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257 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
what are the 2 forms of the "first line of defense"?
|
1) physical and mechanical barriers
2) biochemical barriers |
|
what are the 5 ways that the body rids itself of bacteria in the first line of defense?
|
sloughing off of cells
coughing and sneezing flushing vomiting mucus and cilia |
|
what is the physical barrier (first line of defense?
|
skin
|
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what are the 3 bichemical barriers in the 1st line of defense?
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1) synthesized and secreted saliva, tears, ear wax, sweat, and mucus
2) antimicrobial peptides 3) normal bacterial flora |
|
what is the mechanical barrier (first line of defense)?
|
linings of the gastroinstestinal, genitourinary, and respiratory tracts
|
|
antimicrobial peptides
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proteins that secrete a substansce to help fight bacteria
|
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what is the second line of defense?
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inflammatory response
|
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what are the cardinal LOCAL manifestations of the inflammatory response?
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redness, heat, pain, swelling, loss of function
|
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what microscopic changes occur in the inflammatory response? (3)
when do they occur |
vascular response (bleeding)
increased vascular permeabiltiy WBC adherence within seconds |
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what 3 things are included in the vascular response of inflammation?
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1) blood vessel dilation
2) increased vascular permeability and leakage 3) white blood cell adherence to the inner walls of the vessels and migration through the vessels |
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what are the 4 goals of inflammation?
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1) limit and control the inflammatory process
2) prevent and limit infection and further damage 3) initiate adaptive immune response 4) initiate healing |
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Acute inflammation is a....
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rapid and nonspecific protective response to cellular injury
|
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Acute inflammation can only occur in
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vascularized tissue
|
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what are the macroscopic hallmarks of acute inflammation? (5)
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rendess, swelling, heat, pain, loss of function
|
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what are the microscopic hallmarks of acute inflammation?
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accumulation of fluid and cells
(contributes to swelling) |
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what are the vascular responses to injury or pathogen invastion? (5)
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vasodilation
vascular permeability (edema) cellular infiltration (pus) throbmosis (clots) stimulation of nerve endings (pain) |
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what initiates the inflammatory response?
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Mast cells
|
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what are mast cells?
|
cellular bags of granules
|
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where are mast cells located?
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loose connective tissues close to blood vessels
|
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what does histamine do?
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causes temproary, rapid constriction of the large blood vessels and the dilation of the postcapillary venules
|
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H1
|
proinflammatory hitamine receptor
|
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H2
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anti inflammatory histamine receptor
|
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wwere are H1 receptors?
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present in smooth muscle cells of the bronchi
|
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where are H2 receptors?
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on parietal cells of the stomach mucosa
|
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Neurtophils respond to....
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bacteria
|
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eosinophils respond to...
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allergic reaction, parasitic invasion
|
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what are the two chemotactic factors?
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neutrophil chemotactic factor
eosinophil chemotactic factor |
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leukotrienes and prostaglandins
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mimic histamine in later stages
|
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prostaglandins
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mimics histamine in the later stages and induces pain
|
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platelet-activating factor
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similar effect to leukotrienes and platelet activation
|
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all the hallmarks of inflammation are cause by...
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mast cell products
|
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what are the 3 plasma protein systems
|
complement
coagulation kinin |
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what is essential to an effective inflammatory response?
|
protein
|
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complement system can destroy ______ directly
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pathogens
|
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which plasma protein system activates or collaberates with every component of the inflammatory response?
|
complement system
|
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what is the purpose of the soagulation ( clotting) protein system? (4)
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1) prevents spread of infection
2) keep MO and foreign bodies at site of greatest inflammatory cell activity 3)forms a clot that stops bleeding 4) provides a meshwork for repair and healing |
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what is the main substance of the coagulation system?
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fibrin
|
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what is the end result of the coagulation system?
|
fibrin
|
|
fibrin
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insoluble protein`
|
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what is essential to the blood clotting mechanism?
