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415 Cards in this Set

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normal respiratory rate for age <1
30-40
HR for age <1
110-160
Systolib BP age <1
70-90
Classic red flags in paediatric emergency
Purpuric rash
Bulging fontanelle
Biphasic stridor
High pitched scream
Bile stained vomiting
Persistent tachycardia Grunting respiration
What are the signs of respiratory distress in a child?
recession, grunting, nasal flair, accessory muscle use, head bobbling, cyanosis
Define clinically significant reduced fluid intake for a child
less than 1/2 of normal
Define reduced urine output for a child
<4 wet nappies in 24 hours
What does decorticate posturing imply?
a lesion above the brainstem
What does decerebrate posturing imply?
a lesion below the brainstem
What subset of paediatric patients may be seriously ill without showing much change in their ABCD status?
immune compromised children
early sepsis
Management of moderate croup?
Dexamethasone 0.15mg/kg then review in 3 hours- send home if stable
Management of severe croup?
Oxygen
Dexamethasone
Adrenaline nebs: 4ml of 1:1000
if airway unstable/fatigue: admit to PICU
Management of severe bronchiolitis
oxygen via mask/nasal prongs: maintains SaO2 >94%
IV fluids
Trial of nebulised salbutamol: continue if improvement
Nasopharingeal CPAP
Are antibiotics useful in managing croup?
no
What are the indications for intubation and ventillation of a child with croup?
PaO2 <50mmHg, rising PaCO2, fatigue, inability to protect the airway, depressed LOC, recurrent apnea
What is the most common cause of febrile illness in children?
Viral
red flags in a vomiting infant?
bilious vomiting
fever >39
blood in vomitus or stool;
severe abdo pain
Very young infant
normal sleep pattern for an 0-3 month old
95% sleep during the day every day
take 1/2 to 1 hour to settle
many wake up 6 times per night- 2 is most common
Normal sleep pattern for 1 year old
89% have daytime nap for 1-2 hours
Most settle between 6-8pm
80% settle quickly
night time awakenings common but only 10% wake more than 3x per night
Normal sleep pattern for a 2 year old?
1/2 have daytine nap, 1/2 wake up during the night and require parental attention
25% take more than 30 min to settle
How common is regurgitation in early life and how long does it usually last?
2/3 reported by parents at 4 months
Mostly resolves by 1 year of age
rarely causes problems for the child
When is reflux a problem?
When vomitus is blood stained- may indicate oesophagitis
When it leads to poor growth
Apnea/aspiration is very rare

Mostly just a cause of crying/irritability rather than being pathological
Is barium meal specific for reflux in a child?
No, results are affected by the way in which the test is performed
Useful for excluding causes of mechanical obstruction such as malrotation
How are children treated for reflux?
No treatment for mist children
Some evidence for thickened feeds
Little evidence for positioning
Metoclopramide more harm than good
PPI if evidence of oesophagitis on endoscopy
Fundoplication if severe
Is there evidence that food allergy has a role in reflux oesophagitis in children?
little evidence
Define primary lactase deficiency>
Most common form, occurs in individuals greater than 2 years of age
More common in asian and hispanic
What is secondary lactase deficiency
something which has damaged the small bowel
more common than primary lactase deficiency in infancy
Define congenital lactase deficiency?
very rare syndrome
do not survivw without lactose free supplements
Define developmental lactase deficiency
relative lactase deficiency observed in infants <34 weeks of age
How is lactose intolerance diagnosed?
2 weeks of lactose free diet
mild cases: hydrogen breath test
stool for low pH and reducing substances
intestinal biopsies for lactase actrivity
rule out: infections, celiac disease
Do breastfed infants with lactose intolerance need to stop being breastfed?
no
What is the most common cause of frothy stools in the breastfed infant?
relative lactose malabsorption- getting the carbohydrate rich foremilk rather than the fat-rich hind milk (which slows absorption and allows time for digestion).
What is the best indicator of the adequacy of milk supply?
number and heaviness of wet nappies
What is the expected weight gain of an infant-
100-200g/week
How do you manage fussy eating in a toddler?
reassure parents
make sure than not having excessive milk (not > 200ml/d) or snacks
May take up to 10 tries before a new food is accepted
realistic portion sizes
remove food after 1/2 hour
offer 3 meals and 2 snacks/day
need 3 serves of dairy/day
drink water with meals
Define constipation in a child?
delay or difficulty passing stool that is present for over 2 weeks
Normal stool frequency in a child?
1st week of life: 4 x d---> 1 x d by 2 years of age
Is it normal for some breastfed babies not to have stools for several days or longer?
yes
Most common type of constipation in a child?
functional constipation
holding in stools
caused by changes in routine/stressors
may lead to soiling and eventially abdominal distension, cramps or reduced oral intake
Management of functional constipation?
disimpation: oral or rectal medication (lactulose, glucerin suppository): <1yr also prune juice, >1 yr also mineral oil

Maintenance: dietary, behavioral modification and medication is necessary--> reduces relapse. Lactulose or mineral oil used. May be necessary for many months until bowel habit returns to normal.
Common symptoms of teethin?
biting, drooling, gum rubbing, irritability, decreased appetitie for solids, mildly raised temperature
Is a high fever usually associated with teething?
no

neighter is vomiting, diarrhoea and rashes
What is unilateral plagiocephaly and how does it develop?
more common in males and on the right side, Present from birth
What is the difference between bilateral and unilateral plagiocephaly?
unilateral present from birth, bilateral develops postnatally
both exacerbated by sleeping on back

Getting more common after back to sleep campaign
Differential diagnosis of positional plagiocephaly?
craniosynostosis, congenital muscular torticollis
differenc in examination in positional plagiocephally versus craniosynostosis
normal head circumference, no palpable ridging (as occurs over fused sutre), all fontanelles palpable, no other signs sich as hydrocephalus, develipmental delay
Indications for investigations in positional plagiocephaly?
usually none done
consider skull xray if concerned about synostosis, not improving or worstening head shape
Natural history of positional plagiocephaly
gradial improvement in head shape over the next 2 years
Howe common is nocturnal enuresis?
very common, 10% of 5 year olds

