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205 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies cause problems due to
failure to clear a protein (prion) leads to neuronal death
Given the blood levels of ethanol of .15%, .4%, and .6%, describe the manifestations of intoxication
what is the major distinguishing key of prion diseases
transmissibility of a protein can lead to dz in other ppl
• Differentiate familial large head from hydrocephalus
Familial large head
Head larger than 95th percentile (larger than 2 SD)
-follow normal growth pattern
everything is normal, mom and dad just gave you a big head!

Other large heads
Mostly due to hydrocephalus
what structure of prion is damaging to a host? what is importance about this form?
B-sheet (aberrant form)

Aberrant forms are resistant to degradation, and are non-immunogenic to host
Describe the mechanisms by which ethanol produces its effects. (sedative/ataxia/blackout)
An action on the GABA receptor – increases GABA – mediated inhibition. This action may mediate sedative and ataxia effects.

May also inhibit NMDA receptors causing blackouts
common pathogenesis of Creutzfeld-Jacob Disease (CJD)

another important way?
spontaneous conversion from alpha to beta prions

passed by person to person (reusing surgical tools, eating mad cow beef)
what makes up brain reward circuitry
LC, VTA, NA

Locus ceruleus- largest group of adrenergic neurons
Catecholamine (particularly dopamine)
Ventral tegmental area are particularly important
Nucleus accumbens
man hunts a deer and wants to take it home and eat it. If he is in CO, WV or a few other places what dz does he have to worry about?
Chronic wasting disease (CWD, deer and elk)
Describe the primary effects of ethanol on CNS

how do you get hypothermia ?
Alcohol causes a dose-related depression of all areas of the CNS. Depression of hypothalamus results in hypothermia

Acute intoxication can be lethal due to depression of medullary respiratory and CV centers
Stimulation observed after one or two drinks is a result of depression of inhibitory control mechanism of the reticular activating system.

Chronic use can lead to irreversible neurological damage.
Clinical Guidelines for Prescribing Psychotropic Drugs : The 5 D’s
Diagnosis
Careful diagnostic evaluation to identify specific target symptoms

Drug selection
Choice of drug based on patient factors, etc.

Dosage
Adequate dosing and trial of medication

Duration
Adequate duration before assuming failure

Dialogue
Discuss SE and expectations with patient
Rapidly progressive dementia and myoclonus. Death within year of onset. Due to an infective protein
Creutzfeld-Jakob Disease
Describe the primary effects of ethanol on respiratory and CV system
Respiratory system:
At about 0.40% - depression of respiratory center results in death

Cardiovascular system:
Moderate amount – peripheral vasodilation causing slight ↓ BP and heat loss. Regular moderate consumption decreases risk of heart disease (↑ HDL, ↓ platelet aggregation).
High dose – myocardial depression
Chronic change – alcoholic cardiomyopathy
what 2 ways can you distinguish mad cow (nvCJD) from sporadic CJD?
ncCJD: “florid” plaque

other finding is “Pulvinar sign” in MRI
Why are VLBW* infants at increased risk of CP?
Infants who are born weighing less than 1000g are at high risk of ICH* and very high risk of PVL*

Immature oligodendroglia are vulnerable to oxidative damage (from stress, ischemia, infection, inflammation)

*VLBW=very low birth weight ICH=intracranial hemmorhage PVL=periventricular leukomalacia
Describe the primary effects of ethanol on the GI (stomach, intestine, and pancreas)
Stomach – at low doses, alcohol stimulates salivary and gastric acid secretion. High concentrations of alcohol (>20%) may inhibit gastric acid secretion and peptic activity.

Intestine – chronic ingestion will lead to ↓ absorption of folic acid, thiamine, niacin, other vitamins, constipation, or diarrhea.

Pancreas – chronic ingestion may lead to pancreatitis
: inapp. Sexual or aggressive behavior, mood lability, impaired judgment & one or more of the following
Slurred speech
Incoordination
Unsteady gait
Nystagmus
Impairment in attention or memory
Stupor or coma

this is Intoxication or Withdrawal? of what?
ETOH

intoxication
Describe the primary effects of ethanol on the liver
Chronic ingestion → induction of hepatic microsomal enzyme system and other enzyme systems.
Chronic excessive use fatty → infiltration, hepatitis, and hepatic cirrhosis.
Biochemical changes
• Differentiate obstructive and non-obstructive hydrocephalus
Blockage of this flow anywhere within the substance of the brain (i.e. before the CSF passes through the foramina of Luschka and Magendie) results in obstructive or non-communicating hydrocephalus

Overproduction or decreased absorption at the arachnoid villi results in communicating or non-obstructive hydrocephalus.
what important endocrine effect does ethanol have?

