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214 Cards in this Set

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Restful dreamless sleep accompanied by decreases in vascular tone, blood pressure, respiration, metabolism and temperature set point
SLOW WAVE SLEEP
Sleep accompanied with slow rhythmic movements of eyes with superimposed bursts of rapid movements is called _
REM sleep
Why is REM sleep called paradoxical sleep
EEG pattern similar to awake state, increased brain activity (dreaming)
Irregular cardiovascular activity, loss of temperature regulation, loss of muscular tone, frequent erections or clitoral engorgement and increased metabolism are observed during _ sleep
REM
Describe EEG of REM sleep
Low amplitude irregular EEG (awake like)
Measures summed electrical activity of the brain
EEG
Theta waves are seen during which stage of sleep
Stage I
During this stage of slow wave sleep you have irregular non-rhythmic EEG and theta waves
Stage I - drowsy, dozing off
During this stage of sleep you have irregular non-rhythmic EEG with " sleep spindles " and " K complexes"
Stage II - light sleep
Delta waves start to appear during which stage of slow wave sleep
Stage III - moderately deep sleep
Stage IV slow wave sleep is also called _
Delta wave sleep, deep sleep
Waves - 14-25 Hz - active person, especially under tension
BETA WAVES
Waves - 4-7 Hz - normal in children and adults under stress and in disorders
THETA WAVES
Waves - 8-13 Hz - quiet awake pattern with eyes closed
ALPHA WAVES
Waves - less then 3.5 Hz - slow, high amplitude waves
DELTA WAVES
Amplitude of the brain wave decreases/increases when eyes open
DECREASES (processing visual info)
In alert wakefullness which waves predominant
BETA WAVES
In quiet wakefullness which waves predominant
ALPHA WAVES
In REM sleep which waves predominant
BETA
Stages 2 and 3 of slow wave sleep which waves predominant
THETA
Stage 1 of slow wave sleep which waves predominant
ALPHA
Loss of slow wave sleep leads to _
Deterioration of higher brain function , irritability and anxiety
Long term of slow wave sleep can lead to _
Nystagmus

Ptosis

Dysarthria

Muscle tremors
Are there any mental disturbances with loss of REM sleep
NO
REM sleep is disturbed by _
Alcohol

Barbiturates

Psychoactive drugs (NOT benzodiazepines)
Patient is 15 year old male, parents complain of sudden apparent arousals with intense fear, he is difficult to arouse and has no memory of event later - dx
NIGHT TERRORS
Patient suffers from bed wetting - name condition and during which sleep does it occur
ENURESIS

Slow wave sleep
Patients is 6 year old female - parents complain of sleepwalking with open eyes, patient has no memory of event - name condition and during which sleep occurs
SOMNAMBULISM - slow wave sleep
Receptor gene/hormone responsible for narcolepsy
OREXIN
Patient complains of irresistible urge to sleep, tests show patient enters REM sleep without warning. Medical history is positive for viral encephalitis in the past - condition and what are possible causes
NARCOLEPSY - could be hereditary or following flu, encephalitis, hypothalamic tumors or trauma
Patient complains of paralysis realized on awakening - condition and what disease is it associated with
SLEEP PARALYSIS - associated with narcolepsy
Patient is 46 year old obese female who complains of reduced quality of sleep due to frequent awakenings - name condition and whats causing it
SLEEP APNEA -due to frequent periodic breathing pauses - reduced pO2 rises patient
In central sleep apnea there is a defect in _
Respiratory centers of brainstem
Which sleep apnea is more often observed in overweight individuals
Obstructive sleep apnea
Grinding of teeth during sleep is called _
BRUXISM
Decreased quantity or quality of sleep is called _
INSOMNIA
2 types of associative learning
Classical conditioning

Operant conditioning
Associative learning dealing with UNCONSCIOUS RECALL
Classical conditioning
Associative learning dealing with CONSCIOUS RECALL
Operant conditioning
Type of conditioning in which we associate consequences with behavior
OPERANT
Type of conditioning in which neutral stimulus that is paired with stimulus elicits a response
CLASSICAL
In classical condiitioning paradigm what is a