More common in boys
Is family history a factor in norcturnal enuresis?
yes, more common if positive family history
Define primary nocturnal enuresis?
never dry for more than a few months
Define secondaru nocturnal enuresis:
was dry for 6 months then wet again
Which children need professional help for their nocturnal enuresis?
if still wetting > 6 years
Is fluid restriction before bed effective for nocturnal enuresis?
no, neither is waking up the child at night
What is the most effective treatment for nocturnal enuresis?
2/3 dry with alarm use

desmopressin reduces the number of wet nights but the effect is non sustained- advise child not to drink more than 240ml of fluid in the evening to prevent water intoxication
From what age is toilet training usually sucessful?
2 1/2 years
What are non-atopic wheezers?
non-allerfic
wheezing associated with viral infections
resolves by 5-6 years
What are non-atopic wheezers?
non-allerfic
wheezing associated with viral infections
resolves by 5-6 years
How often is spirometry done for a paediatric patient?
at diagnosis and at each follow-up
requires a mental age of 4-6
What are the inhallational medication delivery devices available for children under 6
MDI with spacer
<4: small spacer with mask
>4: small spacer or large spacer, with mouthpiece
At what age can an MDI with no spacer be used?
Age >8
At what age can breath activated devices be used?
Age > 6
Are central or neuromuscular causes more frequent in floppy infants?
central
e.g. concequences of sepsis, meningitis and hyperbilirubinemia
What features on examination of an infant provide a clue that hypotonia is central or neuromuscular?
central has normal reflexes, neuromuscular has ansent or depressed reflexes
central: depressed alertness, seizures, dysmorphic, nystagmus, no weakness

neuromuscular: weakness, alert child that is not moving
Features of spinal muscular atrophy type 1
marked proximal weakness
decreased movement
bell-shaped chest
mobile, expressive face
intellifence is normal
tongue fasciculations
absent reflexes
How do you test for spinal muscular atrophy?
SMN gene test
Natural history of ducenne muscular dystrophy
most common inherited muscle disease
C-linked recessive inheritance
affects 1/3500 boys
presents in early childhood with muscle weakness
loss of independent ambulation
cardiomyopathy, respiratory insufficiency
death in 2nd/3rd dec
Typical clinical pathway to the diagnosis of ducenne muscular dystrophy?
family history
typical clinical presentation
raised CK
family history
dystrophin gene test
What can improve survival in duchenne muscular dystrophy?
excellend medical care, spinal surgery, ventillation, corticosteroids
Mechanism of steroids in management of muscular dystrophy?
exact mechanism not known: positive effect on myogenesis, anabolic effect on muscke mass, stabillization of membranes, attenuation of necrosis, intracellular Ca
Efficacy of corticosteroids in the management of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
long-term early onset therapy may provide prolonged ambulation
respiratory function at 15 years maintained at or above 80% (control is 40%)
None require scoliosis surgery (control 50%)

side effects: growth suppression
cateracts (asymptomatic)
osteopenia (asymptomatic)
Clinical findings in congenital myopathies?
hypotonia
facial weaknes --> dysmorphism (ptosis, high palate)
resp insufficiency
bulbar weakness
aspiration
scoliosis
contractures
intelligence normal
non-progressive or slowly progressive clinical course
What % of illnesses < 5 years of age are acute respiratory infections?
50%

30% 5-12
95% URTI
LRTI- early life and boys
What % of ARI's in children are viral and what virusses cause these?
90%
rhinovirus, rsv
piv 123
influenza
adenovirus
metapneumovirus
What % of ari's in children are bacterial?
10%
Incidence of paediatric food allergy?
16% by parent questionairre
1-3% by population based studies
What are the types of food allergy?
IgE mediated and non-Ige mediated
Clinical features of IgE mediated food allergies
Short time course < 2hrs
mild moderate or severe
can be unpredictable in severity
positivve exposure history not always present
Define a mild igE mediated food allergy?
localised facial erythema or utricaria/angioedema
Define moderatye IgE mediated food allergy?
generallised utricaria/angioedema/vomiting or both
Efficacy of corticosteroids in the management of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
long-term early onset therapy may provide prolonged ambulation
respiratory function at 15 years maintained at or above 80% (control is 40%)
None require scoliosis surgery (control 50%)

side effects: growth suppression
cateracts (asymptomatic)
osteopenia (asymptomatic)
Clinical findings in congenital myopathies?
hypotonia
facial weaknes --> dysmorphism (ptosis, high palate)
resp insufficiency
bulbar weakness
aspiration
scoliosis
contractures
intelligence normal
non-progressive or slowly progressive clinical course
What % of illnesses < 5 years of age are acute respiratory infections?
50%

30% 5-12
95% URTI
LRTI- early life and boys
What % of ARI's in children are viral and what virusses cause these?
90%
rhinovirus, rsv
piv 123
influenza
adenovirus
metapneumovirus
What % of ari's in children are bacterial?
10%
Incidence of paediatric food allergy?
16% by parent questionairre
1-3% by population based studies
What are the types of food allergy?
IgE mediated and non-Ige mediated
Clinical features of IgE mediated food allergies
Short time course < 2hrs
mild moderate or severe
can be unpredictable in severity
positivve exposure history not always present
Define a mild igE mediated food allergy?
localised facial erythema or utricaria/angioedema
Define moderatye IgE mediated food allergy?
generallised utricaria/angioedema/vomiting or both
Define a severe Ige-mediated food allergy?
generallused utricaria/angioedema and strodor or wheeze
pale/floppy in small infants
% BSA in head of child vs adult
Head of child 18%
Head of adult 9%
% BSA in leg of child vs adult
Leg of child: 14%
Leg of adult 18%
Early care of curns
Wash in chlorhexidine 0.1-0.2%
remove loose, dead keratin
early blisters: drain or deroof
late blosters: leave
dress wounds
check tetanus prophylaxis
no antibiotics
When is bone remodelling expected after a fracture in a child?
When there is > 2 yrs of growth remaining
fracture is near the metaphysis
deformity is in the plane of joint movement
When is remodelling not expected in a child who has sustained a fracture?
intra-articular
diaphiseal fracture with gross angulation, shortening or rotation
fractures with deformity at right angles to plain of joing movement
Biomechanical differences between child and adult
ligaments stronger than growth plate
easy to produce epiphiseal separation
difficult to produce dislocations or sprains
young bone more porous- tolerates more deformation but less compression/tension
What is overgrowth after a fracture and where does this occur?
fracture stimulates longditudional growth- increased blood flow associated with fracture healing stimulates growth plates, loss of tether in periosteum

usually only a concern in the femur which may have 1-2 cm of overgrowth after a fracture
How long does it take for phiseal injuries to heal?
3 weeks in femur
Spead of healing of femoral fractures by age
3-4 weeks at birth
10-14 weeks in adolescence
14-20 weeks in adulthood
What % of fractures under the age of 3 are non-accidental injury?
25%

suspect with rib, old, corner, bucket handle
Biomechanical differences between child and adult
ligaments stronger than growth plate
easy to produce epiphiseal separation
difficult to produce dislocations or sprains
young bone more porous- tolerates more deformation but less compression/tension
What is overgrowth after a fracture and where does this occur?
fracture stimulates longditudional growth- increased blood flow associated with fracture healing stimulates growth plates, loss of tether in periosteum