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calcium
|
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what is the end result of the clotting mechanism?
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fibrin
|
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what is the function of the kinin system?
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activate and assist inflammatory cells and pain response
|
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what is the primary kinin?
|
bradykinin
|
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phagocytes are...
|
large molecules
|
|
phagocytes...
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engulf and destroy microorganisms
think pacman |
|
neutrophils are...
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a type of phagocyte
|
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neutrophiles arrive at the inflammatory site within....
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6-12 hours of injury
|
|
what do neutrophils do?
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injest bacteria, dead cells, and cellular debris
|
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after dying, neutrophils become part of the...
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purulent exudate
|
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monocytes and macrophages are both what kind of cell?
|
WBC
|
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what 2 cells are characteristic of CHRONIC inflammation?
|
monocytes and macrophages
|
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where are monocytes and macrophages produced?
|
bone marrow
|
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when do monocytes and macrophages arrive at the inflammatory site?
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3-7 days after initial injury
|
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eosinophils control the vascular effects of what two things?
|
serotonin and histimamine
|
|
what do eosinophils do?
|
help control vasodilation and dissolve surface membranes of parasites
|
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what are the 2 kinds of cytokines?
|
interleukins and interferons
|
|
what do cytokines do?
|
govern effective inflammatory response
|
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what 3 things do interleukins do?
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1) alteration of adhesion molecule expresion on many types of cells
2) proliferation and maturation of leukocytes in the bone marrow 3) general enhancement or suppression of inflammation |
|
what produces interluekins?
|
macrophages and lymphocytes
|
|
interleukins are...
|
cytokines
|
|
interferons are produced by
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macrophages, T cells and NK cells
|
|
interferons defend the body against
|
tumor cell growth and viruses, gram - bacteria
|
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interferons have no affect on...
|
a cell that has been infected by a virus
|
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interferons are...
|
cytokines
|
|
what causes cytokines to arrive at a site?
|
chemotaxis
|
|
chemokines
|
induce leukocyte chemotaxis
|
|
what are the 5 local manifestations of inflammation?
|
heat, redness, swelling, pain, loss of function
|
|
what 2 local manifestations are caused by vasodiation?
|
heat and redness
|
|
what 2 local manifestations are caused by exudate?
|
swelling and pain
|
|
what are the 3 affects of exudates?
|
1) dilute toxins produced by bacteria
2) carry plasma proteins and leukocytes to the site 3) carry away bacterial toxins, dead cells, debris and other products of inflammation |
|
what does serous exudate indicate?
|
early inflammation
|
|
serous exudate
|
watery exudate (blister)
|
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serosanguinous exudate
|
watery exudate with a few red blood cells
|
|
fibrinous exudate indicates...
|
severe of more advanced inflammation
|
|
what kind of exudate is walled off?
|
fibrinous exudate and purulent/suppurative exudate
|
|
fibrinous exudate
|
thick, clotted
|
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purulent or suppurative exudate
|
green/yellow coolor, has pus
|
|
pus indicates...
|
bacterial infection
|
|
hemorrhagic exudate indicates....
|
active bleeding
|
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hemorrahagic exudate
|
contains multiple erythrocytes (blood)
|
|
chronic inflammation occurs over an _____ length of time
|
increased
|
|
chronic inclammation lasts...
|
weeks or longer, regardless of cause
|
|
what are 4 causes of chronic inflammation?
|
1) unsuccessful acute inflammatory response
2) not much of an acute response 3) high lipid content MO's 4)persistent irritation from chemicals, particulate matter, or physical agents |
|
what could cause someone to have a poor acute response
|
immunocompromised patients
|
|
what are the characteristics of chronic inflammation?