- conditioned stimulus

- unconditioned stimulus

- conditioned response

- unconditioned response
Conditioned stimulus - bell

Unconditioned stimulus - meat

Conditioned and unconditioned response - salivation
In AVERSIVE CLASSICAL CONDITIONING you pair alcohol which is _ conditioned/unconditioned stimulus? with Disulfiram which is conditioned/unconditioned stimulus - what is the result
Alcohol - conditioned stimulus

Disulfiram - unconditioned stimulus - causes nausea + vomitting

As a result of pairing of alcohol and disulfiram, nausea and vomitting occur with the sight or smell of alcohol
In negative classical conditioning reward is _
Removal of undesirable consequence
When should Disulfiram be administered after intake of alcohol for aversive classical conditioning to work
12 hours after alcohol
When conditioning what are the requirements for stimulus presentation
Close in time

Same order
Removal of pairing between conditioned and unconditioned stimulus leads to reduced probability that conditioned response will occur - this is called _
EXTINCTION
Dog conditioned not only to bell itself but also tape recording of bell (similar but not exactly same stimulus ) - this is called-
STIMULUS GENERALIZATION
Action is a reinforcer if it _
Increases probability of response
Application following operant response strengthens probability of that response occuring again - this is example of _ reinforcer
POSITIVE
Removal following operant respone strengthens probability of that response occuring again - this is example of _ reinforcer
NEGATIVE
Baby learns that crying gets attention - this is example of _ reinforcement
POSITIVE
Parents nag child to clean room - child cleans room without reminder (operant response) - parents stop nagging (reinforcer) - this is example of _ reinforcement
NEGATIVE
In PUNISHMENT noxious stimuli are aimed at _
Weakening response
PUNISHMENT works best if paired with _
Positive reinforcement for alternative behavior
Removal of reinforcer causes response to become less frequent or weaken - this is called _
Extinction
2 types of reinforcement schedules
Continuous

Partial (intermittant)
Type of reinforcement shedule where each response gets rewarded and results in fast learning and fast extinction is called _
CONTINUOUS SCHEDULE
Reinforcement where not every single response gets rewarded and results in slower learning and harder to extinguish is called _
PARTIAL OR INTERMITTANT
2 types of interval schedule
Fixed interval schedule

Variable interval schedule
In this type of interval schedule reinforcement occurs after fixed period of time
FIXED INTERVAL SCHEDULE
In this type of interval schedule reinforcement occurs after unpredicted amount of time
VARIABLE INTERVAL SCHEDULE
In which interval schedule there is higher steadier rate of responding
VARIABLE INTERVAL SCHEDULE
Which ratio schedule has higher response rate
FIXED
Which ration schedule shows greater resistance to extinction
VARIABLE
Which ration schedule is basis for gambling (slot machines)
VARIABLE RATIO SCHEDULE - reinforcement after changing number of responses
After extinction response occurs again without any further reinforcement - this is called _
SPONTANEOUS RECOVERY
When a symbol or token gains reinforcement value because of its association with a real reinforcer is called _
Secondary reinforcement
2 types of retrieval "
RECALL

RECOGNITION
2 types of long term memory
DECLARATIVE

NON DECLARATIVE - procedural, skills
2 types of declarative memory
Explicit (conscious)

Implicit (unconscious)
2 types of explicit memory
Episodic (biographical events)

