Pathology Ii - Second Exam

Front 1

what is the predominant pathological change of the heart associated with Pressure-Volume overload?

Back 1

hypertrophy

Front 2

which types of pathological changes to the heart are reversible?

Back 2

atrophy and hypertrophy

Front 3

what is the end-stage of a necrotic lesion in the heart?

Back 3

fibrosis

Front 4

what are the two major types of fatty changes to the heart? Comment on their severity.

Back 4

1. fatty infiltration - harmless
2. fatty degeneration - damaging

Front 5

where in the heart does fatty degeneration usually occur?

Back 5

- vacuolar degeneration in myocytes, where protein is replaced by fat

Front 6

why does a necrotic lesion in the heart lead to fibrosis?

Back 6

because phagocytes clean up the necrotic debris and since the muscle tissue cannot regenerate, it is replaced by fibrotic tissue

Front 7

why can a seemingly small and insignificant lesion of the heart cause sudden death?

Back 7

because an ectopic electrical current can lead to fibrillation --> hypoxia --> death

Front 8

in the heart, how long after an insult (such as an infarction) will morphologic lesions be grossly evident?

Back 8

2-4 hours

Front 9

what is the basic cause of heart failure?

Back 9

inadequate movement of blood (recall the Frank-Starling principle)

Front 10

pooling of blood in the lungs is indicative of heart failure on which side?

Back 10

left

Front 11

pooling of blood in the liver is indicative of heart failure on which side?

Back 11

right

Front 12

in left-sided heart failure, where will blood accumulate?

Back 12

lungs

Front 13

in right-sided heart failure, where will blood accumulate?

Back 13

liver and extremities

Front 14

if you see congestion in both the lungs and the liver and body, what should tell you about the degree of heart failure?

Back 14

it is chronic

Front 15

name four non-closure anomalies of the heart.

Back 15

1. patent ductus arteriosus
2. atrial septal defect
3. interventricular septal defect
4. Teratology of Fallot

Front 16

patent ductus arteriosus:
- size versus prognosis
- pathogenesis and morphological change in severe cases

Back 16

- smaller ones are compatible with life
- large ones result in left-to-right shunting of blood with volume overload of the left ventricle and pressure overload of the right ventricle. This leads to right ventricular hypertrophy.

Front 17

what is a patent ductus arteriosus?

Back 17

a shunt between the aorta and the pulmonary artery of the heart

Front 18

why does a patent ductus arteriosus lead to
- pressure overload of the right ventricle?
- volume overload of the left ventricle?

Back 18

- since the shunt is from left-to-right (aorta has higher pressure), the right ventricle must contract harder to pump blood against that pressure
- since the right ventricle is circulating more blood to the lungs in a patent DA, to maintain Frank-Starling equilibrium, the left ventricle must accommodate the increased venous return from the lungs

Front 19

atrial septal defect:
- direction of shunting
- pathological change of the heart
- pathological changes at sites other than the heart

Back 19

- left-to-right shunting of blood
- this will overload the right ventricle with blood
- since the right ventricle has more blood, secondary pulmonary hypertension can result
- since the venous return from the body is competing with the blood pressure in the shunt, central venous pressure will rise
- because of mixed blood to the lungs, as opposed to deoxygenated blood only, the animal can become cyanotic

Front 20

what are the species differences in the location of an interventricular septal defect?

Back 20

- sheep: low on the septum (in the muscle)
- other species: high on the septum (in the connective tissue)

Front 21

what are the four components of Teratology of Fallot?

Back 21

1. IV septal defect
2. overriding aorta (aorta straddles over the septum instead of exiting the left ventricular lumen)
3. pulmonic stenosis
4. compensatory right ventricular hypertrophy
("blue babies" in humans)

Front 22

narrowing of the pulmonic outflow tract

Back 22

pulmonic stenosis

Front 23

why is concentric right ventricular hypertrophy a common sequela to pulmonic stenosis?

Back 23

because the right ventricle must pump harder due to the narrowed exit

Front 24

in which species are aortic or subaortic stenoses most common?

Back 24

dogs and sheep

Front 25

in the gross examination of a heart, how would diagnosis of an aortic or subaortic stenosis be made?

Back 25

- by a fibrous band beneath the aortic valve, thus causing the constriction
- dilated aorta
- concentric left ventricular hypertrophy

Front 26

in aortic or subaortic stenosis, which one is more commonly seen? what is the usual cause of death?

Back 26

- subaortic is more common
- death is usually sudden, caused by ventricular fibrillation

Front 27

what is the difference between eccentric and concentric ventricular hypertrophy?

Back 27

- eccentric: enlarged ventricular chamber, normal wall thickness
- concentric: small ventricular chamber, thick wall

Front 28

what are the main pathogeneses of eccentric cardiac ventricular hypertrophy?

Back 28

lesions that produce increased VOLUME load, such as septal defects and valvular insufficiencies.

Front 29

what are the main pathogeneses of concentric cardiac ventricular hypertrophy?

Back 29

lesions that produce increased PRESSURE load, such as valvular stenosis, systemic hypertension, and pulmonary disease

Front 30

tricuspid dysplasia:
- common species
- what is it?
- what heart abnormalities occur as a result

Back 30

- cats
- malformation of the tricuspid (right AV) valve so that it does not close
- blood will regurgitate into the right atrium, causing an enlarged right atruim
- eccentric right ventricular hyperplasia will occur as a result of the resulting volume overload

Front 31

what is the most common congenital cardiac defect in cats? in what other species does this occur? what does it look like grossly?

Back 31

-mitral valve malformation.
- also occurs in dogs
- dilated annulus, short and thick leaflets, short chordae tendinae

Front 32

congenital valvular hematomas
- where are they usually found
- how common are they
- what species

Back 32

- found on the margins of the AV valves
- very common in calves

Front 33

what is a vascular ring anomaly? what is the most common?

Back 33

- a malformation of the aorta where it forms a ring of blood vessels
- persistent right aortic arch is the most common

Front 34

what is the most common disease seen as a result of a persistent right aortic arch? why does this happen?

Back 34

- megaesophagus
- because the vascular ring physically wraps around the esophagus and constricts the passage of food

Front 35

heart in an abnormal location

Back 35

ectopia cordis

Front 36

what is the most common presentation of ectopia cordis?

Back 36

a bovine with a heart in the thoracic inlet

Front 37

you receive a Burmese cat with an eccentric left ventricular hypertrophy. when you cut the heart open, you see diffuse, fibroelastic thickening of the endocardium. what is this condition? How did the cat get it?

Back 37

endocardial fibroelastosis - an inherited condition

Front 38

what is endocardial fibroelastosis, and in what animal is it frequently seen?

Back 38

diffuse fibroelastic thickening of the endocardium, usually accompanied by eccentric left ventricular hypertrophy. It is a heritable condition in Burmese cats.

Front 39

excess fluid in the pericardium

Back 39

hydropericardium

Front 40

what does normal pericardial fluid look like? how much of it is normal?

Back 40

a few mL of clear to yellow serous fluid

Front 41

what pathological processes commonly cause hydropericardium

Back 41

diseases involving ascites or edema (e.g. right heart failure)

Front 42

accumulation of blood in the pericardial sac

Back 42

hemopericardium

Front 43

what are the two most common causes of hemopericardium?

Back 43

1. aortic rupture in old stallions
2. atrial hemangiosarcoma in dogs

Front 44

arrhythmia caused by excess fluid in the pericardial sac

Back 44

cardiac tamponade

Front 45

what is the affect of cardiac tamponade on the circulation?

Back 45

the excess fluid in the pericardial sac compresses the heart to the point where it cannot generate enough force to move blood. acute heart failure is common

Front 46

in cachexia, what is the last tissue to be catabolized?

Back 46

pericardial fat

Front 47

what are two common causes of fibrinous pericarditis?

Back 47

1. Clostridial toxemia
2. traumatic reticulopericarditis (hardware disease)

Front 48

what is the fancy name for hardware disease in cattle?

Back 48

traumatic reticulopericarditis

Front 49

what is constrictive pericarditis?

Back 49

fibrous tissue in the pericardium, which constricts the heart, due to chronic pericarditis

Front 50

what lesion of the endocardium can be caused by regurgitation of incompetent heart valves?