usually only a concern in the femur which may have 1-2 cm of overgrowth after a fracture
How long does it take for phiseal injuries to heal?
3 weeks in femur
Spead of healing of femoral fractures by age
3-4 weeks at birth
10-14 weeks in adolescence
14-20 weeks in adulthood
What % of fractures under the age of 3 are non-accidental injury?
25%

suspect with rib, old, corner, bucket handle
How soon should you have surgery with an open fracture?
Within 6 hours
What are the common newborn fractures and what conditions predispose to these?
humerus, clavicle, femur

predisposing: high BW, spina bifida, osteogenesis imperfecta
Clinical scenario of a "pulled elbow"
1-4 years
refuses to use arm
history not always reliable
management of a "pulled elbow"
supination of flexed elbow

if unsucessful: reconider diagnosis, rest
What type of cancer is very common in adults and almost never occurs in children?
carconoma
Differences between adult and childhood cancers?
1-2 step process
not usually associated with lifestyle factors
Many tumours highly sensitive to chemotherapy
Over 75% of children with cancer are cured permanently
Cardinal symptoms of cancer in a child?
persistent/recurrent fever without a cause
persistent pain esp. bone pain/headache
mass
purputa
pallor
strabismus
changes in coordination/behavior
Most common child hood ca?
ALL (leukaemia 30% childhood cancer, ALL 80% of leukaemia> CNS > neuroblastoma > NHL > Wims
Good prognostic factors for childhood ALL?
Age 2-10, lower WCC, prednisone response, no CNS disease, hyperdiploidy, B- precursor, t(12:21)
Bad prognostic factors in childhood ALL?
Infant or age > 10 years
high wcc
CNS disease
T-cell disease
Philadelphia
t(4;11)
Management of childhood ALL?`
1 month induction- 98% remission
firther 5-6m "heavy chemo"
1.5 yrs oral 'gentle' maintenance chemo
75% cured

CNS: usually intrathecal chemo, sometimes cranial RT
What is the ptognosis of whildhood AML like compared to ALL?
More serious than ALL- best hope is 60% cure- requires very intense chemo (high dose cytosine, leads to prolonged marrow aplasia, requires prolonged inpatient stay)
Effects of radiation therapy on the brain in children
may affect neurocognitive function- worse if younger and if supratentorial brain is irradiated

may cause hypopit
carcinogenic
Where do neuroblastomas arise from?
adrenal gland or sympathetic nerve trunks
most are abdominal (also thoracic, pelvic, cervical, other)
Prognosis of neuroblastoma?
majority are malignant with poor prognosis- require intesive chemo, surgery, ABMT

Some have favourable biology and are readily cured: better <1yr
What is the worst kind of neuroblastoma?
stage IV in children over 12m
presents with flank mass/other mass
unhappy
bony metastases e.g. black eyes, lumps
anaemia
Presentations of neuroblastoma
newbown with a massive liver
neck mass
paraspinal chest mass
spinal cord compression
adrenal mass on antenatal check
What is the age that gets affected by wilms tumour?
young children- 1-7 yeats
presenting symptoms of wilms tumour?
flank mass- can be huge, often painless
haematuria
mets to lung/liver
management and prognosis of wilms tumour
surfery/chemo/rt
good prognosis
Is renal cell carcinoma common in children?
no, very rare
Presentation of T-lymphoblastic lymphoma?
older child, mediastinal mass, pleural effusion
Presentation of Burkitt's lymphoma?
abdominal disease
intussuception
abdominal mass
marrow/csf disease
What age group gets bone sarcomas?
adolescents/ young afults- corresponds to adolescent growth spurt
Where do ewings sarcomas grow?
diaphiseal long bones
axial skeleton
extra osseious
Genetics of ewing sarcoma?
t(11;22) leads to EWS-FLI1 fusion transcrip
Genetics of ewing sarcoma?
t(11;22) leads to EWS-FLI1 fusion transcrip
Prognosis of osteosarcoma and wqing sarcoma?

Prognosis of rhabdomyosarcoma?
80% survival if non-metastatic
Prognosis of osteosarcoma and wqing sarcoma?

Prognosis of rhabdomyosarcoma?
80% survival if non-metastatic
Where does osteosarcoma arise?
growing ends of long bones
distal femur, proximal tibia and prox humerus
may be many month history of growth
Where does osteosarcoma arise?
growing ends of long bones
distal femur, proximal tibia and prox humerus
may be many month history of growth
Most common soft tissue sarcoma in children?
rhabdomyosarcoma most common- embryonal and alveolar subtypes

sensitive to chemo and radiotherapy
Most common soft tissue sarcoma in children?
rhabdomyosarcoma most common- embryonal and alveolar subtypes

sensitive to chemo and radiotherapy
Genetics of ewing sarcoma?
t(11;22) leads to EWS-FLI1 fusion transcrip
Are non-rhabdo sarcomas more or less chemosensitive than rhabdosarcoma?
less
Are non-rhabdo sarcomas more or less chemosensitive than rhabdosarcoma?
less
Prognosis of osteosarcoma and wqing sarcoma?

Prognosis of rhabdomyosarcoma?
80% survival if non-metastatic
Genetics of ewing sarcoma?
t(11;22) leads to EWS-FLI1 fusion transcrip
Most common sites of rhabdomyosarcoma in a child?
22% genitourinatu
18% extremity
16% parameningeal
10% other head and neck
Most common sites of rhabdomyosarcoma in a child?
22% genitourinatu
18% extremity
16% parameningeal
10% other head and neck
Genetics of ewing sarcoma?
t(11;22) leads to EWS-FLI1 fusion transcrip
Where does osteosarcoma arise?
growing ends of long bones
distal femur, proximal tibia and prox humerus
may be many month history of growth
Components of the HEADSS interview?
home
education
exercise/nutrition
activities
sex
social
suicide
Components of the HEADSS interview?
home
education
exercise/nutrition
activities
sex
social
suicide
Prognosis of osteosarcoma and wqing sarcoma?

Prognosis of rhabdomyosarcoma?
80% survival if non-metastatic
Most common soft tissue sarcoma in children?
rhabdomyosarcoma most common- embryonal and alveolar subtypes

sensitive to chemo and radiotherapy
Prognosis of osteosarcoma and wqing sarcoma?

