, Decreased BP (due to compressed heart)
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What drug should be given to someone having an Acute Asthma Attack?
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Albumin (bronchodilator) fast acting
Beta 1 and 2 Receptors |
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What is the difference between Community Acquired Pneumonia and Hospital Acquired Pneumonia?
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Community - you have disease within 48 hours
Hospital - takes over 48 hours to occur; difficult to treat |
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What can be prescribed for a bad cough, broken blood vessels in the eyes?
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Codeine Opioid, Dextratol - Non opioid
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What can be prescribed for Gunk?
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Mucinex
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What does the pH tell you?
What is the normal pH Range? |
Acidity and Alkalosis
7.35-7.45 |
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What aspect of the blood gas tells us ventilatory status?
What is the Normal? |
pCO2
35-45 mmHg |
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What aspect of the blood gas tells us oxygenation?
What is the Normal? |
PO2
80-100 mmHg |
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What aspect of the blood gas tells us Buffer?
What is the Normal? |
HCO3
22-26 |
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What is an Antigen?
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Any substance not a natural part of an individual. (virus, donated blood)
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What is an Antibody?
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Protein found in blood used to identify and neutralize foreign objects.
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What is Immunity?
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Result of immune response in which person is no longer susceptible.
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If a laboratory result shows increased eosinophils, which type of health problem is most likely?
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Allergic reactions or cell injury caused by parasites.
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The term humoral immunity refers to immune responses that are mediated by:
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Antibodies. (macrophages and T cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity.)
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Which cells mediate hypersensitivity reactions?
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Basophils.
(Mast cells and basophils mediate immediate hypersensitivity reactions.) |
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What is the major stimulus for macrophage activation
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Interferon gamma
(Inerferon gamma, released from the activated CD4+ T cell, is the major stimulus for macrophage activation) macrophages increase production of lysosomes and reactive oxygen |
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To what does the term opsonization refer?
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Coating of bacteria with antibodies
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What is the primary action of most immunosuppressant drugs?
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Suppressing T. lymphocytes
(Immunosuppressants inhibit T lymphocyte synthesis, thus reducing the immune response to organ transplants) |
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Which adverse effects would be expected with administration of azathioprine (Imuran)?
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Leukopenia, Thrombocytopenia, Hepatoxicity.
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The nurse would anticipate administering which medication to renal transplant recipient experiencing acute organ rejection?
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Muromonab-CD3 is an immunosuppressant used to treat acute organ rejection.
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Before administering an immunosuppressant drug, the nurse should assess which laboratory results?
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Neurotoxicity, renal toxicity, and hepatotoxicity. The CBC and platelet count are part of the baseline database.
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Before administering intravenous muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone), the nurse would anticipate giving which drug to prevent cytokine release syndrome?
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Methylprednisolone sodium
Methylprednisolone sodium is administered intravenously 30 minutes before injection of muromonab-CD3 to prevent or minimize acute reactions, including cytokine release syndrome |
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Mast cell stabilizers are most effective in treating bronchoconstriction associated with
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Allergens
(mast cell stabilizers work by preventing the release of chemical mediators that cause bronchospasm. They are most effective in preventing asthma caused by extrinsic factors such as allergens or exercise.) |
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When monitoring for the most common adverse effect of traditional antihistamines, the nurse would assess the patient’s:
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Alertness
The most common adverse effect of antihistamines is sedation |
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Loratadine (Claritin) has an advantage over traditional antihistamines such as diphenhydraine (Benadryl) in that it:
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Sedative effect
Loratadine does nto affect the CNS and therefore is nonsedating. |
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Which condition is not an effect of histamine?
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Bronchodilation. Histamine activation causes constriction of the bronchi, not bronchodilation
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A patient is brought into the emergency department for antihistamine overdose. The nurse anticipates administering which substance?
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Activated charcoal and a cathartic
No specific antidote exists for antihistamine overdose. Treatment to minimize absorption and managing symptoms is done. |
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The nurse plans the administration of prednisone based on knowledge that glucocorticoids
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Should be administered with food to diminish the risk of gastric irritation.
