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141 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is the facet orientation for cervial
BUM
Backward, upward, medial
What is the Facet orientation for lumbar
BM
Backward and medial
What is the facet orientation for thoracic
BUL
Backward upward and lateral
OA
Atlas

** the other one is the other one**
What muscle helps elevate the second rib with forced inhalation
Posterior scalene
nerve roots in the cervical region will exit
Above the corresponding vertebrae
Nerve between C3 and C4
is C4 nerve
What is the main motion of the thoracic spine
Rotation
Primary movement of Ribs 1-5
Pump handle
Primary movement of ribs 6-10
Bucket handle
Primary movement of ribs 11 and 12
Caliper motion
The spine of the scapula corresponds with
T3
The inferior angle of the scapula corresonds with the spinous process of
T7
The sternal notch is level with
T2
The sternal angle attaches to the
2nd rib and level with T4
The nipple is at the ? dermatome
T4
The umbilicus is at the ? Dermatome
T10
What are the only Primary muscles of respiration
Diaphragm and intercostals
Which ribs are considered False
T8-10
What is the only landmark a typical rib will not have
Tuberosity
Ribs 6-9 will attach to what vertebrae
T5-T9
In the Thoracic and Lumbar region a nerve root will exit the intervertebral foramen
Below its corresponding vertebrae
What are the erector spinae group muscles
SILO
spinalis
iliocostalis
longissimus
What is the origin and insertion of the iliopsoas muslce
and action
T12-L5 vertebral bodies
Inserts on lesser trochanter
Primary flexor of hip
What Vertebrae are level with the Iliac crests
L4-L5
What is the main motion of the Lumbar spine
Flexion and Extension
Spinal defect with no herniation through the defect
Spina Bifida Occulta
A herniation of the meninges through the defect of the spine
Meningocele
A herniation of the meninges and the nerve roots through the defective spine
Meningomyelocele
A flexion contracture of the iliopsoas is often associated with a non-neutral dysfunction of
L1 or L2
Anterior displacement of one vertebrae in relation to the one below it. Often involves a fracture of the pars articularis is called what
Spondylolisthesis

L4 or L5
What are the clinical signs and symptoms of Spondylolisthesis
increased pain with extension based activities
**tight hamstrings bilaterally**
Stiff legged short stride waddling type gait
What is a defect usually the pars interarticularis without anterior displacement of the vertebral body. Often seen as a collar on a scotty dog
Spondylolysis
What is a radiographical term for degenerative changes within the intervertebral disc and ankylosing of adjacent vertebral bodies
Spondylosis
How do you diagnose
1. spondylolisthesis
2. spondylolysis
1. lateral Xray
2. Oblique Xray
Which nerve exits between L4 and L5
L4
A posteriorlateral disc herniation of the intervertebral disc of L4 L5 is most likely to compress which nerve root
L5

**Disc herniation compresses the nerve root below**
what is the name of scoliosis that the curve points to the right (convexity)
Dextroscoliosis

** the other one is the other one**
What is a spinal curve that is relatively fixed and inflexible called
Structural curve
What is a spinal curve that is flexible and can be partially or completely corrected with sidebending to the opposite side called
Functional Curve
What is the most common cause of scoliosis
Idiopathic
Heel lifts for the old and fragile should be how big between how many weeks
1/16th of an inch every 2 weeks
What are the primary pelvic muscles
Levator Ani
Coccygeus Muscles
What are the physiologic Axes of the sacrum and innominates
**DRIP**

Dynamic
Respiratory
Inherent/innominate
Postural
What is motion that occurs during ambulation.
Dynamic motion
What is motion that occurs about the middle transverse axis of the sacrum
Postural motion
What are the 2 motions that occurs about the superior transverse axis of the sacrum
Respiratory motion
and
Inherent (craniosacral) motion
What occurs during Nutation
Head Flexes Down
Sacram moves posteriorly

