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27 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Hyperpituitarism results from an excessive production of growth hormone. Which of the following most often causes it?
a. Pituitary adenoma
b. Pituitary sarcoma
c. Carcinoma in situ
d. Ameloblastoma
A. Pituitary adenoma
Hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia, and abnormal bone metabolism are characteristics of which of the following conditions?
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Hyperparathyroidism
c. Hyperpituitarism
C. Hyperparathyroidism
Polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia are all characteristics of which of the following?
a. Hyperparathyroidism
b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
d. Addison disease
C. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
Which of the following oral complications is not typically associated with diabetes mellitus?
a. Candidiasis
b. Xerostomia
c. Excessive periodontal bone loss
d. Multilocular radiolucencies with pathologic fracture.
d. Multilocular radiolucencies with pathologic fracture.
Which of the following statements is false regarding diabetes mellitus?
a. Candidiasis may be indicative of compromised immunity in a patient with diabetes.
b. Hypoglycemic agents are more commonly used in the treatment of type 2 diabetes than in type 1.
c. Microvascular disease typically affects the eyes, kidneys, and nerves
d. Diabetes mellitus is not considered a syndrome.

d. Diabetes mellitus is not considered a syndrome.
Which one of the following is not a cause of iron deficiency anemia?
a. Chronic blood loss
b. A deficiency of iron intake
c. An increased requirement of iron
d. Normal bone marrow function
D. Normal bone marrow function
Achlorhydria, failure to absorb vitamin B12, and megaloblastic anemia are characteristic features of which of the following?
a. Pernicious anemia
b. Thalassemia
c. Sickle cell anemia
d. Thrombocytopenic purpura
A. Pernicious anemia
Which of the following is characterized by a decrease in platelets?
a. Celiac disease
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Thalassemia
d. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
B. Thrombocytopenia
Which of the following is characterized by an abnormal increase in circulating blood cells?
a. Leukopenia
b. Polydipsia
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. Polycythemia
D. Polycythemia
If a patient's white blood cell count is 1000 cell/microliter, the patient has?
a. Leukopenia
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Hemophilia
d. Cyclic neutropenia
A. Leukopenia
Normal bleeding time is usually between?
a. 1 and 6 minutes
b. 2 and 3 minutes
c. 15 to 45 seconds
d. 10 and 15 minutes
a. 1 and 6 minutes
The international normalized ratio is?
a. An expression of the ratio of prothrombin time to thromboplastin activity.
b. More accurate than the prothrombin time because it is standardized from laboratory to laboratory.
c. Used to determine the patient's ability to form a clot.
d. All of the above

D. All of the above
Which of the following is not characteristic of primary hyperparathyroidism?
a. Osteoclastic resorption
b. Excessive production of parathyroid hormone
c. Cotton-wool radiographic appearance
d. Increased serum calcium
C. Cotton-wool radiographic appearance
Which of the following is not true about the insulin pump?
a. It is surgically implanted and internal
b. The patient must still test blood sugar several times a day
c. Rapid onset of ketoacidosis may occur with pump failure
d. Insulin dosage may be less than with syringe delivery

a. It is surgically implanted and internal
Which one of the following conditions is not associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus?
a. Addison disease
b. Primary hyperparathyroidism
c. Grave's disease
d. Pernicious anemia
b. Primary hyperparathyroidism
Which of the following is false concerning gestational diabetes?
a. It occurs in the majority of women during pregnancy.
b. It follows the pattern of insulin resistance
c. The hormones progesterone and coritsol may play a role in its development
d. There is an increased risk for the mother to develop type 2 diabetes later in life.

a. It occurs in the majority of women during pregnancy.
Which patient type is most likely to get sickle cell anemia?
a. Whites
b. Blacks
c. Indians
d. Europeans
B. Blacks
Disorders of the articulation between the mandible and maxilla are called:
a. Synovial hyperplasias
b. Mandibulomaxillary dysfunction
c. Temporomandibular disorders
d. Mandibular dysfunction
C. Temporomandibular disorders
Which of the following is the most important aspect of the management of temporomandibular diseases?
a. Palpation of the muscles of mastication
b. Using a nonsurgical approach
c. Adjusting the occlusion
d. Establishing an accurate diagnosis
D. Establishing an accurate diagnosis
Which of the following is considered a parafunctional habit?
a. Palpation
b. Matication
c. Bruxing
d. Trauma
C. Bruxing
Which of the following is a symptom of a temporomandibular disorder?
a. Pain
b. Malocclusion
c. A history of surgical treatment of the jaws
d. Occlusal adjustment
a. Pain
Immobility of the temporomandibular joint because of fibrous or bony union between the articulating structures of the joint is called?
a. Hypermobility
b. Ankylosis
c. Disk displacement
d. Osteoarthritis
B. Ankylosis
Which of the following is the most common benign tumor of the synovium of the temporomandibular joint?
a. Osteoblastoma
b. Osteochondroma
c. Chondroblastoma
d. Synovial chondromatosis
b. Osteochondroma
Which of the following muscles cannot be palpated on clinical examination?
a. Medial pterygoid
b. Lateral pterygoid
c. Masseter
d. Temporalis
B. Lateral pterygoid
Which management would you recommend to a patient who complains of chronic subluxation?
a. Arthrocentesis
b. Eminectomy
c. Appliance therapy
d. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
B. Eminectomy
Which of the following therapies would you recommend to a patient diagnosed with myofascial pain and dysfunction and who did not respond to a 2-month course of soft diet, oral appliance therapy, and hot/cold compresses?
a. Continue the present therapy for another 2 months
b. Occlusal adjustment
c. TMJ arthrotomy
d. Physical therapy

D. Physical therapy
Which nerve is primarily responsible for innervating the temporomandibular joint?
a. Deep temporal nerve
b. Great occipital nerve
c. Masseteric nerve
d. Auriculotemporal nerve
D. Auriculotemporal nerve