Semantic (words, ideas, concepts)
Acquiered knowledge that can be expressed verbally is called _ memory
EXPLICIT
Memory of events you were involved in in specific time and place is called _
EPISODIC
Memory about knowledge of the world (meaning of words, concepts) is called _
SEMANTIC
If person does not remember experience that caused memory, this type of memory is called _
IMPLICIT
Which type of memory learns faster but forgets easier? declarative/non-declarative
DECLARATIVE
Which type of memory learns slower but remembers longer

declarative/non-declarative
NON- DECLARATIVE - procedural
Sensory information from cortex converge in _
HIPPOCAMPUS
Semantic memory activates _ cortices
Frontal and temporal
Describe Papez circuit
Hypothalamus --> anterior thalamic nucleus -> cingulate cortex --> entorhinal cortex --> hippocampus
Spatial memory is confined to _
RIGHT HIPPOCAMPUS
Emotional memory location
Amygdala and hippocampus
Molecular changes to strengthen and increase efficiency of synapses is called _
Long term potentiation
NT involved in long term potentiation of the memory
GLutamate
Synaptic changes involved in LTP

Presynaptic

Postsynaptic
Presynaptic - increase release probability, increase number of release sites, increase number of vesicles

Postsynaptic changes - increase receptor sensitivity, increase number of functional receptors
Glutamate receptor - ligand gated Na channel
AMPA
Glutamate receptor - ligand gated Ca channel

At rest blocked by _ which moves in response to dendrite depolarization
NMDA

Mg
Describe how LTP occurs at NMDA receptors
Depolarization removes Mg blocking NMDA channel --> Ca enters cell and activates calmodulin --> Ca/calmodulin complex activates enzymes like adenylate cyclase and CAM kinase II --> enzyme activation phosphorylates receptors, keeps AMPA channels open longer, increases Ca conductance
2 phases of LTP
- ESTABLISHMENT - 1 hour, can be induced by single high frequency stimulus, requires KINASE activity

- MAINTENANCE - can be for several days, induced by series of high frequency stimuli, requires PROTEIN SYNTHESIS
Excessive memory loss due to physical injury to the brain or psychological trauma is called _
AMNESIA
FORGETTING occurs when _
information was not coded strongly enough
Which memories are usually affected in amnesia/forgetting
Episodic most severely - distant memories preserved in both forgetting and amnesia
Synaptic plasticity of memory can be disrupted by _
- Excess glucocorticoids
- Boredom
- Ischemia
- Hypoglycemia
- Prolonged epileptic attacks
- Alzheimers disease (beta amyloid plaque buildup)
Molecular process by which efficiency of synaptic connections is reduced is called _
Long term depression
Name 3 parts of limbic system
Limbic lobe

Hippocampus

Amygdala
Part of the temporal cortex protruding in the inferior horn of lateral ventricle
HIPPOCAMPUS
Surgical removal of hippocampus results in _
Loss of short term memory
Patient is 56 year old male who underwent surgical removal of hippocampus for epilepsy treatment. Patient complains of not remembering anything occured longer than few minutes before . His memories of distant past and intelligence remain intact - Name condition
ANTEROGRADE AMNESIA
How does hippocampus function in memory
When information is important to remember hippocampus emits signals that enables recent memories to be rehearsed over and over again until they are stored in long term memory in cerebral cortex
Amyloid beta deposits, flame like tangle formation and cholinergic deficits are hallmarks of _
ALZHEIMERS DISEASE
Patient is 48 year old male who presents with recent behavioral changes - HYPERSEXUALITY, LACK OF EMOTION - name condition and where is the lesion
KLUVER-BUCY SYNDROME - AMYGDALA LESION
Patient is 39 year old male with long standing history of alcoholism presents with loss of recent memory and confabulation - name condition and where is the lesion
KORSAKOFFS SYNDROME - lesions of mammilary bodies and thalamic lesions
Two edges of band like choroid plexus are called _
TENIA
Edge of the choroid plexus of the lateral ventricles attached to the fornix is called _

Opposite edge of the choroid plexus of the lateral ventricles is called _
Tenia fornicis

Tenia choroidea
Edge of the choroid plexus of the 3d ventricle originating from stria medullaris on thalamic surface is called _
Tenia thalami
Sensation of smell reaches cortical areas without going through _
THALAMUS
3 parts of hypothalamus AP
PREOPTIC AREA - medial and lateral preoptic nuclei, paraventricular nucleus and anterior hypothalamic nucleus