Prognosis of rhabdomyosarcoma?
80% survival if non-metastatic
Define puberty?
10-16 years
Where does osteosarcoma arise?
growing ends of long bones
distal femur, proximal tibia and prox humerus
may be many month history of growth
Define puberty?
10-16 years
Where does osteosarcoma arise?
growing ends of long bones
distal femur, proximal tibia and prox humerus
may be many month history of growth
Define youth?
12-24
Define youth?
12-24
Most common soft tissue sarcoma in children?
rhabdomyosarcoma most common- embryonal and alveolar subtypes

sensitive to chemo and radiotherapy
Are non-rhabdo sarcomas more or less chemosensitive than rhabdosarcoma?
less
Most common sites of rhabdomyosarcoma in a child?
22% genitourinatu
18% extremity
16% parameningeal
10% other head and neck
Most common soft tissue sarcoma in children?
rhabdomyosarcoma most common- embryonal and alveolar subtypes

sensitive to chemo and radiotherapy
Define young adulthood?
18-30
Are non-rhabdo sarcomas more or less chemosensitive than rhabdosarcoma?
less
Define young adulthood?
18-30
Are non-rhabdo sarcomas more or less chemosensitive than rhabdosarcoma?
less
Components of the HEADSS interview?
home
education
exercise/nutrition
activities
sex
social
suicide
Most common sites of rhabdomyosarcoma in a child?
22% genitourinatu
18% extremity
16% parameningeal
10% other head and neck
Components of the HEADSS interview?
home
education
exercise/nutrition
activities
sex
social
suicide
Define puberty?
10-16 years
Most common sites of rhabdomyosarcoma in a child?
22% genitourinatu
18% extremity
16% parameningeal
10% other head and neck
Components of the HEADSS interview?
home
education
exercise/nutrition
activities
sex
social
suicide
Define youth?
12-24
Define puberty?
10-16 years
Define young adulthood?
18-30
Define puberty?
10-16 years
Define youth?
12-24
Define youth?
12-24
Define young adulthood?
18-30
Define young adulthood?
18-30
average duration of sleep a 16 year old needs?
8 1/2 hours per night
required nightly sleep duration declines during adolescence
Changes in sleep during adolescence
fall asleep and wake later
marked reduction in slow-wave sleep: 40% decline from age 10 to age 20--> less restorative sleep
REM sleep decreases in absolute terms but remains constant as a proportion of sleep time
increased daytime sleepiness
yo-yo sleeping
Australian adolescents do not get enough sleep: less than americans esp. on sunday/school nights
Use of actigraphy?
define sleep cycles together with sleep diary
average duration of sleep a 16 year old needs?
8 1/2 hours per night
required nightly sleep duration declines during adolescence
What is delayed sleep phase disorder?
unusually long circadian rhythm
7-16 prevalence in adolescents and young adults
up to 40% have a positive family hx
Changes in sleep during adolescence
fall asleep and wake later
marked reduction in slow-wave sleep: 40% decline from age 10 to age 20--> less restorative sleep
REM sleep decreases in absolute terms but remains constant as a proportion of sleep time
increased daytime sleepiness
yo-yo sleeping
Australian adolescents do not get enough sleep: less than americans esp. on sunday/school nights
Prevalence of insomnia in adolescents?
1/4 have at least 1 symptom
diagnostic insomnia has a point prevalence of 4-5% in adolescents
DSM IV diagnosis of insomnia?
– Difficulty initiating sleep
– Difficulty maintaining sleep
– Early morning waking
– Non-restorative sleep

All of the above should have occurred in the preceding 4 weeks causing significant impairment &/or distress
Use of actigraphy?
define sleep cycles together with sleep diary
Causes of insomnia with an adolescent?
primary (heeadsss)
part of psych disorder
drug and medication related
What is delayed sleep phase disorder?
unusually long circadian rhythm
7-16 prevalence in adolescents and young adults
up to 40% have a positive family hx
% of adolescents that report being victims of cyber bullying?
50-70%
Prevalence of insomnia in adolescents?
1/4 have at least 1 symptom
diagnostic insomnia has a point prevalence of 4-5% in adolescents
Are cyber bullying perpetrators more commonly female or male?
female
DSM IV diagnosis of insomnia?
– Difficulty initiating sleep
– Difficulty maintaining sleep
– Early morning waking
– Non-restorative sleep

All of the above should have occurred in the preceding 4 weeks causing significant impairment &/or distress
Major health issues in adolescents?
1. mental health: anxiety disorders and depression
2. chronic illness and disability
3. reducing or avoiding risk for future ill health

20-30% of adolescents report their health as poor
22% asthma
15% adhd
Causes of insomnia with an adolescent?
primary (heeadsss)
part of psych disorder
drug and medication related
% of adolescents that report being victims of cyber bullying?
50-70%
Are cyber bullying perpetrators more commonly female or male?
female
Major health issues in adolescents?
1. mental health: anxiety disorders and depression
2. chronic illness and disability
3. reducing or avoiding risk for future ill health

20-30% of adolescents report their health as poor
22% asthma
15% adhd
average duration of sleep a 16 year old needs?
8 1/2 hours per night
required nightly sleep duration declines during adolescence
Changes in sleep during adolescence
fall asleep and wake later
marked reduction in slow-wave sleep: 40% decline from age 10 to age 20--> less restorative sleep
REM sleep decreases in absolute terms but remains constant as a proportion of sleep time
increased daytime sleepiness
yo-yo sleeping
Australian adolescents do not get enough sleep: less than americans esp. on sunday/school nights
Use of actigraphy?
define sleep cycles together with sleep diary
What is delayed sleep phase disorder?
unusually long circadian rhythm
7-16 prevalence in adolescents and young adults
up to 40% have a positive family hx
Prevalence of insomnia in adolescents?
1/4 have at least 1 symptom
diagnostic insomnia has a point prevalence of 4-5% in adolescents
DSM IV diagnosis of insomnia?
– Difficulty initiating sleep
– Difficulty maintaining sleep
– Early morning waking
– Non-restorative sleep

All of the above should have occurred in the preceding 4 weeks causing significant impairment &/or distress
Causes of insomnia with an adolescent?
primary (heeadsss)
part of psych disorder
drug and medication related
% of adolescents that report being victims of cyber bullying?
50-70%
Are cyber bullying perpetrators more commonly female or male?
female
Major health issues in adolescents?
1. mental health: anxiety disorders and depression
2. chronic illness and disability
3. reducing or avoiding risk for future ill health