Back 50

jet lesions - focal fibrosis of the endocardium

Front 51

what are the two usual causes of diffuse endocardial fibrosis?

Back 51

1. congenital lesion
2. dilated cardiomyopathy in dogs

Front 52

which type of mineralization is most common in the endocardium? This is commonly secondary to what?

Back 52

- metastatic (from hypercalcemia)
- Vitamin D toxicosis is a good rule-out

Front 53

what is the difference between endocardiosis and endocarditis in pathology and gross appearance?

Back 53

- endocardiosis: degenerative lesion (AV, usually mitral valve) and looks smooth and glistening
- endocarditis: inflammation (requires concurrent bacteria AND rough surface) - thick, rough, opaque

Front 54

what two factors are required for endocarditis to form?

Back 54

1. bacteria
2. rough surface as a nidus
- they most both be simultaneously be present for endocarditis to occur

Front 55

why does turbulent blood flow pose a risk for endocarditis?

Back 55

because turbulent blood flow roughens up the endocardium; if bacteria are present, they can grab hold and cause endocarditis.

Front 56

where does endocarditits usually occur? what other place does it rarely occur, and what is that called?

Back 56

- usually on the valve leaflets
- can happen on the heart wall, thereuponwhich it is called mural endocarditis

Front 57

comment on the species specificities of the location of endocarditis

Back 57

- cattle: right-sided
- all other species: left-sided

Front 58

how can endocarditis in the cow lead to abscess pneumonia?

Back 58

- in the cow, endocarditis is usually right-sided
- a septic embolus can lodge in the lung
- and form an abscess
- when the abscess ruptures, you've got some nasty pneumonia

Front 59

a heart with yellow-brown degenerative colorations in the myocardium probably has what?

Back 59

lipofuscinosis

Front 60

in general, what is hydropic degeneration?

Back 60

formation of fluid-filled vacuoles in cells that do not contain fat or glycogen

Front 61

a dull, gray, and fragile myocardium probably has what?

Back 61

hydropic degeneration

Front 62

yellow patches or streaks on the myocardium could be what two things?

Back 62

1. fatty infiltration (normal)
2. fatty degeneration into the myocytes

Front 63

what type of mineralization usually occurs in myocardium? what is the pathogenesis of this mineralization?

Back 63

- dystrophic
- from necrosis of the myocytes

Front 64

what are three common causes of myocardial necrosis with dystrophic mineralization?

Back 64

1. E/Selenium deficiency ("white muscle disease")
2. Monensin (an ionophore feed additive) toxicosis in non-ruminants
3. thromboembolism, usually from left-sided vegetative endocarditis

Front 65

what is the pathogenesis of cardiac necrosis caused by CNS damage

Back 65

- massive release of catecholamines from damage of CNS causes destruction of cardiac myocytes

Front 66

inflammation of the heart muscle

Back 66

myocarditis

Front 67

multifocal pale regions in the myocardium are indicative of what disease? what usually causes this disease? why is it deadly?

Back 67

- myocarditis
- usually bacterial, secondary to valvular vegetative endocarditis of the mitral or aortic valve, with septic emboli lodging into the coronary arteries
- this can set up ectopic electrical events, which will cause fibrillation

Front 68

dysfunction of the myocardium is called what?

Back 68

cardiomyopathy

Front 69

what are the three general forms of cardiomyopathy (what does the heart muscle look like in each case)?

Back 69

1. dilated (larger ventricular lumens)
2. hypertrophic (thickened ventricular walls)
3. restrictive (thickened walls and smaller lumen)

Front 70

what is the most common type of cardiomyopathy in dogs and what are two common etiologies?

Back 70

- dilative
1. genetic/breed disposition
2. idiopathic

Front 71

what is the most common type of cardiomyopathy in cats, and what is the most common etiology?

Back 71

- dilative
- taurine deficiency

Front 72

what is the pathogenesis of saddle thrombus formation in a cat with dilative cardiomyopathy?

Back 72

dilated heart --> incompetent valves --> thrombus formation --> thromboembolism --> saddle thrombi

Front 73

in what species is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy most common? what is the gross appearance of the heart? why does the animal die?

Back 73

- cats
- usually concentric hypertrophy of the left ventricle
- heart failure is usually a cause for sudden death and is theoretically caused by poor perfusion of the thickened myocardium

Front 74

what are some dog breed specific diseases of the heart conduction system?

Back 74

- dobies: degeneration of the bundle of His - sudden death
- pugs: stenosis of the bundle of His - syncope
- dalmations and schnauzers: sinus arrest - collapse +/- sudden death

Front 75

what is the most common type of neoplasia of the heart?

Back 75

lymphoma

Front 76

what are two common lesions that cause "heart base tumors"?

Back 76

1. chemodectoma of the aortic body
2. ectopic thyroid or parathyroid masses

Front 77

what is the most common primary neoplasm of the heart?

Back 77

right atrial hemangiosarcoma in the dog

Front 78

tumor of the myocardium is called what?

Back 78

rhabdomyoma

Front 79

what two types of neoplasms are the cause of tumors that have metastasized to the heart?

Back 79

hemangiosarcoma and lymphoma

Front 80

hardening of the arteries

Back 80

arteriosclerosis

Front 81

build-up of "mushy" plaque on the arterial walls

Back 81

atherosclerosis

Front 82

hardening of the arterioles

Back 82

arteriolosclerosis

Front 83

what are the three most common causes of arterial medial calcification? where in the body does this occur?

Back 83

1. Vitamin D toxicosis (most common)
2. renal failure (rare)
3. severe cachexia such as Johne's disease
- develops on elastic and large arteries

Front 84

what pathological conditon of the vasculature would you expect to see with vitamin D toxicosis?

Back 84

arterial medial calcification

Front 85

what is another name for arterial medial calcification?

Back 85

arteriolosclerosis

Front 86

what is another name for arteriolosclerosis

Back 86

arterial medial calcification

Front 87

weakening of an artery wall and a subsequent "ballooning"

Back 87

aneurysm

Front 88

why can copper deficiency cause an aneurysm?

Back 88

because copper is required for the formation of collagen and elastin

Front 89

what are two parasitic causes of aneurysm and their hosts?

Back 89

- Spirocera lupi - dogs
- Strongylus vulgaris - horses

Front 90

what are three etiologies for pulmonary artery hypertrophy in cats?

Back 90

1. lungworms
2. dirofilariasis
3. idiopathic change

Front 91

what are two common etiologies of pulmonary hypertrophy in large animals?

Back 91

1. pulmonary hypertension
2. hypoxia, such as in high-altitude disease

Front 92

why can nephrotic syndrome lead to hypercoagulability of the blood?

Back 92

becuase antithrombin III is lost in the urine

Front 93

inflammation of a blood vessel

Back 93

angitis or vasculitis

Front 94

inflammation of an artery

Back 94

arteritis

Front 95

what is the main etiology of vasculitis?

Back 95

infection, especially viral

Front 96

what are two common consequences of damage to the arterial wall due to arteritis?

Back 96

1. aneurysm
2. thrombosis
(or both)

Front 97

what is the most common congenital anomalous development of the veins? in who are they most common?

Back 97

- portosystemic shunt
- common in small-breed dogs

Front 98

what are the two types of portosystemic shunts?

Back 98

intrahepatic and extrahepatic

Front 99

inflammation of the veins

Back 99

phlebitis

Front 100

what is usually concurrent with phlebitis?

Back 100

thrombosis

Front 101

bacterial contamination of the veins in the umbilical stump

Back 101

omphalophlebitis

Front 102

dilation of the lymphatics

Back 102

lymphangiectasis

Front 103

what are the two most common general causes of lymphangiectasia?

Back 103

1. neoplasia
2. granulomatous inflammation

Front 104

what are two specific diseases (species) that are associated with lymphangiectasia?

Back 104

1. Johne's disease (ruminants)
2. chronic inflammatory bowel disease (dogs)

Front 105

where in the body is lymphangiectasia most common? why does this cause profound wasting?

Back 105

- intestinal mucosa
- wasting is caused by protein losing enteropathy

Front 106

accumulation of lymph in the thorax

Back 106

chylothorax

Front 107

what is the most common cause of chylothorax? in what species is this most common?