|
1) dense infiltration of lymphocytes and macrophages
2) walled off site forming a granuloma |
|
resolution
|
returning injured tissue to the original structure and function
|
|
repair
|
replacement of destroyed tissue with scar tissue
|
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scar tissue
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composed primarily of collagen to restore the tensile strength of the tissue
|
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bebridement
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cleaning up the dissolved clots, MO's, erythrocytes, and dead tissue cells
|
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healing consists of...(3)
|
filling in the wound
epithelialization (sealing wound) contraction (shrinking wound) |
|
epithelialization
|
sealing the wound
|
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contraction
|
shrinking the wound
|
|
what is the 1st phase of healing?
|
acute inflammatory response
|
|
what is the second phase of healing?
|
reconstruction
|
|
recontruction
|
development of granulation tissue
|
|
fibroblasts
|
synthesize and secretes collagen
|
|
what is the most important cell during reconstruction?
|
fibroblasts
|
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what is the 3rd phase of healing?
|
maturation
|
|
maturation
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scar tissue is remodeled and capillaries disappear
|
|
collagen is
|
avascular
|
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primary intention healing
|
wounds that heal under condition of minimal tissue loss
|
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what is an ex of primary intention healing?
|
surgical incisions
|
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secondary intention healing
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wounds that require a great deal more tissue replacement
|
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ex. of econdary intention healing
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open wound
burns, large surface wounds, infection decubitus (bed sores) |
|
decubitus
|
bed sores
|
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what must be removed before healing can occur?
|
fibrin
|
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what can cause dysfunction during inflammatory response? (8)
|
hemorrhage
fibrous adhesion infection excess scar formation wound sepsis hypovolemia hypoproteinemia anti-inflammatory steroids |
|
what 3 things can cause dysnction during reconstructive phase?
|
impaired collagen matrix assembly
impaired epithelialization impaired contraction |
|
impaired collagen matrix assembly will cause....
|
keloid scar
|
|
impaired epithelialization can be caused by (3)
|
anti-inflammatory steroids
hypoxemia nutritional deficiencies |
|
the inflammatory phase occurs...
|
at the onset of injury
|
|
inflammatory phase constitutes what 2 stages of inflammation
|
vascular and cellular
|
|
reconstructive phase begins... lasts up to....
|
3-4 days after injury and lasts up to 2 weeks
|
|
main act in reconstructive phase
|
fibroblasts synthesize/secretes collagen forming granulation tissue
|
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remodeling phase
|
maturation phase
|
|
proliferative phase
|
recontructive phase
|
|
maturation phase beings...lasts up to
|
several weeks after injury, lasts up to 6 months-2 years
|
|
main step in maturation phase?
|
contraction of the wound and development of scar tissue
|
|
allergy
|
caused by environmental antigens
|
|
autoimmunity
|
self-antigens
|
|
SLE
|
systemic lupus erythematosus
|
|
systemic lupus erythematosus
|
chronic multisystem inflammatory disease
|
|
SLE creates autoantibodies against: (7)
|
nucleic acids, erythrocytes, coagulation proteins, phospholipids, lymphocytes, platelets,
|
|
90% of SLE pateints show:
|
arthralgias or arthritis
|
|
70-80% of SLE pateints show:
|
vasculitis and rash
|
|
40-50% of SLE pateints show:
|
Renal disease
|
|
50% of SLE pateints show:
|
hematologic changes
|
|
30-50% of SLE pateints show:
|
cardiovascular disease
|
|
To be diagnosed with SLE you must present with:
|
at least four of 11 common findings
|
|
11 findings of SLE
FDPONSRNHIP Friends Don't Put On Nice Shoes Right Next to Homely, Impoverished People |
Facial rash
Discoid rash photosensitivity oral or nasopharyngeal ulcers nonerosive arthritis serositis renal disorder neurologic disorder hematologic disorders immunologic disorders presssence of antinuclear antibodies |
|
AIDS is a syndrome caused by
|
Human immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
|
|
AIDS depletes...
|
the body's T helper cells
|
|
HIV is a...
|
retrovirus
|
|
retrovirus
|
genetic information is carried on RNA instad of DNA
|
|
How does HIV infect cells?