TUBERAL REGION (INFUNDIBULUM) - ventromedial and dorsomedial nuclei, infundibular nucleus

POSTERIOR HYPOTHALAMUS
3 parts of hypothalamus - medial to lateral
Periventricular

Medial hypothalamus - all nuclei

Lateral hypothalamus
In DIABETES INSIPIDUS vasopressin (ADH-secreting) cell bodies are located in _

There are lesions of axons of perikarya projecting to _
PARAVENTRICULAR AND SUPRAOPTIC NUCLEI

Posterior lobe of pituitary gland
Lack of ADH leads to _
Loss of water through kidney
In endocrine imbalance there is absence of regulatory hormones produced by small neurons mainly in _

These hormones are released in the blood through _
INFUNDIBULUM

PORTAL VESSELS
Name neurohypophyseal peptides
OXYTOCIN

VASOPRESSIN
Name adenohypophyseal releasing peptides
LHRH, GHRH, TRH, CRH
Neurons in _ are sensitive to increased body temperature and initiate heat loss
ANTERIOR HYPOTHALAMUS
Patient has hyperthermia because of lack of cutaneous vasodilation and sweating - where is the lesion
ANTERIOR HYPOTHALAMUS
Neurons in _ are sensitive to decreased temperature and intiate heat gain
POSTERIOR HYPOTHALAMUS
Patients presents with poikilothermia because of lack of cutaneous vasoconstriction and shivering - where is the lesion
POSTERIOR HYPOTHALAMUS
Food intake is influenced by which parts of hypothalamus - glucose sensitive neurons in these areas influence endocrine glands associated with metabolism
Paraventricular and ventromedial nuclei of hypothalamus and lateral hypothalamic zone
Lesions of _ result in increased appetite and obesity
Paraventricular and ventromedial nuclei
Lesions of _ result in decreased food and drink intake
Lateral hypothalamic zone
This area of hypothalamus can induce sleep
PREOPTIC
Receives input from retina and is responsible for 24 hours circadian rhythm
SUPRACHIASMATIC NUCLEUS
Lesions of _ often result in hypersomnia
POSTERIOR HYPOTHALAMUS
This lesion results in extreme aggressivity - attack repeatedly without provocation
Bilaterally hypothalamic lesions especially involving ventromedial nuclei
Which part of hypothalamus associated with sympathetic activation, parasympathetic?
Sympathetic - POSTERIOR HYPOTHALAMUS

Parasympathetic - ANTERIOR HYPOTHALAMUS
Center of sexual regulation
Hypothalamus
LH, FSH produced where
Anterior pituitary
LH releasing hormone secreting neurons develop from _
Nasal placode
In fetus LHRH containing cells are located in _ - they migrate to hypothalamus along _
Nasal septum

Olfactory tract and terminal nerve
Patient presents with anosmia and gonad dysgenesis (sterility) - NAME SYNDROME AND WHATS CAUSING IT
KALLMANS SYNDROME

Olfactory tract and terminal nerve do not develop therefore LHRH producing cells are sitting above cribriform plate and do not function
Axons from neuroendocrine cells of paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei project to _ where they release _ to control lactation and reproduction and _ to control body osmolarity and blood pressure
POSTERIOR PITUITARY

OXYTOCIN

ADH/VASOPRESSIN
Neuroendocrine axons from preoptic, arcuate and infundibular nuclei release _ into hypophyseal portal circulation to control ACTH, TSH, prolactin, corticotropin, LH, FSH, GH which are involved in lactational, reproductive and metabolic function
Releasing/inhibiting hormones and dopamine
_ nuclei sense body temperature both heat and cold but especially heat
Anterior and pre-optic
Response to excess core temperature is mediated by ANS and includes _
Vasodilation

Sweating

Decreased heat production
Response to cold includes autonomic mediated _
Vasoconstriction