Back 107

- rupture of the thoracic duct
- most common in cats

Front 108

benign masses of vascular origin

Back 108

hemangiomas

Front 109

in which species are hemangiomas most common? where in the body are they found?

Back 109

- dogs, in the dermis

Front 110

malignant neoplasm of the soft tissues surrounding blood vessels. in which species do they most commonly occur?

Back 110

- hemangiopericytoma
- dogs

Front 111

malignant neoplasm of blood vessels

Back 111

hemangiosarcomas

Front 112

where are the predominant three locations of hemangiosarcomas?

Back 112

1. spleen
2. liver
3. right atrium of the heart

Front 113

missing or incomplete hard palate

Back 113

cleft palate

Front 114

what are two diseases commonly caused by a cleft palate

Back 114

1. secondary rhinitis
2. aspiration pneumonia

Front 115

narrowing or closure of the ventral meatus

Back 115

choanal atresia

Front 116

what is choanal atresia? in which species is this most common?

Back 116

- narrowing or closure of the ventral nasal meatus
- llamas

Front 117

respiratory impairment caused by an excessive length of the small palate and stenotic external nares in brachycephalic dogs

Back 117

brachycephalic airway syndrome

Front 118

what is brachycephalic airway syndrome?

Back 118

respiratory impairment caused by an excessive length of the small palate and stenotic external nares in brachycephalic dogs

Front 119

nosebleed

Back 119

epistaxis

Front 120

what is epistaxis? what are five common etiologies?

Back 120

- hemorrhage out the nose (nosebleed)
1. hemorrhagic diseases such as thrombocytopenia, DIC, Ehrlichia
2. trauma to the nasal cavity
3. guttural pouch empyema
4. blood vessel rupture in the lung
5. neoplasia in the nasal cavity

Front 121

how can rumenitis in cattle lead to epistaxis?

Back 121

- bacterial or fungal infection of the rumen
- migrates into the bloodstream
- forms an abscess in the lung
- abscess ruptures in the lung
- blood is coughed up and leaks out the nose (epistaxis)

Front 122

what are the three most common conditions where you will find laryngeal edema and hemorrhage?

Back 122

1. when an animal dies with respiratory distress
2. shock (especially equine)
3. secondary to intubation

Front 123

what is rhinitis

Back 123

inflammation of the nasal cavity

Front 124

inflammation of the nasal cavity

Back 124

rhinitis

Front 125

what viruses typically cause a generalized rhinitis in
- cattle?
- cats?
- dogs?
- equines?

Back 125

- cattle: IBR, BVD, malignant catarrhal fever
- feline: feline herpesvirus
- dogs: distemper
- equines: rhinopneumonitis (herpesvirus), influenza

Front 126

a herpesvirus infection in the URT is usually called what?

Back 126

rhinotracheitis

Front 127

a pig with no turbinates and a deviated nasal septum had what condition? what are the two likely causes?

Back 127

atrophic rhinitis
- Bordatella bronchiseptica
- Pasturella multocida

Front 128

atrophic rhinitis:
- species
- gross pathological signs
- etiology

Back 128

- pigs
- eroded nasal turbinates and a deviated nasal septum. Nose may be crooked.
- Bordatella bronchiseptica
- Pasturella multocida

Front 129

inflammation of the nasal mucosa characterized by infiltrating lymphocytes and plasma cells

Back 129

lymphoplasmacytic rhinitis

Front 130

what are the three types of localized rhinitis?

Back 130

1. allergic
2. fungal
3. strangles

Front 131

an eosinophilic mucopurulent exudate from the nose of a dog, cat, or cow is indicative of what?

Back 131

allergic rhinitis

Front 132

fungal localized rhinitis:
- appearance of lesions
- etiologies

Back 132

- granulomatous inflammation and a solid mass in the nasal cavity.
- Aspergillus in dogs and cats - necrotic exudate
- Cryptococcus in cats - mucoid exudate

Front 133

what are the two major rule-outs for nasal polyps?

Back 133

1. inflammatory lesion
2. neoplasia

Front 134

a polyp in the ethmoid region of horses that causes chronic epistaxis and obstructive scarring

Back 134

ethmoid hematoma

Front 135

with a chronic bleeding mass, as in an ethmoid hematoma in the horse, what would you expect to see in a histological section of the nasal cavity?

Back 135

scarring and granulation tissue

Front 136

what is a common etiology of sinusitis in the
- sheep?
- horse?
- birds?

Back 136

- sheep: Oestrus ovis nasal bot
- horse: infected molar tooth abscessing into the maxillary sinus
- birds: Avibacterium paragallinarum (fowl coryza)

Front 137

necrotic laryngitis:
- causative agent
- common name
- who is affected
- clinical signs

Back 137

- Fusobacterium necrophorum
- calf diphtheria
- disease of calves
- necrotic resipratory mucosa: dry, caseous mass covering the larynx; change in voice; foul-smelling drool

Front 138

what anatomical structures are proximal to the guttural pouch?

Back 138

- internal carotid artery
- cranial nerves

Front 139

what are the most common types of microbes that infect the guttural pouch? what do the lesions look like?

Back 139

- fungal infections cause fibrinonecrotic lesions
- bacteria cause purulent inflammation

Front 140

what is empyema?

Back 140

a dried-out, solid mass of pus; can be found in the guttural pouch of horses

Front 141

what is the scientific name for roarer's syndrome in horses? what is the site and description of the lesion?

Back 141

- laryngeal hemiplegia
- damage to the left cricoarytenoideus muscle groups, which is accompanied by an atrophy of the left recurrent laryngeal nerve

Front 142

what are some proposed etiologies for laryngeal hemiplegia in the horse?

Back 142

- secondary nerve damage from tumors
- guttural pouch infection
- compression
(- idiopathic)

Front 143

what are the most common neoplasms of the URT in
- dogs?
- cats?
- horses?
- sheep?

Back 143

- dogs: (adeno)carcinomas
- cats: squamous cell carcinoma of the nasal planum
- horses: squamous cell carcinoma of the maxillary sinus
- sheep: ethmoidal neoplasms caused by retroviral infection

Front 144

what is the most common neoplasm of the larynx?

Back 144

rhabdomyoma of the larynx in the dog

Front 145

what is a common congenital defect of the conducting airways of toy and miniature dog breeds?

Back 145

tracheal collapse

Front 146

what are the two most common circumstances in which hyperemia of the trachea is found?

Back 146

- respiratory distress before death
- inflammatory disease of the trachea such as rhinotracheitis

Front 147

with regards to the conducting airways, what is catarrhal inflammation?

Back 147

inflammation of the airways causing a mucous exudate without hyperemia

Front 148

what are the most common causes of catarrhal inflammation of the conducting airways in
- dogs?
- birds?

Back 148

- dogs: tracheobronchitis due to adenovirus, Bordatella, parainfluenza virus
- birds: infectious bronchitis (corona virus) and quail bronchitis (adenovirus)

Front 149

how do hemorrhagic, necrotizing lesions of the conducting airways usually appear grossly?

Back 149

diffuse with hyperemia, some edema, linear or petechial hemorrhages, and necrosis

Front 150

what are causes of hemorrhagic, necrotizing lesions of the conducting airways in
- cattle?
- birds?

Back 150

- cattle: infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR), malignant catarrhal fever
- birds: laryngotracheitis (herpesvirus)

Front 151

name two worms found in the conducting airways and the species they infect

Back 151

- Oslerus osleri (lungworms) in dogs
- Syngamus trachea in turkeys (a large red worm attached to a nodule in the trachea)

Front 152

what is allergic bronchitis? examples?

Back 152

inhalation of dust, plant materials, etc., that cause the airways to be plugged with mucus. Inspiration is easier than expiration. Feline asthma and "heaves" in horses are examples.

Front 153

what lesions can be caused by a severe case of allergic bronchitis such as feline asthma or heaves?

Back 153

rupture of alveoli, leading to emphysema

Front 154

dilation of the bronchi due to partial rupture of the bronchial wall

Back 154

bronchiectasis

Front 155

what irreversible lesion of the bronchi can be caused by chronic bronchitis?