20-30% of adolescents report their health as poor
22% asthma
15% adhd
When do most mental health problems start?
75% start in adolescents
50% of depressed adolescents undiagnosed
Risk factors for language disorder in a child
family history
hearing impairment
preterm VLBW
intellectual disacility
autism spectrum
seizure dioseders
genetic e.g. fragile X, Down, Williams, NF1, VCF, Duchenne, XXY
Components of autistic disorder
onset before 3 years; more than 6 items

qualitative social impairment
qualitative impaired communication
restricted/stereotyped behavior
DSM IV for asbergers
qualitative social impairment
restricted/stereotyoed behavior
significant impairment
no general langualge delay
no cognitive/self help/ curiosity delay
What are the two types of ADHD?
Impusive (much more common in boys, early referral, social rejection, language/speech disorder, motor) vs
Inattentive (issues with organisation/memory planning, boys >= girls, late referral)
What is selective mutism?
anxiety diorder in the social context of speaking
behavior of silence not abscence of speech
more common infemales- mean onset 4 yrs
fmily hx of anxity
What are adrenergic agonists used for in child psychiatry?
aggression
What are TCA's used for in child psychiatry?
anxiety, adhd
When do milk teeth develop?
start in utero and fully developed by 6m
When do primary teeth erupt?
6-36m
How many primary teeth are there?
20
When do permanent teeth erupt?
6-18 yrs
What bacteria are present in dental caries?
s. mutans
lactobacillus
infant mouth: 6-30m
Can caries be transmitter vertically?
yes- high rates if mother has dental decay
approximately 75% of all caries are found in 20% of children
modification of mother's flora is possible
Which children are at risk for caries?
special needs
mothers with high caries rates
inappropriate prolonged feeding
later order offspring
low ses
mother's education level
When is dental trauma most common
two peaks: 2-4 and 8-10 years
maxillary anterior teeth
usually a single tooth
includes both hard and soft tissues
Should you replace avulsed primary teeth?
no, can damage the oermanent tooth
Should you replace a permanent tooth?
yes, replace immeadiately'if not possible place in milk/saline
When do milk teeth develop?
start in utero and fully developed by 6m
When do primary teeth erupt?
6-36m
How many primary teeth are there?
20
When do permanent teeth erupt?
6-18 yrs
What bacteria are present in dental caries?
s. mutans
lactobacillus
infant mouth: 6-30m
Can caries be transmitter vertically?
yes- high rates if mother has dental decay
approximately 75% of all caries are found in 20% of children
modification of mother's flora is possible
Which children are at risk for caries?
special needs
mothers with high caries rates
inappropriate prolonged feeding
later order offspring
low ses
mother's education level
When is dental trauma most common
two peaks: 2-4 and 8-10 years
maxillary anterior teeth
usually a single tooth
includes both hard and soft tissues
Should you replace avulsed primary teeth?
no, can damage the oermanent tooth
Should you replace a permanent tooth?
yes, replace immeadiately'if not possible place in milk/saline
How do you test visual acuity in the verbal child? (2-5)
Kay pictures test
Sheridan Gardener test (single letters, linear)
Snellen chart (5+)
Epidemiology of retinoblastoma
present before age 3 in 75%
Bilateral 25%
Germile mutation 25%
Somatic mutation 75%
Associated with chromosome 13
Presenting signs od retinoblastoma?
leukocoria
strabismus
secondary glaucoma
uveitis
Management of preseptal cellulitis
Admit to hospital
iv antibiotics
imaging of no better in 48 hours
Management of orbital cellulitis?
admit to hospiral
IV antibiotics
CT scan head and obits
drain abscess if present
When is early surgery for protisis indicated?
when it is interfering with visual development
otherwise defer surgery until age 4-5
Is decreased vision a common cause of reading difficulties in a child?
no, usually due to a specific learning disability
In the foetus, how much of the cardiac output is from the right ventricle?
2/3--> 85% of this goes into the aorta via the ductis and 15% enters the lungs via the pulmonary arteries
How does blood det back to the placent within the foetus
descending aorta00> internal iliac arteries --> umbilical arteries --> placents
What happens to oxygenated blood within the foetus?
placenta--> umbilical vein--> ductus venosus--> IVC--> foramen ovale--> LA/LV--> ascending aorta and coronaru circulation
When does the PDAclose?
functionally after 10-15 hrs as a result of increased PaO2 and changes in prostiglandin metabolism
closes permanently within 2-3 weeks with combination of thrombosis, intimal prolif and fibrosis
When does the ductus venosus close?
starts shortly after birth- due to a cessation of umbilical venous return
complete closure 3-7 days after birth
What does the child switch from right to left ventricular dominance?
Throughout adolescence, complete by adulthood
When does heart rate peak in a child
From 3 weeks-3months, then slowly frops to adult level
Which children get endocarditis prophylaxis
prosthetic valves
history of endocarditis
post cardiac transplant with valvulopathy
rhumatic heart disease with valve pathology
selected congenital heart disease- unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart disease, palliative shunts, conduits, prosthetic material first 6m, prosthetic material with residual defect
Frequency of congenital heart disease?
6-8/1000 live births
commonest congenital defect
Most common congenital heart disease?
VSD- 30-35%
PDA- 10-11%
Do most casesn of congenital heart disease have a clear aetiological explanation?
no, most unexplained
What are the features of an innocent murmur
normal peripheral examination
systolic
varies with body position
grade 1-3- no thrill
enhanced when ill
ejection
musical/vibratory
What are the innocent murmurs of childhood?
stills
pulmonary flow
carotid bruit
venous hum
What is the difference between the ECG of a young child and an adult?
"right sided" forces predominant initially- right acis deviation in newbown- by 12 years of age axis is normal
VSD on a CXR
increased pulmonary vascular markings
cardiomegaly
What does the child switch from right to left ventricular dominance?
Throughout adolescence, complete by adulthood
When does heart rate peak in a child
From 3 weeks-3months, then slowly frops to adult level
Which children get endocarditis prophylaxis
prosthetic valves
history of endocarditis
post cardiac transplant with valvulopathy
rhumatic heart disease with valve pathology
selected congenital heart disease- unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart disease, palliative shunts, conduits, prosthetic material first 6m, prosthetic material with residual defect
Frequency of congenital heart disease?
6-8/1000 live births
commonest congenital defect
Most common congenital heart disease?
VSD- 30-35%
PDA- 10-11%
Do most casesn of congenital heart disease have a clear aetiological explanation?
no, most unexplained
What are the features of an innocent murmur
normal peripheral examination
systolic
varies with body position
grade 1-3- no thrill
enhanced when ill
ejection
musical/vibratory
What are the innocent murmurs of childhood?
stills
pulmonary flow
carotid bruit
venous hum
What is the difference between the ECG of a young child and an adult?
"right sided" forces predominant initially- right acis deviation in newbown- by 12 years of age axis is normal
VSD on a CXR
increased pulmonary vascular markings
cardiomegaly
Give some examples of cyanotic congenital heart disease?
TOF
TGA
Truncus arteriosus
Tricuspid atresia
Total anomalous pulmonary venous circulation
Ebstain anomaly/single ventricle
Pathogenesis of impetigo
S.aureus and rarely GAS
Release toxin that splits the epidermis at the stratum corneum- split results in blister formation
Management of impetigo
Collect skin swabs for culture and sensitivity
oral antibiotics 7-10 days
decolonization: skin and linen 2-4 weeks, nasal with bactroban
Causes of folliculitis in children?
staph aureus
dermatophytes
pseudomonas
Predisposing factors to staph aureus folliculitis
atopic dematitis
shaving of legs
butt worms
Management of staph aureus folliculitis?
As for impetigo: 7-10 days oral abx, decolonization, culture and sensitivity
Presentation of dermatophyte-related folliculitis?
pustular folliculitis- grouped pustules with peripheral expansion
may be colonised with staph
usually acquired from pet e.g. guinea pig
Diagnosis and management of pustular folliculitis?
KOH microscopu and fungal culture
treated with griseofulvin 8-10 weeks
Diagnosis and management of folliculitis caused by pseudomonas?
scattered pustules around rhe trunk
heated pools, spas
diagnosis confirmed by culture
Manage by avoiding exposure
Is tinea usually unilateral or bilateral?
unilateral e.g. 1 foot
Classic appearance of scalp infection by tinea?
incomplete alopecia, short/lustreless hairs +/- flourescence with woods light
scalp: scaling, pustules, kerion
lymphadenopathy
Management of cutaneous tinea
topical antifungals for 6 weeks after confirming diagnosis with scrapings (microscopy and culture)
oral griseofulvin given for patients with widespread infection, pustular infection, groin, hands,feet affected
Management of scalp tinea?
oral griseofulvin for 2-3 weeks
Management of nail infections by tinea
take a few nail clippings- false negatives are common
loceryl nail colour
lamisyl for 3-6 months
How do children acquire molluscum contagiosum?
poxvirus which is spread through direct contact or water
Management of molluscum contagiosum
Resolve spontaneously over 6-12m as immune response occurs- papules develop erythema as immune response is underway
aim of management is to minimise spread- showering without sponges, pat dry with towel
Induce an early immune response- imiquimod cream, gently prick, cryotherapy in older patients
Management of herpes symplex?
topical antivirals in localised infection
systemic antivirals if atopic dermatitis/widespread infection
Treatment of HPV infections in children?
treatment is aimed at stimulating an immune response
topical therapy, cryotherapy
Management of staph aureus colonization in atopic dermatitis?
Why is it nevessary to treat this?
may exacerbate atopic dermatitis through superantigen mechanism
treat with antibacterial bath oil/ low dose bactrim
When is food intolerance likely to be a significant factor in atopic dermatitis?
1st 2 yrs of life
eggs and nuts > cows milk > wheat
Common forms of paediatric psorriasis?
facial
flexural
scalp
guttate
Management of paediatric psorriasis?
treat triggering factors: strep infection, medications
Topical therapy: steroids, tar, dithranol, diavonex
Phototherapy: sunlight, UVB
Oral therapy: methotrexate, cyclosprin
Issues with haemangioma over the eye?
high risk of occular complications
oral steroids started to prevenet further growth
What id the main problem with large haemangiomas over the face?
can give rise to a residual cosmetic defect
give oral steroids to minimise growth
Where can haemangiomas be a marker for an underlying defect
gluteal cleft- spinal/urogenital
mandibular area- laringeal
What is PHACE?
P- posterior cranial fossa abnormalities
H- haemangiomas
A- arterial anomalies
C-- coarctation of the aorta
E- eye abnormalities
Treatment options for haemangioma?
oral and intralesional steroids
vincristine
interferon
Clues towards aetiology in a pale/anaemic child?
short- aplasia
long- iron deficiency, inherited anaemia
What does a pale and yellow child with red urine most likely have?
intravascular haemolysis
What do bacterial infections sicj as skin pustules, pneumonia, bacteraemia indicate?
neutrophil disorder: neutropenia
chronic granulomatous disease
leukocyte adhesion disorder
What do viral and fungal infections indicate
immunodeficiency
Neonatal neutropenia indicates?
sepsis, alloimmune
Neutropenia in infancy indicates?
viral, autoimmune, congenital
Neutropenia in childhood indicates?
drug induced, viral, leukaemia, marrow infiltration
Neutropenia + vomiting in infancy?
B12 deficiency
Neutropenia + malabsorption?
Schwachman syndrome, pearson syndrome
Neutropenia + periodic mouth ulcers and fevers?
cyclical neutropenia
Risk factors for DDH?