Piloerection

Thermogenesis

TRH release
_ appears to be motor center for control of sympathetic drive for heat and cold
Posterior hypothalamus
If patient has damage to lateral or dorsomedial hypothalamic nuclei he will suffer from _
ANOREXIA
If patient has damage to ventromedial or paraventricular nuclei he will suffer from _
INSATIABLE HUNGER
Anorexigenic factors induce _
SATIETY
Orexigenic factors induce _
HUNGER
PVN provides output to _ to control sympathetic nervous system and also other areas of brain
SOLITARY NUCLEUS
PVN receives anorexigenic and orexigenic input from _
ARCUATE NUCLEUS
Arcuate nucleus anorexigenic neurons pool are _ - secrete _ which binds to PVN _ to inhibit hunger
Proopinomelanocortin neurons (POMC)

Melanocyte stimulating hormone

Melanocortin 4 receptors
Orexigenic AN neuron pool secretes _ which binds to PVN Y1r receptors to promote hunger
Neuropeptide Y
Presence of high levels of glucose, amino acids and fatty acids in plasma produces _ effects
Anorexigenic
Thirst can be initiated by increases in _ which act on _
Plasma osmolarity or plasma angiotensin II

Subfornical organ and organum vasculosum of lamina terminalis
Osmoreceptor neurons regulate ADH release (supraoptic and paraventricular ) as well as thirst in _ nucleus of hypothalamus
PREOPTIC
Volume receptors are located on _
Veins and atria
Wetting mouth and gastric filling transiently relieve thirst via _
Vagal afferents
Desire for specific nutrient that is driven by physiological need is called _
APPETITe
Thirst and salt appetite are both stimulated by factors induced by volume depletion _
Angiotensin II, reduced baroreceptor firing and reduced volume receptor firing
What stimulates salt appetite
REDUCED PLASMA Na - NOT changes in osmolarity
Patient presents with eating of inorganic, non-food items - behavior associated with true defficiency in iron, calcium and possibly iodine - this condition is called _
PICA
Hedonic centers (eating for pleasure ) are located in _
CINGULATE GYRUS and parts of limbic system
Determines time between meals

Determines length of given meal
HUNGER

SATIETY
Filling of stomach inhibits hunger by reducing release of _ and also promotes satiety by vagal afferents
Orexigenic peptide - GHRELIN
Mechanical stimulation of chewing and food movement causes "metering" effect sensed by metering nucleus in _
ANTERIOR HYPOTHALAMUS
_ is released into duodenal canal in response to luminal fats (also peptides and carbohydrates)
Cholecystokinin
Intestinal CCK acts by stimulating _
Vagal afferents
Most posterior aspect of thalamus is egg shaped and called _
PULVINAR
Forms much of the lateral wall of the third ventricle
THALAMUS
Thalamus is separated from caudate nucleus by bundle of fibers called _
Stria terminalis
_ nuclei of thalamus function with the limbic system
Anterior
_ nuclei of thalamus is interconnected with frontal lobe and hypothalamus - integrate sensory information and affect
MEDIAL NUCLEI
Receives input from almost all cortical areas - DOES NOT PROJECT BACK TO CORTEX - and gets collaterals of thalamocortical axons

Uses what NT
Thalamic reticular nucleus

GABA
VPM/VPL project to _
Somatosensory cortex
VA/VL project to _
Motor cortex
Amygdala --> DM nucleus projects to _
Frontal lobe
Mammilary body --> anterior thalamus project to _
Cingulate cortex
Pulvinar projects to _
Extravisual areas
IC --> MG -->
Auditory cortex
Almost all of the output of the thalamus is directed to _
Cortex
Almost of the input of the cortex arises from _
Thalamus
In the awake/attentive state thalamus acts as _
high fidelity relay
During sleep thalamus is oscillating rhythmically and output is _ to external environment
UNRELATED
Thin cellular band that covers cerebral hemispheres
Cerebral cortex
Vast majority of cortex has 6 layers and is called _
Isotypical cortex
Name 6 layers of cerebral cortex
Molecular
External granular
External pyramidal
Internal granular
Internal pyramidal
Multiform
Largest neurons of cerebral cortex are located in which layer
INTERNAL PYRAMIDAL - layer V
Motor layers have thicker layers _ and thin layers _
V