|
by binding to the surface of a traget cell through a receptor and inserting their RNA into the target cell
|
|
what acts as the primary receptor for HIV?
|
CD4
|
|
CD4
|
an antigen on the T helper Cell
|
|
you can be diagnosed with HIV in 4 ways:
|
serologically negative
serologically positive but asymptomatic early stages of HIV AIDS |
|
what are you looking for in a test of HIV?
|
antibodies against HIV
decreased number of Helper T cells |
|
to be diagnosed with HIV your CD4 needs to be...
|
<200
|
|
normal CD4
|
800-1000
|
|
you may be dianosed with AIDS even if you have - serogology if...
|
lymphoma of brain and younger than 60
lymphoid interstitial pneumonia <13 |
|
If you have positive serology, AIDS diagnosis is made....
|
in association to clinical symptoms
|
|
window period
|
period between infection and appearance of antibody
|
|
window period for AIDS
|
blood exposure- 4-7 weeks
sexual exposre-6-14 months |
|
what causes agining in the skin?
|
changes from genetic and evironmental factors
|
|
capillary loops....
|
chorten and decrease in number with aging
|
|
# of melanocytes and langerhans cells _______ with age
|
decrease
|
|
pruritis
|
itching
|
|
what is the most common cymptom of primary skin disorders?
|
pruritus
|
|
what causes the itch sensation?
|
specific unmyelinated nerve fibers triggered by itch mediators
|
|
what cause pressure ulvers?
|
pressure and shearing forces that occlude capillary blood flow with resultant ischemia and necrosis
|
|
where are the areas of greatest risk for pressure ulcers?
|
pressure points over bony prominences
|
|
who are high risk individuals for pressure ulcers?
|
immobilized with fractures and or neuroloical deficits
|
|
what are the clinical manifestations of pressure ulcers?
|
inflammatory response (pain, fever, leukocytosis) hyperemia
|
|
large pressure ulcers run the risk of...
|
toxicity and pain leading to loss of appetite, debility, and renal insufficiency
|
|
what are the 4 stages of pressure ulcers
|
1) nonblanchable erythema of intact skin
2) partial thickness skin loss involving epidermis or dermis 3) full-thickness skin loss involving damage or loss of subcutaneous tissue 4) full-thickness skin loss with damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures |
|
what is the most common inflammatory disorder of the skin
|
eczema
|
|
what causes eczema?
|
endogenous and exogenous agents
|
|
what are the 4 clinical manifestations of eczema?
|
pruritus
lesions with indistinct borders epidermal changes thick, leathery, hyperpigmentation |
|
psoriasis
|
chronic, relapsing, proliferating skin disease
|
|
what occurs in psoriasis
|
thickening of both epidermis and dermis. scaly, erythematous pruritic plaques
|
|
acne rosacea
|
hypertrophy and inflammation of the sebaceous glands, dvelos middle third of the face
|
|
Lupus erythematosus
|
inflammatory lesions in sun-exposed areas with a butterfly distribution over the nose and cheeks
|
|
erythema multiforme
|
acute inflammation of skin and mucous membranes with lesions
|
|
erythema multiforme is often associated with....
|
allergic reactions
|
|
what are the 2 types of erythema multiforme?
|
stevens-johnson syndrome
toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) |
|
Folliculitis
|
bacterial infection of the hair follicle
|
|
furuncles
|
infection of hair folicle that extends to the surrounding tissue
|
|
carbuncles
|
collection of infected hair follicles that forms a draining abscess
|
|
cellulitis
|
diffuse infection of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue
|
|
erysipelas
|
superficial streptococcal infection of skin
commonly on face, ears, and lower legs |
|
impetigo
|
bullous or ulcerative lesions caused by staph or strept
|
|
HSV 1
|
causes cold sores, can affect cornea, mouth, labia
|
|
HSV 2
|
genital lesions; usually spread by sexual contact
|
|
Herpes Zoster (shingles)
|
cuased by varicella zoster virus
|
|
Warts
|
benign, rough, elevated lesions caused by papillomavirus
|
|
condylomata acuminata
|
venereal warts (genital warts)
|
|
urticari
|
wheals, hives welts
|
|
urticari is associate with...