Back 155

bronchiectasis

Front 156

condition of exudate in the bronchioles that is not removed, but instead organized into fibrous tissue

Back 156

bronchiolitis obliterans

Front 157

what is a chondroma?

Back 157

benign tumor of cartilage

Front 158

what causes squamous metaplasia of the respiratory mucosa in birds?

Back 158

vitamin A deficiency

Front 159

in necropsy, how will an edematous lung appear?

Back 159

- heavy and wet
- exude fluid when cut
- intralobular septa (in the pig and cow) are widened and transparent

Front 160

what are five general causes of hemorrhage of the lung?

Back 160

- pneumonia
- trauma
- coagulopathy
- sepsis
- thromboembolism

Front 161

how can kidney disease lead to thrombosis of the pulmonary arteries?

Back 161

glomerulonephritis causes loss of antithrombin III, leading to a hypercoagulable state and thrombus formation.

Front 162

what are two common causes of thromboembolism of the lung?

Back 162

- bacteria
- neoplastic cells

Front 163

what is typical appearance of a lung infarct? what is a common cause?

Back 163

sharply demarcated, firm, red areas. Lung torsion is a common cause because the lung has a redundant blood supply.

Front 164

incomplete distention of the alveoli

Back 164

atelectasis

Front 165

what is a common cause of atelectasis in neonates?

Back 165

failure of the lungs to inflate at birth

Front 166

a red, rubbery, slightly depressed, and sharply demarcated area of the lung is indicative of what pathological condition?

Back 166

atelectasis

Front 167

how is atelectasis of the lung distinguished from pneumonia?

Back 167

in atelectasis, the lungs are rubbery (not wet and edematous) and they are not consolidated

Front 168

what are three pathogeneses of atelectasis?

Back 168

1. bronchial or bronchiolar obstruction
2. compression from a lung mass or fluid/mass in the pleura
3. animals that are recumbant and have shallow breathing

Front 169

over-inflation of the lungs

Back 169

emphysema

Front 170

what are the two basic types of emphysema?

Back 170

1. interstitial emphysema
2. alveolar emphysema

Front 171

what is interstitial emphysema?

Back 171

air in the interlobular septa of the lungs in the species that have them (bovine, pig)

Front 172

excess air in the alveoli

Back 172

alveolar emphysema

Front 173

what are the two main pathogenic processes of alveolar emphysema?

Back 173

1. inflammatory processes that weaken the alveolar walls (rare)
2. bronchiolar obstruction (e.g. mucus), where air is inspired and trapped in the lung

Front 174

a condition caused by goblet cell metaplasia of the bronchioles and concurrent obstruction of the airway, leading to emphysema

Back 174

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

Front 175

what causes chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

Back 175

goblet cell metaplasia of the bronchioles and concurrent obstruction of the airway, leading to emphysema

Front 176

how would an emphysemic lung palpate in a necropsy?

Back 176

it would be very spongy

Front 177

what is the most common species affected by and the location of a lung torsion?

Back 177

torsion of the accessory lobe of the right lung in dogs

Front 178

what would be the typical lesion seen in a lung torsion?

Back 178

infarction

Front 179

what are the three gross patterns of pneumonia?

Back 179

1. diffuse
2. locally extensive
3. multifocal

Front 180

what are the two histologic patterns of pneumonia?

Back 180

1. bronchopneumonia
2. interstitial pneumonia

Front 181

what is the site of the primary lesion in bronchopneumonia? why?

Back 181

terminal bronchiole is the typical site because it is neither ciliated nor does it have macrophages

Front 182

describe the appearance of a lung that has diffuse interstitial pneumonia

Back 182

- uniform
- no distinct lesions
- the lung may appear overinflated
- lung is often wet and rubbery on palpation

Front 183

in ruminants with pneumonia having diffuse distribution, what is a common histological presentation? what are names for this disease?

Back 183

- interstitial emphysema is present
1. atypical interstitial emphysema
2. bovine pulmonary emphysema

Front 184

what lesions are present with diffuse interstitial pneumonia acutely? chronically?

Back 184

- acutely: loss of Type I cells from alveoli; edema, protein, and in severe cases, fibrin accumulation in the alveoli; small numbers of inflammatory cells in the interstitium
- chronically: proliferation to type II alveolar cells; fibrous tissue in the alveolar septa; microscopically, the "fried eggs" are replaced by cuboidal epithelium

Front 185

what are the four basic causes of diffuse interstitial pneumonia?

Back 185

1. toxins
2. viruses
3. metabolic conditions
4. systemic infections

Front 186

describe the toxins that may be involved in diffuse interstitial pneumonia

Back 186

- bovine: 3-methylindole; moldy sweet potatoes; mint perilla; peanut hay, others
- too much oxygen in the air (> 50%)

Front 187

what viruses cause diffuse intersitial pneumonia in
- bovines?
- sheep?
- pigs?
- horses?
- dogs?

Back 187

- bovines: PI3 virus and syncytial virus
- sheep: Maedi-visna (retrovirus)
- pigs: porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome; influenza
- horses: influenza
- dogs: distemper

Front 188

what is the common name given to diffuse interstitial pneumonia caused by metabolic conditions

Back 188

acute respiratory distress syndrome

Front 189

what are come causes of acute respiratory distress syndrome?

Back 189

(diffuse interstitial pneumonia)
1. heart failure
2. pancreatitis
3. DIC
4. shock

Front 190

what two agents of systemic infection are commonly associated with diffuse interstitial pneumonia?

Back 190

1. toxoplasmosis
2. salmonellosis (especially cattle)

Front 191

what are the two most common types of pneumonias caused by canine distemper virus?

Back 191

1. diffuse interstitial pneumonia
2. locally extensive bronchopneumonia

Front 192

comment on the resolution of diffuse interstitial pneumonia versus locally extensive bronchopneumonia

Back 192

- diffuse interstitial pneumonia can partially resolve because type 2 alveolar cells will be replaced by type 1. However, fibrous tissue is deposited in the interstitium, which will disrupt gas exchange
- locally extensive bronchopneumonia is rarely resolved because the airway is unable to clear the bacterial infection.

Front 193

generally, what always causes bronchopneumonia?

Back 193

bacteria

Front 194

what is the most common microscopic pathological pattern of pneumonia with a locally extensive distribution?

Back 194

bronchopneumonia

Front 195

what is the gross pathological appearance of a lung with bronchopneumonia? Include what parts of the lung are most commonly affected.

Back 195

- bilateral
- anterior and ventral distribution
- lesions are firm, dark red/purple, and are sharply demarcated
- in ruminants, fibrin may be present in the pleura

Front 196

why are lesions of bronchopneumonia usually found in the anterior and ventral portions of the lung?

Back 196

because lung clearance is least efficient in these areas

Front 197

what is the most common cause of focal/multifocal bronchopneumonia?

Back 197

a viral infection

Front 198

what bacteria cause bronchopneumonia in:
- ruminants?
- horses?
- pigs?
- dogs and cats?
- rats?

Back 198

- ruminants: Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida, Histophilus somni
- horses: Strep, Staph, Rhodococcus
- pigs: Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae, Bordatella, Actinobacillus suis, Mycoplasma, Haemophilus parasuis, Pasteurella multocida
- dogs and cats: Klebsiella, Staph, Strep
- rats: Mycoplasma pulmonis

Front 199

a pig with locally extensive pneumonia that is unilateral, dorsal, and hemorrhagic, probably has what infection?

Back 199

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

Front 200

fibrosis of the bronchiolar lumen caused by bronchopneumonia

Back 200

obliterative bronchiolitis

Front 201

enzootic pneumonia:
- animals commonly affected
- what is the common presentation of this disease
- what disease can develop from this infection if it progresses?
- what is the major pathogen identified in pigs with these infections?

Back 201

- young food animals: piglets, lambs, calves
- usually subclinical
- clinical bronchopneumonia can develop
- Mycobacterium hyopneumoniae has been IDed in pigs

Front 202

inhalation of fluid or drenches leading to a fetid, gangrenous infection of the lung

Back 202

aspiration/inhalation pneumonia

Front 203

what is the most common source of an infection that causes pneumonia with a focal or multifocal distribution? what is the microscopic classification of these pneumonias?