**the other one is the other one**
What is the most common sacral dysfunction in the post partum patient
Bilateral sacral flexion
What are the Sits Muscles
Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Subscapularis
What is the primary function of the supraspinatus muscle
Abduction of arm
What is the primary motion of the infraspinatus muscle
External Rotation of the arm
What is the primary motion of the teres minor muscle
External Rotation of the Arm
What is the primary motion of the subscapularis muscle
Internal rotation of the arm
What is the primary flexor and abductor of the shoulder
Deltiod muscle
What are the primary Extensors of the Shoulder
Lats
Teres major
Deltoid
What are the primary ADDuctors of the shoulder
Pec Major
Lats
What are the primary external rotators of the shoulder
Infraspinatus and teres minor
What is the most common somatic dysfunction of the shoulder
Restriction in internal and external rotation
What is the second most common somatic dysfunction of the shoulder
ABduction
What are the bones in the wrist
So long to pinky here comes the thumb
Scaphoid
Lunate
Triquetral
Pisiform
Hamate
Capitate
Trapizoid
Trapezium
What nerves are primary supinators of the forearm
Bicepts (musculocutaneous)
and supinator (radial)
Muscles in the thenar eminence are innervated by what nerve
Median Nerve

***except for adductor pollicis brevis (Ulnar nerve) ***
What innervates the first and second lumbricals
Median nerve
What innervates the third and fourth lumbricals
Ulnar nerve
What nerve innervates the hypothenar eminence and interossi
Ulnar nerve
Primary Hip Extensor
Gluteus maximus
Primary hip flexor
Iliopsoas
Primary Knee Extensor
Quads
Primary Flexors of the knee
Semimembranosus
Semitendinosus
What is the cause of external rotation somatic dysfunctions of the Hip
Piriformis or iliopsoas
What is seen clinically with a Posterior Fibular head
Plantar Flexion
Inversion
Adduction
What is seen clinically with a anterior fibular head
Dorsiflexion
Eversion
Abduction
What nerve is just posterior to the proximal fibular head
Common peroneal nerve
"common fibular nerve"
What are the main bones in the foot
Talus
Navicular (big toe side)
3 Cuneiforms (big toe to 4th toe)
Cuboid (pinky side)
Calcaneus
What makes up the medial longitudinal arch of the foot
Talus, Navicular, Cuneiforms 1-3 metatarsals
What makes up the lateral longitudinal arch of the foot
Calcaneus, Cuboid, 4th and 5th metatarsals
What makes up the Transverse Arch of the foot
Navicular, Cuneiforms, and Cuboid
What position is the ankle most stable
Dorsiflexion
What is the most common injured ligament in the foot
Anterior TaloFibular ligament

**always tears first**
What structure prevents hyperextension of the Knee
Anterior Cruciate ligament
What Degree of sprain is associated with a partial tear
2nd Degreee