LIMITED ABDUCTION IN FLEXION
female (6x)
packing
family history
breech birth
race
Incidence of DDH?
4/1000 dislocatable/dislocated
Imaging of DDH?
< 6m- ultrasound
> 6m- xray

Indications: family history, breech, abnormal signs
Management of DDH?
open or closed reduction- brace in flexion and abduction

pavlik harness, dennis browne brace, hip spika
Age and gender disoribution of transient synovitis?
Age 2-5
M: F 3:2

Aetilogy: unknown, viral sinovitis
Clinical features of transient synovitis?
pain, limp, stiffness, positive trandelenberg
Management of transient synovitis?
rest, NSAIDS
Prognosis of transient synovitis?
95% recover in 2 weeks
5% Perthes disease
Age, sex and incidence of perthes disease?
Age 4-10
Male 4x
1/1000- 10% bilateral
Management of Perthes disease
Key is containment- either non-operative with a brace or with pelvic or femoral osteotomy
Bad prognostic factors in pethes disease
Late age of onset >8, whole head involvement, lateral subluxation
Outcome of perthes disease
OA at age 40-50%
Age and sex distribution of SCFE?
Male 12-15
Female 10-13

M:F 3:2

Incidence is increaseing
Clinical presentation of SCFE?
obesity
pain
limp
out-toeing
Outcome of SCFE?
OA by age 50
50% need THR
Differences in airway anatomy between adult and child?
Large cranium tends to buckle airway
Nasal breathers 4-6m
Large tongue
Small face, mandible, cephalad larynx
When are children obligate nasal breathers?
4-6 months
Difference in breathing mechanics in adults and children?