Normal circadian secretion of the adrenal cortex occurs in the early morning, to wake a person up. Thee medications should be tapered off slowly to prevent adrenal crisis. They can be administered IV. |
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Which statement about glucocorticoids is most accurate?
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They influence carbohydrate, lipid, and protein metabolism.
They are produced in increasing amounts during periods of stress, they increase sodium and glucose levels, and they suppress the immune system. |
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A nurse administers an intravenous solution of 0.45% sodium chloride. With respect to human blood cells, to which category of fluids does this solution belong?
A. Isotonic B. Isomeric C. Hypotonic D. Hypertonic |
C. Hypotonic
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Which assessment data should the nurse anticipate when admitting a client with an extracelllar fluid excess?
A. Rapid, thready pulse B. Distended jugular veins C. Elevated hematocrit level D. Increased serum sodium level |
B. Distended jugular veins
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3. The nurse is aware that the body’s adaptation to excessive fluid losses by a client with diarrhea are evident by a decrease in which clinical indicator?
A. Pulse rate B. Skin turgor C. Specific gravity D. Body temperature |
B. Skin turgor
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4. A client complains of vomiting and diarrhea for 3 days. Which assessment most accurately reflects that the client is experiencing a fluid deficit?
A. a change in body weight B. The presence of dry skin C. A decrease in blood pressure D. An altered general appearance |
A. a change in body weight
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A client is admitted with metabolic acidosis. The nurse understands that two body systems interact with the bicarbonate buffer system to preserve the normal body fluid pH. What two body systems should the nurse assess for compensatory changes?
A. Skeletal and nervous systems B. Circulatory and urinary systems C. Respiratory and urinary systems D. Muscular and endocrine systems |
C. Respiratory and urinary systems
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6. The nurse is reviewing a client’s serum electrolytes. Which statement correctly compares blood plasma and interstitial fluid?
A. Both contain the same kinds of ions B. Plasma exerts lower osmotic pressure than does interstitial fluid. C. Plasma contains slightly more of each kind of ion than does interstitial fluid D. The main cation in plasma is sodium. Whereas the main cation in interstitial fluid is potassium. |
A. Both contain the same kinds of ions
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The nurse explains to an obese client that the rapid weight loss experienced during the first week after initiating a diet is because of fluid loss. The weight of extracellular body fluid is approximately 20% of the total body weight of an average individual. The nurse understands that the component of the extracellular fluid contributing the greatest portion to this amount is.
A. Plasma fluid B. Interstitial fluid C. Fluid in dense tissue D. Fluid in body secretions |
B. Interstitial fluid
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The nurse assesses a client’s electrolyte levels. Which electrolyte does intracellular fluid does the nurse identify as the most important?
A. Sodium B. Calcium C. Chloride D. Potassium |
D. Potassium
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The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney failure. The nurse understands that ammonia is normally excreted by the kidney to help maintain:
A. Osmotic pressure of the blood B. Acid-base balance of the body C. Low bacterial levels in the urine D. Normal red blood cell production |
B. Acid-base balance of the body
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Which finding best suggests that nursing interventions for a client with an excess fluid volume have been effective?
A. Clear breath sounds B. Positive pedal pulses C. Normal potassium level D. Increased urine specific gravity |
A. Clear breath sounds
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The nurse understands that a client with albuminuria has edema because of:
A. Fall in tissue hydrostatic pressure B. Rise in plasma hydrostatic pressure C. Rise in tissue colloid osmotic pressure D. Fall in plasma colloid oncotic pressure |
D. Fall in plasma colloid oncotic pressure
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A client is admitted with dehydration as a result of prolonged watery diarrhea. Which intervention ordered by the physician should the nurse question?
A. Parenteral albumin B. Psyllium (Metamucil) C. Potassium supplements D. Half normal saline solutions |
A. Parenteral albumin
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The client with which condition has an increased risk for developing hyperkalemia?
A. Crohn’s disease B. Cushing’s syndrome C. Chronic heart failure D. End stage renal disease |
D. End stage renal disease
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The nurse notes that a client’s serum potassium level is 5.8 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take first?