|
Type I hypersensitivity reactions to drugs, systemic diseases, or physical agents
|
|
scleroderma
|
sclerosis of the skin
|
|
scleroderma is more common in.....
|
women
|
|
seborrheic keratosis
|
benign proliferation of basal cells
|
|
what does seborrheic keratosis look like?
|
smooth or warty in appearance, tan to waxy yellow, flwesh-colored, dark-brown; oval and greasy
|
|
keratoacanthoma
|
benign, self-limiting; arises from hair follicles
|
|
deratoacanthoma looks like...
|
dome shaped, crusty lesion filled with keratin on face, back of hands, forearms, neck and legs
|
|
actinic keratosis
|
premalignant lesion found on skin surface exposed to UV radiation
|
|
actinic keratosis looks like...
|
pgmented patch of ouch, adherent scale
|
|
Nevi
|
pigmented or non-pigmented lesions that form from melanocytes beginning at age 3 to 5
pre malignant |
|
basal cell carcinoma originates in what 3 places?
|
interfollicular basal cells
hair follicles sebaceous glands |
|
what is the most common human cancer
|
basal cell carcinoma
|
|
what is the most common skin cancer
|
basal cell carcinoma
|
|
what does basal cell carcinoma look like?
|
depressed centers and rolled borders
grow by direct extension gernerally doesn't invade blood or lymph |
|
squamous cell carcinoma
|
tumor of epidermis either localized (in situ) or invasive lesions
|
|
squamous cell carcinoma looks like
|
firm, red, scaling, keratotic, slightly elevated lesion with irrecultar border, crusty ulcerations, raised erythematous borders
|
|
malignant melanoma
|
rapidly progressing malignant tumor of the melanocytes
|
|
metastsis of malignant melanoma occurs through the...
|
lymph nodes
|
|
ABCDE rule
|
asymmetry
border irregularity color variation diamter > 6 mm evolving or rapid enlargement |
|
kaposi sarcoma
|
vascular malignancy associatied with immunodeficiency and herpes virus
|
|
kaposi sarcoma looks like...
|
purplish brown macules that develop into plaque and nodules with angioproliferation
|
|
first degree burn
|
involve supreficial skin without loss of protective function
|
|
second degree burn
partial thickness |
blister formation
|
|
second degree burn
deep thickness |
involve entire dermis sparing skin app.
appear waxy white and take weeks to heal |
|
third degree burn
|
destruction of entire epi, dermis, and underlying subcutaneous tissue
|
|
cardiovascular response to burn
|
fluid and protein move out of the vascual compartment
|
|
what results from fluid and protein leaving vascular system after a burn? (4)
|
decreased cardiac output
elevated hematocrit elevated WBC count hypoproteinemia |
|
cellular impact of burns
|
impairments of sodium potassium pump
|
|
normal color of urine
|
abmer yellow
|
|
normal pH of urine
|
4.6-8
|
|
specific gravity of urine
|
density of water
1.010-1.025 |
|
blood in urine test
|
negative
|
|
crystals/fat in urine
|
negative
|
|
creatinine men
|
.6-1.5
|
|
creatinine women
|
.6-1.0
|
|
creatinine clearance
|
.8-2.1
|
|
what are 4 complications of a urinary tract obstruction?
|
impeded flow proximal to the blockage
dilates urinary system increases risk for infection compromises renal function |
|
the severity of consequences for a urinary tract obstruction is based on what 5 things?