Difference in breathing physiology in adults and children?
Horizontal ribs, fewer trype 1 fibres- early fatigue, thin chest wall
rely on diaphrafmatic breathing
higher rr
tidal vol 7-10ml/kg
Most common cause of cardiac arrest in a child?
hypoventillation
How much blood volume lost until child manifests minimal signs of shock?
25%
How much blood volume is lost when a child is clinically hypotensive?
45%
Blood volume in a child?
80ml/kg
Volume of fluid bolus in hypovolaemiac child?
10-20ml/kg
crystalloid x 3 then blood
Normal urien output in a child?
Up to 1ye- 2ml/kg/hr
toddler- 1.5ml/kg/hr
Older child 1ml/kg/hr
Adult 0.5ml/kg/hr
Modified GCS in a child
Best verbal response
5- appropriate words or social smile, fixes, follows
4- cries but consolable
3- persistently irritable
2- restless and agitated
1- no response
Difference between chest trauma in adult and a child?
lung contusion in abscence of tib fracture possible
mobile mediasdtinum
remember to decompress stomach
Are young parents a risk factor for a battered child?
yes
Signs of intucusseption on abdominal ultrasound?
target lesion/doughnut sign/psudokidney sign
Fluid recussitation of a baby with pyloric stenosis prior to surgery?
bolus saline and mantenance 1/2 normal saline- add potassium when passes urine

remember initially with have metabolic alkalosis and later will be acidotic
Invidence of epilepsy, arthritis, cp per 1000 children
epilepsy 2.9
arthritis 2.2
cp 1.3
diabetes 1.0
Define arthritis
either joint swelling/effusion or 2 or more of: tenderness or pain on movement, limited movement, increased warmth
What are the classification criteria for JIA?
onset < 16 yrs of age
Duration > 6 weeks
exclusion of other causes: trauma, infection, malignanay, mechanical, haemarthroses, paediatric pain synromes, autoimmune disease
Is there a diagnostic test for JIA?
nil
Testing for septic arthritis?
joint aspirate and culture, blood culture
Diagnosis of osteomyelitis?
fever, pinpoint bone tenderness, xrays normal early
bone scan or mri is helpful
are xrays likely to be diagnostic in osteomyelitis?
no, likely to be normal early on
Major criteria for acute rheumatic fever (SPACE)
subcut nodules
pancarditis
arthritis
chorea
erythema marginatum
Minor criteria for rheumatic fever
fever
arthralgia
increased inflammatory markerts
increased ESR/CRP
prolonged PR
Clinical picture of reactive arthritis
arthritis 1-3 weeks after infection
What kind of symptoms make you think of malignancty manifesting as arthritis?
fever, weight loss
pain out of proportion to physical findings
night pain
hepatosplenomegaly
lymphadenopathy
metaphiseal lucensies on XRAY
What kind of symptoms make you think of malignancty manifesting as arthritis?
fever, weight loss
pain out of proportion to physical findings
night pain
hepatosplenomegaly
lymphadenopathy
metaphiseal lucensies on XRAY
What kind of symptoms make you think of malignancty manifesting as arthritis?
fever, weight loss
pain out of proportion to physical findings
night pain
hepatosplenomegaly
lymphadenopathy
metaphiseal lucensies on XRAY
What kind of symptoms make you think of malignancty manifesting as arthritis?
fever, weight loss
pain out of proportion to physical findings
night pain
hepatosplenomegaly
lymphadenopathy
metaphiseal lucensies on XRAY
What kind of symptoms make you think of malignancty manifesting as arthritis?
fever, weight loss
pain out of proportion to physical findings
night pain
hepatosplenomegaly
lymphadenopathy
metaphiseal lucensies on XRAY
What joint disease diagnoses do you think of if child refuses to weight bear?
septic arthritis/osteomyelitis
malignancy
reactive arthritis
What joint disease diagnoses do you think of if child refuses to weight bear?
septic arthritis/osteomyelitis
malignancy
reactive arthritis
What joint disease diagnoses do you think of if child refuses to weight bear?
septic arthritis/osteomyelitis
malignancy
reactive arthritis
What joint disease diagnoses do you think of if child refuses to weight bear?
septic arthritis/osteomyelitis
malignancy
reactive arthritis
What joint disease diagnoses do you think of if child refuses to weight bear?
septic arthritis/osteomyelitis
malignancy
reactive arthritis
What are growing pains?
no relation to growth
onset 3-10 years
usually limited to calves, thigh, shins
bilateral
occurs at night
normal physical exam
What are growing pains?
no relation to growth
onset 3-10 years
usually limited to calves, thigh, shins
bilateral
occurs at night
normal physical exam
What are growing pains?
no relation to growth
onset 3-10 years
usually limited to calves, thigh, shins
bilateral
occurs at night
normal physical exam
What kind of symptoms make you think of malignancty manifesting as arthritis?
fever, weight loss
pain out of proportion to physical findings
night pain
hepatosplenomegaly
lymphadenopathy
metaphiseal lucensies on XRAY
What kind of symptoms make you think of malignancty manifesting as arthritis?
fever, weight loss
pain out of proportion to physical findings
night pain
hepatosplenomegaly
lymphadenopathy
metaphiseal lucensies on XRAY
Types of JIA?
50% oligoarthritis- 4 joints or less
30% polyarthritis- 5 joints or more
10% systemic arthritis- stills
Others: enthesitis, psoriatic, unclassified
What are growing pains?
no relation to growth
onset 3-10 years
usually limited to calves, thigh, shins
bilateral
occurs at night
normal physical exam
What are growing pains?
no relation to growth
onset 3-10 years
usually limited to calves, thigh, shins
bilateral
occurs at night
normal physical exam
Types of JIA?
50% oligoarthritis- 4 joints or less
30% polyarthritis- 5 joints or more
10% systemic arthritis- stills
Others: enthesitis, psoriatic, unclassified
Types of JIA?
50% oligoarthritis- 4 joints or less
30% polyarthritis- 5 joints or more
10% systemic arthritis- stills
Others: enthesitis, psoriatic, unclassified
Features of stills disease
M=F
fever
rash
arthritis
hepatosplenomegaly
lymphadenopathy
serositis- pericarditis
anemia, high esr, high crp, high platelets
What joint disease diagnoses do you think of if child refuses to weight bear?
septic arthritis/osteomyelitis
malignancy
reactive arthritis
What joint disease diagnoses do you think of if child refuses to weight bear?
septic arthritis/osteomyelitis
malignancy
reactive arthritis
Features of stills disease
M=F
fever
rash
arthritis
hepatosplenomegaly
lymphadenopathy
serositis- pericarditis
anemia, high esr, high crp, high platelets
Types of JIA?
50% oligoarthritis- 4 joints or less
30% polyarthritis- 5 joints or more
10% systemic arthritis- stills
Others: enthesitis, psoriatic, unclassified
Features of stills disease
M=F
fever
rash
arthritis
hepatosplenomegaly
lymphadenopathy
serositis- pericarditis
anemia, high esr, high crp, high platelets
Types of JIA?
50% oligoarthritis- 4 joints or less
30% polyarthritis- 5 joints or more
10% systemic arthritis- stills
Others: enthesitis, psoriatic, unclassified
What are growing pains?
no relation to growth
onset 3-10 years
usually limited to calves, thigh, shins
bilateral
occurs at night
normal physical exam
Features of stills disease
M=F
fever
rash
arthritis
hepatosplenomegaly
lymphadenopathy
serositis- pericarditis
anemia, high esr, high crp, high platelets
Features of stills disease
M=F
fever
rash
arthritis
hepatosplenomegaly
lymphadenopathy
serositis- pericarditis
anemia, high esr, high crp, high platelets
What are growing pains?
no relation to growth
onset 3-10 years
usually limited to calves, thigh, shins
bilateral
occurs at night
normal physical exam
Types of JIA?
50% oligoarthritis- 4 joints or less
30% polyarthritis- 5 joints or more
10% systemic arthritis- stills
Others: enthesitis, psoriatic, unclassified
Types of JIA?
50% oligoarthritis- 4 joints or less
30% polyarthritis- 5 joints or more
10% systemic arthritis- stills
Others: enthesitis, psoriatic, unclassified
Features of stills disease
M=F
fever
rash
arthritis
hepatosplenomegaly
lymphadenopathy
serositis- pericarditis
anemia, high esr, high crp, high platelets
Features of stills disease
M=F
fever
rash
arthritis
hepatosplenomegaly
lymphadenopathy
serositis- pericarditis
anemia, high esr, high crp, high platelets
What kind of symptoms make you think of malignancty manifesting as arthritis?
fever, weight loss
pain out of proportion to physical findings
night pain
hepatosplenomegaly
lymphadenopathy
metaphiseal lucensies on XRAY
What joint disease diagnoses do you think of if child refuses to weight bear?
septic arthritis/osteomyelitis
malignancy
reactive arthritis
What are growing pains?
no relation to growth
onset 3-10 years
usually limited to calves, thigh, shins
bilateral
occurs at night
normal physical exam
Types of JIA?
50% oligoarthritis- 4 joints or less
30% polyarthritis- 5 joints or more
10% systemic arthritis- stills
Others: enthesitis, psoriatic, unclassified
Features of stills disease
M=F
fever
rash
arthritis
hepatosplenomegaly
lymphadenopathy
serositis- pericarditis
anemia, high esr, high crp, high platelets
What is special about the fever of systemic JIA?
It is a quotidian fever- a fever which returns below baseline
Evanescent salmon coloured rash correlates to between fever spikes
Features of oligoarticular JIA?
Age <5, girls > boys
large joints: knee is most common
80% ANA poditive
RF negative
Complication of oligoarticular JIA
20% uveitis
knee flexion contracture
quadriceps atrophy
leg length discrepancy
Does uveitis in JIA parallel disease course?
no