A. Call the laboratory to repeat the test B. Call the cardiac arrest team to alert them C. Obtain an ECG strip and have lidocaine available D. Take the client’s vital signs and notify the physician |
D. Take the client’s vital signs and notify the physician
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. What clinical indicators should the nurse expect a client with hyperkalemia to exhibit? Check all that apply.
a. tetany b. seizures c. diarrhea d. weakness e. dysrhythmias |
c. diarrhea
d. weakness e. dysrhythmias |
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A client is receiving an IV of 5% dextrose in water. Why may this client develop negative nitrogen balance?
A. Excessive carbohydrate intake B. Lack of protein supplementation C. Insufficient intake of water soluble vitamins D. Increased concentration of electrolytes in cells |
B. Lack of protein supplementation
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An arterial blood gas report indicates the client’s pH is 7.25, Pco2 is 35 mm Hg, and HCO3 is 20 mEq/L. Which disturbance does the nurse identify based on these results?
A. metabolic acidosis B. metabolic alkalosis C. respiratory acidosis D. respiratory alkalosis |
A. metabolic acidosis
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A client’s arterial blood gas repot indicates the pH is 7.52 Pco2 is 32 mm Hg, and HCO3 is 24 mEq/L. What does the nurse identify as a possible cause of these results?
A. airway obstruction B. Inadequate nutrition C. Prolonged gastric suction D. Excessive mechanical ventilation |
D. Excessive mechanical ventilation
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Which clinical indicator leads the nurse to suspect a client has hypokalemia?
A. Edema B. Muscle spasms C. Kussmaul breathing D. Abdominal distention |
D. Abdominal distention
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A client with acute kidney failure complains of nausea, pain in the abdomen, diarrhea and muscular weakness. Also, the nurse notes an irregularity in pulse. Based on this assessment data, the nurse concludes that the client most likely has:
A. Hyperkalemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypouricemia D. Hypercalcemia |
A. Hyperkalemia
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The nurse identifies that teaching about Coumadin (Warfarin) is effective when the client states, “I must not drink:
A. Apple juice B. Grape juice C. orange juice D. cranberry juice |
D. cranberry juice
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Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering in the event of a heparin overdose?
A. Warfarin sodium (Coumadin) B. Protaine sulfate C. Acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) D. Atropine sulfate |
B. Protein sulfate
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What is normal level for plasma protein (albumin)?
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3.4 - 4.7 g/dL
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What lab test would you run for UTI?
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Gram stain, urine culture & pyuria
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Gas exchange takes place within the lungs and involves the exchange of O2 and CO2 between air in
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alveoli and the blood in the pulmonary capillaries
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T and B lymphocytes are generated from hematopoietic stem cells in the
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bone marrow
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One class of lymphocytes that is essential for humoral immunity which produce antibodies
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B lymphocytes (B cells)
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A _______ response occurs when the antigen is first introduced into the body:
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primary immune response
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____ is involved in inflammation, allergic responses, and combating parasitic infections.
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IgE
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What are the two types of acquired immunity?
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humoral & cell mediated immunity
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______ is the most abundant (80%) of the circumlating immunoglobulins and protects against bacteria, toxins and viruses in body fluids and crosses the placenta and transfer immunity from mother to fetus. Example: person bit by venomous snake what would neutralize it
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IgG
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___________ immunity is acquired through immunization or actually having a disease
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Active immunity
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An infant receives ________ immunity naturally from the transfer of antibodies from its mother and through breast milk.
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Passive immunity
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What immunoglobulin’s play a role in the first year of an infants life?
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IgG, IgM & IgA
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Why do the elderly have a decreased immune response?
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Decrease in the size of the thymus gland and decrease in number of lymphocytes and slight decrease in the proportion of T cells to other lymphocytes and decrease in CD4+ and CD8+ cells.
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_____ immunodeficiency disorder are congenital or inherited abnormalities of immune function that render a person susceptible to diseases normally prevent by an intact immune system.
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Primary
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The point at which an infected person converts from being negative for the presence of HIV antibodies in the blood to being positive is called:
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seroconversion
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HIV infection is diagnosed using the _____ or _______, both of which are antibody detection tests.