|
location of obstructive lesion
whether 1 or both upper tracts involved severity of blockage duration nature of the obstructive lesion |
|
3 most common renal calculi
|
70% calcium oxalate or phosphate
15% struvite 7% uric acid |
|
Bladder neck dyssynergia
|
fails to funnel during micturition
|
|
urthral stricture
|
narrowing of urethral lumen
|
|
pelvic organ prolapse
|
cystocele descends below the urethral outlet; bladder protrudes into vagina
|
|
neurogenic bladder dysfunction
|
urinary incontinence or low bladder wall compliance
|
|
what could cause neurogenic bladder dysfunction
|
r/t lesions of CNS and spinal cord
|
|
vesicosphincter dyssynergia
|
lesions of spinal cord causing incoordination between the detrusor contraction and urethral sphincter
|
|
UTI can be caused by:
|
inflammation of urinary epithelium from pathogen (ex. e.choli)
inflammation of bladder (cystitis) |
|
Interstitial cystitis UTI
|
nonbacterial, cause obscure..often sexual
|
|
acute pyelonephritis
|
infection of renal pelvis and interstitium, one or both kidneys
|
|
what can cause acute pyelonephritis?
|
kidney stones, pregnancy, neurenic bladder, female sex trauma, reflux, e coli
|
|
what is the patho of acute pyelonephritis?
|
infiltration of WBC in renal medulla resulting in renal inflammation, renal edema and purulent urine
|
|
chronic pyelonephritis
|
persistent recurrent infeciton of the kidney leading to scarring
|
|
acute glomerulonephritis
|
begins adruptly 7-10 days after a strep infection
|
|
clinical acute glomerulonephritis
|
hematuria, RBC casts, proteinuria, decreased GFR oliguria
|
|
Good pasture syndrome
|
rapidly progressive glmerulonephritis
idiopathic...poor prognosis if untreated early |
|
chronic glomerulonephritis
|
several diseases leading ot chronic renal failure ass. with hypercholesterolemia and proteinuria
|
|
nephrotic syndrome
|
excretion of 3.5 g or more of protein in the urine per day
|
|
what disease will see hypoalbuminemia, edema, hyperlipidemia, lipiduriria and a vitaimin D definiciency?
|
nephrotic syndrome
|
|
what disease will see hematuria and proteinuria?
|
chronic glomerulonephritis
|
|
what are the 3 types of actue renal failure
|
prerenal
intrarenal postrenal |
|
prerenal
|
impaired renal blood flow
GFR declines due to decreased filtration pressure |
|
intrarenal
|
tubular necrosis, surgery sepsis, obstruction
|
|
postrenal
|
urinary tract obstruction (bilateral)
|
|
Chronic Renal Failure
|
progressive and irreversible loss of nephrons
|
|
what happens to the GFR during chronic renal failure?
|
decreases dramatically
|
|
when does chronic renal failure become apparent
|
not until renail function <25%
|
|
End stage renal Disease
|
< 10% renal funcion remains, progressive chronic renal failure
|
|
what is necessary to sustain life with ESRD?
|
dialysis
transplant |
|
what is the hematologic affect of ESRD?
|
anemia
|
|
what causes anemia in ESRD
|
decreased erythropoetin secretion by diney leads to decreased RBC production in bone marrow
|
|
Cardiopulmonary in ESRD
|
hypertension
|
|
what causes hypertension in ESRD?
|
fluid overload
|
|
what is the affects on the reproductive system of ESRD?
|
infertility
decreased libido impotence |
|
what is the affect of ESRD on the integumentary system
|
pruritus
uremic frost |
|
what is the affect of ESRD neurology?
|
fatigue
|
|
what is the affect of ESRD on the skeletal system
|
bone demineralization
|
|
what is the affect of ESRD on the gastrointestinal system
|
diarrhea
nausea vomiting |
|
what is the affect of ESRD on the renal system
|
retainment of wastes
oliguria/anuria BUN elevated Creatinine elevated |
|
what is the affect of ESRD on the endocrine system
|
hyperglycemia
|