II and IV
Sensory areas have thick layers _ and thin _
II, III, IV

V
Sensory cerebral cortex is also called _
GRANULAR
Part of cerebral cortex that has only three layers (mostly limbic areas ) is called _
ALLOCORTEX
Transitional region - has between 3 and 6 layers (hippocampal formation and piriform cortex)
MESOCORTEX
Most excitatory neurons are _ and these neurons are the output of cerebral cortex
PYRAMIDAL
Excitatory local circuit neurons of cerebral cortex
STELLATE
Functional unit of cerebral cortex is _
Vertical column
Input layers of cerebral cortex
II, III, IV
Output layers of cerebral cortex
V, VI
Interconnecting layers of cerebral cortex
I, II, III
Efferent projection fibers
Corticofugal
Thalamocortical afferent projection fibers
Corticopetal
Connect cortex with lower parts of the brain - all converge on corpus callosum
Projection fibers (corticofugal and corticopetal)
6 main functional regions of frontal lobe
Primary motor cortex
Pre-motor
Frontal eye fields
Supplementary motor
Pre-frontal - association
BROCAS AREA - LANGUAGE - INFERIOR FRONTAL GYRUS L SIDE
If you have lesion of primary motor cortex what is the manifestation
APRAXIA
Lesions of _ result in lack of concentration, patients are easily distracted, apathy and disinhibition (inappropriate behaviors)
PREFRONTAL AREAS
Responsible for conjugate movements of eyes to opposite side, contributes to VOLUNTARY movements
Frontal eye fields
Do frontal eye fields project directly to nuclei of extraocular muscles
NO
4 main functional areas of parietal lobe
Primary somatosensory
Secondary somatosensory
Gustatory
Association
Lesions of parietal lobe result in _
Apraxia
Sensory deficits
Astereognosis
Receptive aphasia
Alexia and agraphia
Conduction aphasia
Transcortical aphasia
3 parts of temporal lobe
Primary auditory cortex
Temporal association area
Hippocampus/amygdala
Lesions of temporal lobe
Hearing/visual
Categorization and organization of language - cannot make connections or derive meaning from language
Long term memory
Personality/affect
Altered sexual behavior
Occipital lobe parts
Primary visual cortex
Occipital eye field
Visual association area
Occipital eye center is largely responsible for _
INVOLUNTARY MOVEMENTS
Patient cant tract but can direct eyes to certain location - where is the lesion
OCCIPITAL EYE CENTER
Lesions to occipital lobe results in _
Visual agnosia
Alexia without agraphia
Involved in cognitive behavior and motor planning, weigh consequences and future actions and plan accordingly
Prefrontal association area
Patient is 49 year old male post stroke - presents with dperession, unruly behavior, loss of social graces, ignores cleanliness and lacks insight - what is most probable location of lesion
Prefrontal association area
Association cortex that involves memory and emotional behavior
Limbic association cortex
Lesions of this area result in abnormal body images and perception of spatial relations (contralateral neglect)
Parietal-temporal-occipital association cortex
Lesions of Brocas area result in _
Expressive aphasia - speech is absent or slow with poor articulation (usually also involves problems with writing)
Lesions of Wernicke area result in _
Receptive aphasia - production of words unaffected but USAGE IS INCORRECT, cannot comprehend language in any context
What disconnect syndrome results from lesion in corpus callosum secondary to infarct in anterior cerebral artery so that person can comprehend command but CANNOT EXECUTE UIT
TRANSCORTICAL APRAXIA

Wernickes area of the left hemisphere cannot communicate with the right primary motor cortex because of the lesion of corpus callosum