Back 203

a hematogenous infection which causes interstitial pneumonia

Front 204

what are the four most common etiologies of focal/multifocal interstitial pneumonia?

Back 204

1. metastatic (embolic) pneumonia
2. granulomatous pneumonia
3. allergic pneumonitis
4. verminous pneumonia

Front 205

what type of pneumonia is metastatic (embolic) pneumonia? what causes it? gross appearance of the lung?

Back 205

- multifocal interstitial pneumonia
- caused by septic emboli during bactermia
- lung is dotted with raised, red, white, or yellow foci that often contain pus

Front 206

what type of pneumonia is granulomatous pneumonia? what are some specific things that cause it? gross appearance of the lung?

Back 206

- multifocal interstitial pneumonia
- caused by deep mycoses (Blastomyces, Histoplasma, Coccidioides), pneumonoconioses (silica, asbestus, coal), TB, Aspergillus in birds, Cryptococcus and Thodococcus in foals
- firm raised lesions that are yellow, white or gray

Front 207

what type of pneumonia is allergic pneumonitis? what causes it? what species are most commonly affected?

Back 207

- focal/multifocal interstitial pneumonia
- usually inhaled antigens in dust, usually molds
- cattle, horses, humans (esp. farmers)

Front 208

what type of pneumonia is verminous pneumonia? what causes it? gross appearance of the lung?

Back 208

- focal/multifocal interstitial pneumonia
- caused by lungworms: Dictyocalus in ruminants; Muellerius in sheep and goats.
- Dictylocalus occurs in the caudodorsal lung
- Muellerius is characterized by raised, green nodules located just beneath the pleura in the caudal lobes

Front 209

what are the two primary sources of multifocal lesions in the lung?

Back 209

- hematogenous infections
- neoplasia

Front 210

what is the most common type of neoplasia of the lung?

Back 210

adenocarcinoma

Front 211

what are the two basic types of lung tumors?

Back 211

1. primary lung tumors
2. metastatic tumors

Front 212

a primary carcinoma of the sheep lung caused by a retrovirus

Back 212

pulmonary adenomatosis

Front 213

malignant tumor of smooth muscle

Back 213

leiomyosarcoma

Front 214

how would you rule out a primary tumor of the lung versus a metastatic tumor of the lung?

Back 214

usually metastatic lesions can be seen elsewhere

Front 215

what are the five basic physical displacements of the pleura in the thoracic cavity?

Back 215

1. hydrothroax
2. chylothroax
3. hemothroax
4. pneumothroax
5. pyothroax

Front 216

what are come common causes of hydrothorax?

Back 216

congestive heart failure, pulmonary edema, pleuritis, neoplasia of the pleura

Front 217

what are the three common causes of chylothorax?

Back 217

1. thoracic duct rupture (rare)
2. neoplasia/inflammation of the thorax
3. idiopathic

Front 218

what is the most common cause of pneumothorax?

Back 218

a penetrating wound

Front 219

what three common infectious processes can lead to pyothroax

Back 219

1. infectious penetrating wound
2. pneumonia that breaks into the throacic cavity
3. systemic infection

Front 220

what two infectious agents cause polyserositis in pigs?

Back 220

1. Haemophilus parasuis
2. Mycoplasma hyorhinis

Front 221

what is the term for pleuritis caused secondarily by pneumonia?

Back 221

pleuropneumonia

Front 222

primary neoplasm of the pleura

Back 222

mesothelioma

Front 223

condition where metastatic neoplasias are implanted in the walls of the pleura

Back 223

carcinomatosis

Front 224

absence of a limb

Back 224

amelia

Front 225

amelia

Back 225

absence of a limb

Front 226

fusion of digits

Back 226

syndactyly

Front 227

syndactyly

Back 227

fusion of digits

Front 228

multiple digits

Back 228

polydactyly

Front 229

polydactyly

Back 229

multiple digitis

Front 230

permanent flexure of the limbs caused by a defect in innervation of the muscles during development

Back 230

arthrogryposis

Front 231

arthrogryposis

Back 231

permanent flexure of the limbs caused by a defect in innervation of the muscles during development

Front 232

dorsal curvature of the spine

Back 232

kyphosis

Front 233

kyphosis

Back 233

dorsal curvature of the spine

Front 234

ventral curvature of the spine

Back 234

lordosis

Front 235

lordosis

Back 235

ventral curvature of the spine

Front 236

lateral curvature of the spine

Back 236

scoliosis

Front 237

scoliosis

Back 237

lateral curvature of the spine

Front 238

failure of the neural arch to close, leaving an exposed spinal cord or meninges

Back 238

spina bifida

Front 239

spina bifida

Back 239

failure of the neural arch to close, leaving an exposed spinal cord or meninges

Front 240

what is the technical name for "cooked calves" are some etiologies of this condition?

Back 240

- arthrogryposis
- dam ingests poisonous plants (lupines) at 40-70 days of gestation
- congenital viral infection: cache valley fever, bluetongue, akabane
- manganese deficiency during gestation

Front 241

what is periosteal hyperostosis?

Back 241

an inherited non-viable disease of pigs characterized by proliferation of periosteal new bone on long bones

Front 242

abnormal growth of bone

Back 242

osteodystrophy

Front 243

what is osteogenesis imperfecta?

Back 243

rare inherited disease of cattle, dogs, and cats, caused by a defect osteoblastic/odontoblastic production of Type I collagen. This is characterized by bones with thin cortices and trabeculae low in number; the bone is brittle and fractures easily. teeth are also affected.

Front 244

a young cat with brittle, thin bones with cortices and trabeculae low in number, and thin, fragile teeth might have what congenital disease?

Back 244

osteogenesis imprefecta

Front 245

abnormal thickening of bone due to an osteoclast defect

Back 245

osteopetrosis

Front 246

comment on the appearance of bone and prognosis of a fetus with osteopetrosis

Back 246

- bone is think with no medullary cavity
- bone is brittle and prone to fracture
- not usually compatible with life

Front 247

failure of fusion in the fetal spine, producing small vertebra

Back 247

hemivertebra

Front 248

what is the usual result of congenital chondrodystrophy?

Back 248

dwarfism

Front 249

an inherited defect in the cartilage of growth plates of bones formed by endochondral ossification

Back 249

chondrodystrophy (dwarfism)

Front 250

what are three general etiologies of bone ischemia. what is the pathologic end-stage?

Back 250

1. fracture
2. neoplasia
3. inflammation
- necrosis is the usual end-stage

Front 251

an idiopathic condition in which ischemia leads to collapse of the femoral head in young, miniature breeds of dogs

Back 251

aseptic necrosis of the femoral head

Front 252

periosteal proliferation of bone along the diaphysis of limb bones

Back 252

hypertrophic osteopathy

Front 253

hypertrophic osteopathy:
- what is it?
- is the is an asymmetrical or symmetrical lesion?
- this disease is secondary to what?
- pathogenesis

Back 253

- periosteal proliferation of bone along the diaphysis of limb bones
- these are usually symmetrical lesions
- disease is idiopathic, but occurs secondarily to neoplasia, space-occupying lesions of the lung, or lesions of the heart, abdomen, or urinary bladder
- thought to be caused by increased vascular perfusion to the periosteum, mediated by the vagus nerve via an unknown mechanism

Front 254

disease of joint articular cartilage characterized by the presence of cartilage in the bone

Back 254

osteochondrosis

Front 255

osteochondrosis:
- what causes this defect?
- in what animals does this commonly occur?
- which bones are most commonly affected?

Back 255

- caused by a defect in endochondral ossification
- most commonly occurs in animals on a high plane of nutrition: pigs, horses, large-breed dogs
- dogs: proximal humerus; horses: distal tibia; pigs: distal femur

Front 256

osteochrondosis:
- what does the gross lesion look like?
- how can the microanatomy explain the pathogenesis?
- what happens to the affected areas?