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EIA and Western blot assay
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Three phases of HIV infection
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Primary infection, Latent Period & Overt AIDS
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Which stage of HIV infection would the person have monomucleosis, fever, fatigue, myalgias, sore throat
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primary
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Which stage of HIV infection would the person have no signs or symptoms
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latent period which is about 10 years
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Which stage of HIV infection would the person have CD4+ cell count of less than 200 cells/uL or an AIDS defining illness:
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Overt AIDS
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In the United States, the most common opportunistic infection presenting manifestation of AIDS during the first decade of the epidemic was
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pneumocystis carinii
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One of the first opportunistic cancers associated with AIDS and still most frequent malignancy related to HIV infection (cancerous lesions of the skin
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Kaposi Sarcoma
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Type I hypersensitivity (IgE) reactions may occur merely annoying like seasonal rhinitis or severly debilitating (asthma) or systemic and life threatening as
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anaphylaxis
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Anaphylaxis is:
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widespread edema, vascular shock secondary to vasodilation and difficulty breathing.
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Three types of Type II Hypersensitivity Antibody mediated mechanisms:
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complement and antibody mediated cell destruction…Complement and antibody mediated inflammation…antibody mediated cellular dysfunction
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Type III reactions are responsible for the vasculitis seen in certain autoimmune disease such as:
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SLE (lupus) or kidney damage as seen with acute glomerulonephritis.
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The most common type of allergy reaction to latex gloves is a contact dermatitis caused by
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type IV, delayed type hypersensitivity reaction to rubber.
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An example of an autoimmune disease is all the following except?
Lupus Rheumatoid Arthritis Multiple Sclerosis Graves disease Fibromyalgia |
Fibromyalgia
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What are normal levels of sodium?
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135-145 mEq/L
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If sodium level was less than 135 mEq/L then the patient would have:
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Hyponatremia
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What are normal levels of Potassium?
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3.5-5.0 mEq/L
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If patient has potassium level of 5.5 then they would have:
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Hyperkalemia
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What are normal levels of Calcium?
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8.0-10.5 mg/dL
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If patient had calcium level of 7.0 mg/dL they would have:
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Hypocalcemia
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What are normal levels of Magnesium:
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1.8-3.0 mg/dL
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What is the main organ that magnesium works with?
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Kidneys
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___________ are ideal places for thrombi to lodge due to extensive network of arteries and capillaries.
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Lungs
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Thrombus is a ____________.
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Blood Clot
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What test allows visualization of entire lung tissue?
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Spiral CT
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Most pulmonary embolus arise from blood clots in the _______
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Deep veins of the legs.
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Lethal pulmonary embolus commonly orginate from __________ or ___________ veins.
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Femoral and iliac
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Thrombi can dislodge spontaneously, by jarring-sudden standing, rate of blood flow or ________
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Valsalva maneuver.
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SA node sends off impulse and the ___________ is the junction
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AV Node
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What test would you run if you wanted to detect the adequacy of pulmonary circulation?
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V-Q scan.
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Which of the following is the primary sit of activity for the drug warfarin.
A. Kidney B. Liver C. Blood D. Heart |
C. Blood
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Potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect upon the _____ found in the kidney.
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Distal convoluted tubule.
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Normal values for pCO2 are considered:
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35-45 mmHg
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Normal values for HCO2 are considered:
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22-36 mEq/L
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Which of the following is bronchodilator?
Guaifenesin Theophylline Acetylcysteine Epinephrine |
Theophylline
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Normal range of PO2 is:
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80-100 mm Hg
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Which immoglobulin is the most responsible for promoting allergic reactions:
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IgE
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Which immuglobins is located on the surface of most B lymphocytes:
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IgD
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Which immuglobins does not cross the barrier between mother & infant in the womb:
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IgA
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Which of the following is NOT an autoimmune disease?
Graves disease Myathesia gravis Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus Alzeimers disease |
Alzeimers disease
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Which immuglobulins binds complement?
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IgG
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Which of the following is NOT an underlying cause of hypercalcemia.
A. Pagets disease B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Hartnup disease D. Sarcoidosis |
C. Hartnup disease
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What is the antidote for Heparin:
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Protamine
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All the following are third-spacing of fluids except:
A. Pleural effusion B. Pericardia effusion C. Ascites D. Extracellular fluid |
D. Extracellular fluid
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