1st is no tear
3rd is complete tear
What is the rate of CRI
10-14 cycles per minute
The dura is attached at the head and sacrum at what points
C2, C3, S2
During Flexion of the midline bones what type of rotation is observed
External rotation
What is taking place when the cranium undergoes decreased AP diameter
Flexion of the Sphenobasilar junction
What is CV4 technique
Enhance amplitude of the CRI.
First by resisting flexion and encouraging extension until a Still point is reached
Somatic dysfunction of C2 may alter the function of which cranial nerve
X
What technique enhances venous blood flow through the venous sinus
Venous sinus technique
What technique separates restricted or impacted sutures
V Spread
What technique is a valuable technique to help TMJ dysfunction
Temporal Rocking
What technique can diagnose strains at the SBS
Vault Hold
What technique enhances the amplitude of the CRI
CV4
Spinal cord Level of Head and neck
T1-T4
Spinal cord Level of Heart
T1-T5
Spinal cord Level of Respiratory system
T2-T7
Spinal cord Level of Esophagus
T2-T8
Spinal cord Level of Upper GI Tract
Stomach
Liver
Gallbladder
Spleen
portions of pancreas and duodenum
T5-T9
Greater Splanchnic nerve
Celiac Ganglion
Spinal cord Level of Middle GI tract
pancreas and duodenum
Jejunum
ilium
Ascending colon and right Colon
T10-T11
Lesser Splanchnic Nerve
Superior mesenteric ganglion
Spinal cord Level of Lower GI tract
Left Colon
Sigmoid colon
Rectum
T12-L2
Least Splanchnic Nerve
Inferior mesenteric ganglion
Spinal cord Level of Appendix
T12
Spinal cord Level of Kidneys
T10-T11
Spinal cord Level of Adrenal medulla
T10
Spinal cord Level of Upper ureters
T10-T11
Spinal cord Level of Lower ureters
T12-L1
Spinal cord Level of Bladder
T11-L2
Spinal cord Level of Uterus Cervix
T10-L2
Spinal cord Level of Penis and Clitorus
T11-L2
Spinal cord Level of Prostate
T12-L2
Spinal cord Level of Arms
T2-T8
Chapmans point for Appendix
Anteriorly = at tip of right 12th rib

Posteriorly = at transcerse process of T11 vertebrae
Chapmans point for Adrenals
Anteriorly = 2in superior and 1in lateral to the umbilicus

Posteriorly = Between the spinous and transverse process of T11-T12
Chapmans point for Kidneys
Anterior = 1in superior and 1in lateral to the umbilicus

Posterior = Between the spinous and transcerse processes of T12 and L1
Chapmans point for Bladder
periumbilical region
Chapmans point for Colon
on the lateral thigh withing the iliotibial band from the greater trochanter to just above the knee
Where is the Anterior Tenderpoint for L5 located
one cm lateral to the pubic symphysis on the superior ramus
Where are the Anterior Tenderpoints for L1-4
L1 medial to ASIS
L2-4 on the AIIS
What is the patient position for ME on forward sacral torsion
Face down
What is the patient postion for ME on backward sacral torsion
on there back
What is Adsons test looking for
Thoracic outlet syndrome from Scalenes
What is Wrights hyperabduction test looking for
Thoracic outlet syndrome from
Pectoralis minor
What is the Standing flexion test evaluating
iliosacral motion
Leg or pelvis
What is the Seated Flexion test evaluating
Sacroiliac motion
Sacrum on the pelvis
What is a positive spring test
Hard end feel due to posterior sacral base
What is the axis of motion of the innominate while ambulating and posterior/anterior innominant
Inferior transverse sacral axis
What is the OMT initial treatment for a kidneystone
Ribraising
and paraspinal inhibition
What muscle is uterospasm associated with
Psoas
Where is the chapman point for hyper acidity is
just lateral of the sternum at between 5 and 6 on left side
What muscle is attached to rib 2
posterior scalene
What muscle is attached to rib 3-5
pec minor
what muscle is attached to rib 6-9
Serratus anterior
What muscle is attached to rib 1
middle and anterior scalenes
What are the joints of lushka important in
Cervical motion especially sidebending
Right Deep sulcus
Left ILA posterior and inferior
- spring test

is what
Left on Left
Left sulcus deep
Right ILA posterior and inferior
Negative spring test
Right on right
Right sulcus shallow
left ILA anterior and slightly superior
Seated flexion on right
Positive spring test
Right on left
Left sulcus shallow
Right ILA anterior and slightly superior
Positive seated to left
Positive spring test
Left on right
Where is the chapman point for the thyroid
between ribs 2 and 3 just lateral to the sternum
Chapman point for the gall bladder
6 intercostal space mid clavicular space on right
Chapmans point for the prostate is where
bilaterally on sacral base
Thumb placement in the Base (Becker) hold is
both hands cradling the occiput with each thumb contacting the ipsilateral sphenoid bone.
The CV-4 technique involves
encouraging extension of the occiput while discouraging flexion.