Back 256

- a focal area of cartilage that is thickened and projects into the metaphysis and epiphysis
- blood vessels fail to grow into the hypertrophic zone of cartilage and because of this, the cartilage does not mineralize
- weight can cause collapse of or fissures in the bone; osteochondrosis dissecans; (in the horse and pig) sub chondral bone cysts

Front 257

a flap of cartilage that forms or breaks off of a defective growth plate

Back 257

osteochondrosis dissecans

Front 258

similar to osteochondrosis, a disease of young domestic poultry and exotic birds, where the anterior tibia has an anteriolateral bowing due to defective cartilage ossification

Back 258

tibial dyschondroplasia

Front 259

a thinning of cortical and trabecular bone

Back 259

osteoporosis (a.k.a. osteopenia)

Front 260

what are the most common bones affected by osteoporosis?

Back 260

bones with large amounts of trabecular bone such as vertebra, scapula, ilium, and metaphysis of long bones

Front 261

what are four common types of osteoporosis? what is the most common?

Back 261

1. nutritional - most common
2. disuse
3. senile
4. corticosteroid-induced

Front 262

inadequate mineralization of bone in:
- young animals
- adult animals

Back 262

- young animals: rickets
- adult animals: osteomalacia

Front 263

what are the most common causes of rickets?

Back 263

1. vitamin D deficiency (most common)
2. phosphorus deficiency (less common)
(or both)

Front 264

in rickets, how do the bones present grossly?

Back 264

- soft
- not brittle
- may bend and fracture easily
- deformities due to bearing weight
- thin cortices and soft trabecular bone

Front 265

characterize the growth plates in rickets. where in the body are these lesions most obviously seen?

Back 265

- they are long and irregular in width
- metaphysis is widened and makes a mushroom shape under the collapse of weight
- most obvious at the costochondral junctions

Front 266

why can vitamin D deficiency cause rickets?

Back 266

causes secondary hyperparathyroidism, where bone is demineralized

Front 267

excessive resorption of bone followed by replacement with fibrous connective tissue and some metaplastic bone

Back 267

fibrous osteodystrophy

Front 268

what is the most common cause of fibrous osteodystrophy?

Back 268

hyperparathyroidism
- primary or secondary
- nutritional
- renal

Front 269

rubber jaw is indicative of which disease?

Back 269

fibrous osteodystrophy

Front 270

which bones are affected most and least by fibrous osteodystrophy?

Back 270

head > axial skeleton > appendicular sksleton

Front 271

which non-infectious bone disease of horses is commonly called "big head"?

Back 271

fibrous osteodystrophy

Front 272

what causes scurvy?

Back 272

vitamin C deficiency; being a pirate

Front 273

scurvy:
- which animals are affected?
- why these animals?
- what is the gross appearance of this disease?
- what is the pathophysiology?

Back 273

- primates (e.g. yo mamma), guinea pigs
- these animals can't make vitamin C
- hemorrhage around joints or tendinous insertions; NOTE that MINERALIZATION OF BONE IS NORMAL
- vitamin C is required to cross-link collagen, so a deficiency results in inadequate osteoid formation

Front 274

a bone disease caused by toxicosis of the F- ion

Back 274

fluorosis

Front 275

what is the mineral comprising the majority of bone and of tooth enamel?

Back 275

hydroxyapatite

Front 276

what pathological problems are associated with fluorosis?

Back 276

- fluoride converts hydroxyapatite to fluorapatite
- bone trabeculae mineralize more slowly,producing widened osteoid seams
- this affects mostly young, growing bone and may resemble rickets
- periosteal new bone formation → lameness
- severely discolored tooth enamel

Front 277

what pathologic changes can occur with chronic hypervitaminosis A in cats? what is the proposed pathophysiological mechanism?

Back 277

- multiple exostoses (bone spurs), especially on the cervical vertebrae, but also can occur on the sternebrae and ribs
- since vitamin A is toxic to chondrocytes, it is thought that the cartilage in these areas undergoes endochondral ossification

Front 278

a disease of young growing poultry and game birds characterized by swollen, enlarged hocks, twisting deformities of the distal tibia and proximal metatarsus, often with the gastrocnemius tendon slipping out of the condyle.

Back 278

avian perosis

Front 279

avian perosis
- clinical signs
- etiology

Back 279

CLINICAL SIGNS
- enlarged hocks
- twisting deformities of the bones of the hock joint
- sometimes the gastroc tendon slips out of the condyle
ETIOLOGY:
- deficiencies of choline, manganese, folic acid, pantothenic acid, biotin, and niacin

Front 280

inflammation of the bone and bone marrow

Back 280

osteomyelitis

Front 281

what is the most common cause of osteomyelitis and some less common causes?

Back 281

- most common: bacterial infection
- less common: fungal and viral infection

Front 282

what are the most common pathogeneses of osteomyelitis?

Back 282

- infection surrounding the bone tissue such as arthritis, sinusitis, or periodontitis migrates into the surrounding bone
- also caused by fracture or trauma to bone

Front 283

hematogenous osteomyelitis?
- in which animals is this most common?
- why?

Back 283

- most common in younger animals because the metaphyseal areas of growing bones are highly vascularized

Front 284

what lesions are associated with osteomyelitis?

Back 284

- lysis of bone, forming cavities of inflammatory exudate
- ischemia and necrosis (usually resorbed), but can lead to a sequestrum
- often there is bone proliferation, often extensively, and if periosteum is involved, periosteal new bone formation can occur

Front 285

what infectious agents are causative agents of particularly aggressive osteomyelitis?

Back 285

- Actinomyces (lumpy jaw)
- Histoplasma, Blastomyces (deep mycoses)
- Nocardia

Front 286

an inflammatory lesion of young large and giant breed dogs characterized by a sudden onset of fever associated with painful swellings of the metaphyses of limb bones

Back 286

hypertrophic osteodystrophy

Front 287

what is hypertrophic osteodystrophy?

Back 287

an INFLAMMATORY disease of young large and giant breed dogs characterized by a sudden onset of fever associated with inflammation of the developing metaphyses of limb bones

Front 288

what bones can be affected by hypertrophic osteodystrophy?

Back 288

- usually the distal metaphyses of long bones
- ribs
- mandible
- proximal metaphyses of long bones

Front 289

what lesions are associated with hypertrophic osteodystrophy?

Back 289

- edematous periosteal new bone formation
- cartilage and bone form external to this and often hemorrhage
- lysis of bone with osteomyelitis in the metaphyses and bone proliferation in the deeper metaphyses

Front 290

why is "hypertrophic osteodystrophy" a crappy name for this disease?

Back 290

because it is an inflammatory disease (thought to be caused by bacteria) and should have "-itis" in the name

Front 291

why is "panosteitis" a crappy name for this disease?

Back 291

because despite the "-itis" in the name, there is no inflammation in this disease

Front 292

why is "craniomandibular osteopathy" a crappy name for this disease?

Back 292

because it is an inflammatory disease and should have "-itis" in the name

Front 293

panostitis:
- animals affected
- sex and age factors
- lesions

Back 293

- large and giant breed dogs
- males are 4:1 over females; < 1 year of age
- ENDOsteal new bone formation in the diaphysis, often filling the medullary cavity. Despite the name, no inflammation

Front 294

bilateral irregular osseus proliferation of the mandible, tympanic bullae, and sometimes the bones of the head, occurring in young dogs.

Back 294

craniomandibular osteopathy

Front 295

craniomandibular osteopathy:
- breed disposition
- cause
- lesions

Back 295

- terrier breeds are most commonly affected
- this is an inflammatory process (despite the name), with an unknown cause
- periosteal new bone formation on the mandible and tympanic bullae; sometimes ankylosis of the TMJ; thickened bones; early in the disease, inflammation is present and the dog may be febrile

Front 296

what are the six basic descriptive terms of fractures and their definitions

Back 296

1. simple/closed: skin not broken
2. compound/open: skin broken
3. pathologic: secondary to a bone disease
4. comminuted: multiple pieces
5. greenstick: one side broken, the other side not broken
6. transverse/oblique/spiral: designate the orientation of the fracture

Front 297

what is a pseudoarthrosis?