also asymptomatic- requires screening eye exams
associated with positive ANA
What are the types of polyarticular JIA?
RF negative and RF positive (which is pretty much juvenile RA- symmetric small and large joints, rheumatoid nodules in >30%- and has a pretty bad prognosis)

RF negative: small and large joints, uveitis in 10%, TMJ, 50% ANA, c-spine, growth disturbance
Prognosis of JIA?
approx 1/3 remitt, mostly in 1st 5 yrs
best prognosis oligo- 1/2
1/3 of stills
24% RF -ve poly
NO RF positive
What is HSP?
Small vessel leukocytoclastic vasculitis- affects capillaries and venules
skin (scalp, scrotum- palpable purpura), joints, GIT (bowel angina), kidneys
Acute morbidity in HSP?
GIT
Chronic morbidity in HSP?
GI complications
Management of HSP?
NSAIDS
severe abdominal pain may warrant steroids
urine BP needs to be followed up
risk of recurrence of HSP?
30%
How common is it for a child to have lupus?
20% <18
More common in blacks, hispanics and asians
F 4-5x
Average age at dx 11-14
Infant mortality in aboriginal people?
15/1000

vs 5 in non-indigenous
Prevalence of anemis in aboriginal children?
39%

correlates with poor cognitive functioning and defecits in psycholotor development
Epidemiology of otitis media in aboriginal children?
40% of children affected by chronic otitis media
25% had a perforated tympanic membrane
Management of acute otitis media in aborginal children?
consider antibiotics earlier
newer single dose antibiotics- e.f. azithro, roxithro, IM cephtriaxone
Management of recurrent otitis median in aboriginal children?
long-term prophylactic antiviotics- amoxicillin at half of its therapeutic dose for 3-6m
Insetrtion of tympanostomy tubes
referral to ENT if >3 x AOM in 6m or 4 in 12m
Management of chronic suppurative OM
aural toilets
self management : breathing, blowing, cough
topical antiseptic: povidone, acetic acid until debris is clear and hole is visible
topical antibiotics e.f. sofradex
Does conjugate pneumococcal vaccine have an effect on chronic suppurative otitis media in aboriginal children?
yes, reduces AOM, recurrent AOM and need for surfery
Antibiotic prescribed for indigenous people with boild
clindamicin for adults, bactrim for children
Associations of acanthosis nigricans
associated with obesity or endocrinopathies e.g. hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, acromegaly, PCOS, DM or Cushings
Paraneoplastic- GI/uterine adenocarcinoma, most commonly stomach = acanthosis nigricans maligna
What medications can cause acanthosis nigricans
medications that lead to insulin resistance/increased levels of insulin- glucocorticoids, nicain, insulin, OCP and protease inhibitors
Pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans?
insulin/IGF- stimulates the epidermal keratinocytes and causes epidermal fibroblast migration
Assessment of pain in kids
>4 - faces pain scale
>7- visual analogue scale
Paracetamol dosing in kids
varies with age
don't need loading
q4-6hrs: 90mg/kg/d 1st 24
60 2nd day
>8d 30mg/kg/d + LFT's
hepatotox following chronic use at therapeutic conc- so review all paracetamol prescriptions in 48 hours
if risk factors/prolonged use consider LFT's/INR (fasting, vom, dehydr, sepsis, liver dis)Oxycodone dose in kids?`2-4mg/kg evere 4h
Morphine dose in kids
<1m 50-100ug/kg IV
> 1m: 100-200ug/kg/IV
oral o.2-0.5mg/kg/ q4hrs
oral dosing: 3x
slow release : 3x
oxycodone: 2x
hydromorphone 7x
codeine 200x
Define failure to thrive
mild crosses 2 centiles while severe crosses 3
Problems with cow's milk as opposed to breast
poorly available iron
increased protein, sodium, PO4 load
less vit C and essential fatty acids
cows milk colitis risk
can introduce small amts at 6m as custard/cheese
full cream milk at 12m