Back 297

a false joint created by the fibrous capsule formed between the ends of fractured bones as they heal

Front 298

during the healing of a bone fracture, what is the name of the woven bone, cartilage, and fibrous tissue swelling surrounding the site of the fracture

Back 298

a callus

Front 299

comment on the species prevalance of bone neoplasia

Back 299

dogs >>> cats >>>>> large animals

Front 300

benign tumor of bone

Back 300

osteoma

Front 301

benign tumor of the surface of flat bones comprised of mature hyaline catrilage

Back 301

chondroma

Front 302

a benign tumor of hyaline cartilage where the cartilage merges with the trabecular bone

Back 302

osteochondroma

Front 303

osteoma
- species affected
- where in the body are they located?
- what does the lesion look like?

Back 303

- cattle and horses
- bones of the head
- tumor of trabecular bone, covered with a fibrous capsule

Front 304

chondroma
- species affected
- what does the lesion look like?

Back 304

- sheep, dogs, and cats
- tumors of the flat bones, where hyaline cartilage is deposted on the surface

Front 305

osteochondroma
- species affected and etiology
- lesion

Back 305

- inherited tumor of neonatal dogs and horses
- may be caused by a retrovirus in mature cats
- hyaline cartilage infiltrating trabecular bone

Front 306

what is the most common type of benign tumor of bone? In which species do these occur?

Back 306

- multilobular tumor of the bones of the skull
- dogs >> horses

Front 307

multilobular tumor of bone
- describe the lesions
- describe the growth of these tumors
- why are they difficult to completely remove surgically?

Back 307

- in the bones of the skull, lobules of cartilage or bone, separated by fibrous tissue, to form a multilobular pattern radiographically and histologically
- slow growing and progressively malignant, with metastasis late in the disease
- difficult to remove because they can cause compression of the brain, or expand into the orbit or sinuses

Front 308

syndrome of benign tumors of bone in cats, which can occur all over the body, thought to be caused by FeLV infection

Back 308

osteocondromatosis

Front 309

what is the most common malignant tumor of bone and in which species do these occur most frequently?

Back 309

- osteosarcoma
- large and giant dog breeds; cats

Front 310

in dogs and cats, from what type of bones and what part of the bones do osteosarcomas commonly originate?

Back 310

- dogs: medullary cavities of long bones (proximal humerus, distal radius, both ends of the femur and tibia)
- cats: tumors arise equally in long and flat bones

Front 311

what lesions are observed in osteosarcomas? what type of cells are usually the culprits?

Back 311

- extensive hemorrhage
- necrosis
- bone lysis
- periosteal proliferation
- pathologic fractures
- tumor will usually not cross the joint space
- this is a tumor of malignant osteoblasts

Front 312

what is the name for osteosarcomas characterized by large, blood-filled spaces? what is a differential diagnosis for this lesion?

Back 312

- telangiectatic osteosarcoma
- lesion could also be hemangiosarcoma

Front 313

common tumor of flat bones and the nasal cavity that is slow growing and will cross the joint space

Back 313

chondrosarcoma

Front 314

chondrosarcoma
- on what type of bone does the tumor usually occur
- comment on growth of this neoplasm

Back 314

- flat bones and nasal cavity. will cross the joint space
- slow growing and less metastasis than osteosarcoma

Front 315

what malignant neoplasms of non-bone origin commonly occur on or in bones

Back 315

fibrosarcoma and hemangiosarcoma

Front 316

from which places do metastatic carcinomas of bone originate?

Back 316

mammary gland, prostate, thyroid, ovary, lung

Front 317

mild stretching of joint capsule

Back 317

strain

Front 318

stretching of joint capsule and associated ligaments (which may tear) without displacement of the joint surfaces.

Back 318

sprain

Front 319

what is the difference between a strain and a sprain?

Back 319

they both are stretching of the joint capsule without separation of the joint surfaces, but sprains also involve ligaments (which may tear)

Front 320

incomplete separation of joint surfaces, often with partial tearing of the joint capsule

Back 320

subluxation

Front 321

complete separation of joint surfaces with a completely torn joint capsule

Back 321

luxation

Front 322

a non-infectious degeneration of articular cartilage occuring over many months

Back 322

degenerative joint disease

Front 323

degenerative joint disease
- what "degenerates"?
- what are some common causes

Back 323

- degeneration of articular cartilage
1. aging
2. conformational or acquired developmental defects (e.g. hip dysplasia, patellar luxation, osteochondrosis, aseptic necrosis of the femoral head, etc.)
3. trauma
4. inflammatory arthritis
5. joint stress/overuse as in weight-bearing or athletic performance
6. nutritional deficiencies that lead to osteoporosis

Front 324

what is the pathogenesis of degenerative joint disease?

Back 324

- release of proteoglycans from damaged cartilage leads to release of degradative enzymes released from damaged tissues and inflammatory cells
- no actual inflammation occurs
- the proteoglycans of degraded cartilage continue the degradative cycle

Front 325

degradation of cartilage, causing the exposure of subchondral bone

Back 325

eburnation

Front 326

in degenerative joint disease, comment on the appearance of cartilage

Back 326

- becomes dull, yellow, and soft (normally "pearly white"
- rough surface with erosions and ulcers
- eburnation may occur (exposed subchondral bone)

Front 327

in degenerative joint disease, comment on the histopathological appearance of the lesions

Back 327

- flaking and fibrillation (disruption) of the superficial layers of cartilage
- fissures (vertical clefts) in the cartilage develop

Front 328

comment on the bone change in response to loss of articular cartilage in degenerative joint disease

Back 328

- ↑bone deposition → ↑thickening of the subchondral bone
- subchondral bone cysts may form
- cartilage proliferation at the joint margins and the formation of osteophytes

Front 329

what is ringbone?

Back 329

degernative joint disease of the interphalangial joints of the equine forelimb

Front 330

what is a bone spavin?

Back 330

degenerative arthropathy of the tarsus in horses and sometimes cattle

Front 331

what is navicular disease?

Back 331

degenerative arthropathy of the navicular bone on the horse's forelimb

Front 332

development of osteophytes on the ventral and lateral apsects of adjacent spinal vertebrae

Back 332

spondylosis

Front 333

fusion of a joint by bone

Back 333

ankylosis

Front 334

infectious disease of the intervertebral disks

Back 334

discospondylitis

Front 335

what are two common bacteria that cause discospondylitis in dogs?

Back 335

- Brucella
- Staphylococcus

Front 336

what is intervertebral disk disease? in what species does this commonly occur?

Back 336

- fibrosis and mineralization of the nucleus pulposis leading to bulging, herniation, and rupture of the intervertebral disk
- occurs in dogs

Front 337

what is the most common cause of arthritis?

Back 337

bacterial infection

Front 338

what are the two most common etiologies of infectious arthritis?

Back 338

1. bacteremia
2. penetration of the joint capsule

Front 339

what is the most common lesion in infectious arthritis? which animals are most susceptible to this disease?

Back 339

- infection of the soft tissue, producing a purulent or fibrinous exudate
- large animals are most susceptible and this infection most commonly occurs in the large joints (e.g. stifle, hock, carpus)

Front 340

what is a common retroviral infection of goats affecting the joints?

Back 340

caprine arthritis-encephalitis

Front 341

what is a pannus?

Back 341

fibrous granulation tissue that overlays articular cartilage

Front 342

what are three examples of non-infectious, immune-related arthritis?

Back 342

1. rheumatoid arthritis
2. systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE/lupus)
3. idiopathic polyarthritis

Front 343

explain the pathogenesis of rheumatoid arthritis

Back 343

- rheumatoid factors form against IgG in the serum and joint fluid
- this leads to diffuse lymphoplasmacytic inflammation of the synovium
- lysosomal enzymes are released, which degrade cartilage
- villous hyperplasia of the synovium occurs along with thickening of the joint capsule
- pannus formation and possible ankylosis
- subchondral bone loss and bone cysts

Front 344

what can happen with chronic pannus accumulation in a joint?

Back 344

ankylosis

Front 345

explain the pathogenesis of systemic lupus erythematosis ("lupus"/SLE)

Back 345

- anti-DNA antigen complexes deposit in the joints
- also accompanying this disease is autoimmune hemolytic anemia, renal disease, and vascular dermatitis

Front 346

what diseases are usually associated with non-infectious, immune-related idiopathic polyarthritis?

Back 346

various chronic diseases that may become hematogenous such as endocarditis, UTI, discospondylitis, pyometra, periodontitis

Front 347

what is the only important primary neoplasm of joints?

Back 347

synovial sarcoma

Front 348

what is the recommended treatment for synovial sarcoma?

Back 348

amputation (but metastasis occurs in 25% of cases)

Front 349

a group of rare, inherited diseases, where muscle degenerates, becomes necrotic, and is replaced with fibrous tissue

Back 349

muscular dystrophy

Front 350

a group of rare, inherited diseases characterized by prolonged contraction of muscles. which species commonly has this disease?

Back 350

- myotonia
- goats

Front 351

in animals that have myotonia, how are muscle contractions stimulated?

Back 351

manually or by startling the animal

Front 352

an inherited disease in cattle where the rear limbs are straight at the hock and unable to flex

Back 352

spastic paresis

Front 353

an inherited muscle disease of dogs characterized by muscle weakness and exercise intolerance, but the muscles are normal grossly and microscopically

Back 353

myasthenia gravis

Front 354

what are two causes of myasthenia gravis?

Back 354

1. deficient acetylcholine receptors in NMJ
2. autoimmunity against acetylcholine receptors in the NMJ

Front 355

an inherited disease in horses characterized by abnormal glycogen in the muscles which cannot be metabolized

Back 355

polysaccharide storage myopathy

Front 356

what microscopic lesions are present in horses with polysaccharide storage myopathy?

Back 356

- necrosis or atrophy of the muscle
- aggregates of amylopectin in the muscle fibers

Front 357

horses with transient episodes of muscle spasms followed by flaccid paralysis may have which heritable disease?

Back 357

hyperkalemic periodic paralysis

Front 358

explain the pathogenesis and clinical signs of hyperkalemic periodic paralysis in horses

Back 358

- there is an inherited defect in the sodium channels in the muscle fibers that leads to hyperkalemia
- clinical signs are episodic and are characterized by muscle spasms followed by a period of flaccid paralysis

Front 359

what are the four basic types of muscle atrophy?

Back 359

1. denervation atrophy
2. disuse atrophy
3. cachexia
4. endocrine atrophy

Front 360

what is denervation atrophy of muscle?

Back 360

damage to the nerve supply to muscle

Front 361

damage to the nerve supply to muscle may lead to what?

Back 361

denervation atrophy

Front 362

what is cachexia?

Back 362

muscle wasting due to nutrient deficiency resulting in catabolism of muscle to supply the body with energy

Front 363

what two diseases cause endocrine atrophy of muscle?

Back 363

hyperadrenocorticism and hypothyroidism

Front 364

which type of muscle atrophy usually is not visible grossly, but can be seen microscopically?

Back 364

endocrine atrophy

Front 365

what are the two most common reasons for muscle hypertrophy?

Back 365

1. increased workload
2. compensatory response to damaged muscle, as seen in many diseases

Front 366

comment on muscle hyperplasia

Back 366

doesn't exist because muscle cannot divide

Front 367

what color is necrotic muscle?

Back 367

pale or white; often tan-to-white streaks

Front 368

comment on the muscle's ability to regenerate after damage to the myofibers

Back 368

- muscle has a great capacity to regenerate if the basement membrane remains intact
- if the basement membrane is lost, necrosis and fibrosis will be the end-stage

Front 369

what are four general causes of muscle necrosis?

Back 369

1. nutritional effects
2. toxins
3. exertional
4. ischemia

Front 370

what is white muscle disease?

Back 370

nutritional myopathy of young ruminats due to vitamin E/selenium deficiency. Characterized by symmetrical, bilateral necrosis of the rear limb muscles, diaphragm, and in sucking animals, the tongue and neck muscles. Lesions have a white-striped appearance

Front 371

name three common toxins that cause muscle necrosis and where they come from

Back 371

1. monensin - an ionophore feed additive used as a growth promotant
2. Cassia occidentalis (coffee senna) - a plant in the SW United States that causes muscle necrosis, ataxia, and diarrhea in ruminants
3. Adriamycin - an anticancer drug used in small animals that causes necrosis of the myocardium

Front 372

what is the scientific name for tying-up or Monday morning disease in horses?

Back 372

exertional rhabdomyolysis

Front 373

explain the pathogenesis of exertional rhabdomyolysis in horses

Back 373

- exercise, the horse burns glycogen and everything is fine
- the horse rests and accumulates glycogen during a period of rest with high-carb rations
- severe paresis of the hind-limb muscles results
- lesions can range from mild muscle necrosis to extensive muscle damage leading to myoglobinuria and azoturia.

Front 374

a defect in muscle ryanodine receptors characterized by high body temperature, metabolic acidosis, muscle rigidity, and high mortality rates

Back 374

malignant hyperthermia

Front 375

in what species have malignant hyperthermia most commonly? what is a common name for this disease? how can this be produced iatrogenically?

Back 375

- PIGS, horses, dogs
- porcine stress syndrome
- can be induced by halothane anesthesia

Front 376

which muscles are most affected and what are lesions seen with malignant hyperthermia?

Back 376

- shoulder, loin, thigh, back muscles
- muscle is pale, soft, and edematous

Front 377

how long can a muscle be ischemic and still be able to regenerate?

Back 377

a few hours

Front 378

what are three important syndromes leading to muscle ischemia?

Back 378

1. compartment syndrome
2. downer syndrome
3. crush syndrome

Front 379

what is compartment syndrome?

Back 379

ischemia of muscle encased in a sheath or by bone, where during vigorous exercise, the muscle fiber swells and compresses, cutting off the blood supply

Front 380

what is downer syndrome?

Back 380

ischemia of muscle due to the weight of a recumbent animal cutting of the blood supply to a muscle

Front 381

what is crush syndrome?

Back 381

ischemia of muscle secondary to severe trauma leading to severe edema and hyperemia, which cuts off the blood supply

Front 382

inflammation of muscle

Back 382

myositis

Front 383

what are four major types of myositis?

Back 383

1. clostridial
2. masticatory myositis of dogs
3. parasitic myositis
4. dermatomyositis

Front 384

name two specific clostridial myositis diseases, the causative agent, and the species in which they occur

Back 384

1. Black leg, Clostridium chauvoei, feeder cattle and sheep
2. Maglignant edema, Clostridium septicum, ruminants and pigs

Front 385

what disease of ruminants is characterized by sudden death caused by infection of the muscles with no apparent trauma? what organism causes this disease?

Back 385

- Black leg
- Clostridium chauvoei

Front 386

what muscle disease of farm animals is characterized by gas gangrene secondary to trauma such as castration, shearing, injection, etc.? What organism causes this disease?

Back 386

- Malignant edema
- Clostridium septicum

Front 387

a disease of muscles in the dog where sporadic attacks of pain prevents them from opening and closing their jaws?

Back 387

masticatory myositis of dogs

Front 388

what causes masticatory myositis of dogs?

Back 388

autoimmunity against myosin filaments of the muscles of mastication

Front 389

what are five important parasites that cause myositis?

Back 389

1. Toxoplasma (protozoa)
2. Neospora (protozoa)
3. tapeworm cysticerci
4. Sarcocystis (protozoa)
5. Trichinella (roundworms)

Front 390

what is dermatomyositis?

Back 390

a rare, inherited autoimmune disease of collies and sheepdogs, affecting the skin, muscles of mastication, and esophagus (causes megaesophagus)

Front 391

benign tumor of skeletal muscle

Back 391

rhabdomyoma

Front 392

malignant tumor of skeletal muscle

Back 392

rhabdomyosarcoma

Front 393

benign tumor of smooth muscle

Back 393

leiomyoma

Front 394

rhabdomyoma
- species affected (and location of tumor)
- appearance of tumor

Back 394

- lambs and pigs (heart); dogs (larynx)
- tumors are pale tan to white and they are firm

Front 395

rhabdomyosarcoma
- species affected and location of tumor
- what do lesions look like
- comment on malignancy

Back 395

- urinary bladder of dogs < 2 years old
- pale tan lesions with hemorrhage and necrosis
- very malignant tumor

Front 396

where are leiomyomas most commonly found?

Back 396

- GI tract of small animals
- female reproductive tract of large and small animals