**
decreases ADH release
what 3 drugs can kill you in withdrawal
booze benzos barbs
leading cause of teratogenesis
booze
define compulsive drug dependence
Continued use of a drug despite adverse medical or social consequences
Describe the metabolism and elimination kinetics of ethanol

what enzyme does this?
90-98% of ethanol ingested is completely oxidized in the body. The rest is excreted via the urine and expired air.

At BAC > 0.01% the metabolism of ethanol follows zero-order kinetics

alcohol dehydrogenase
2 or more of the following occurring a several hours or few days
Autonomic hyperactivity (sweating or pulse rate >100)
Hand tremor
Insomnia
Nausea or vomiting
Hallucinations (a/v/t)
Psychomotor agitation
Anxiety
Grand mal seizure

this is Intoxication or Withdrawal? of what?
ETOH

withdrawal
how does drinking cause hypoglycemia
NAD is used to metabolize etoh and you dont have any left for gluconeogenesis
Bilateral spasticity of the legs greater than the arms
Brisk LE reflexes, ankle clonus, and bilateral Babinski sign
In infants: often scissor their legs when held upright, may “commando*” crawl, and may be difficult to diaper because of hip adduction

what is this? how is this pt intellect
Spastic Diplegia

Intellect is usually unaffected
Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome
memory loss and psychosis due to vitamin loss and booze
tx for alcohol withdrawal
Benzos
moa of Disulfuram? use?
Inhibition of aldehyde dehydrogenase leads to increase blood levels of acetaldehyde following ingestion of alcohol

causes a person to get really sick and deter them from drinking

can also be used against cocaine
Can you terminate your relationship with a patient?
In general, the AMA suggests giving 30 days notice. This suggestion is discretionary, depending on your individual circumstances; however, if you do not provide proper notice, you can be accused of patient abandonment.
Naltrexone, an opiod antagonist has what other use?
Opioid antagonist which blocks the rewarding effects of alcohol. Limitation is possibility of liver damage at high dose
etoh dependence tx
Disulfiram (Antabuse): inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase causing a build-up of aldehyde causing flushing, sweating, nausea, and tachycardia

Naltrexone: opioid receptor blocker reduced craving and reward response

Acamprosate (Campral): affects glutamate and GABA neurotransmitter systems
what kind of drug is acamprostate?
An anti-craving drug approved by FDA August, 2004. Used to maintain abstinence in former drinkers.
The most severe form of CP
Marked motor impairment of all 4 extremities...

what is this? what is their intellect like?
Spastic Quadriplegia

Classically associated with
seizures, mental retardation, swallowing dysfunction
Describe the potential drug interactions between ethanol and CNS depressants, oral hypoglycemics, anticoagulants, salicylates, acetaminophen, anticonvulsants, and antimicrobial agents
CNS depressants: potentiate effect

hypoglycemia: Alcohol causes potentiation of hypoglycemic effect. May also see disulfiram-like effect, particularly with chlorpropamide and tolbutamide


anticoagulants: Half-life of warfarin decreased by chronic use of alcohol; however, anticoagulant effect may be enhanced in the presence of liver disease. Occasional moderate doses of ethanol unlikely to interfere with warfarin therapy in patients with normal liver function

salicylates: Increase risk of gastric hemorrhage (aspirin)

acetaminophen: potentiate breakdown to toxic metabolite-->liver damage

anticonvulsants: Half-life decreased with chronic ingestion of large doses of alcohol due to induction of microsomal enzymes. Alcohol withdrawal associates with seizures

antimicrobial agents: disulfram like rxns
why do many meth addicts go through depression when getting clean
Methamphetamine appears to have a neurotoxic effect, damaging brain cells that contain dopamine and serotonin
2 metabolites of methanol? things they cause
formic acid (metabolic acidosis-death)

formaldehyde (damage retinal cells-->blindness)
what 2 malformations are commonly seen in Hydrocephalus in Older Children
Foreshortened occiput (with Chiari malformation)

Prominent occiput (with Dandy-Walker malformation)
tx for methanol?
Hemodialysis, support respiration
NaHCO3 administration to correct for metabolic acidosis
Delay methanol metabolism with ethanol or Fomepizol (Antizol) - an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase which decreases metabolism of methanol to toxic metabolites
Increased wakefulness
Increased physical activity
Decreased appetite
Increased respiration
Hyperthermia
Euphoria.

signs of pts on...
Methamphetamine
Oxidation to glycoaldehyde and oxalate may cause serious metabolic acidosis (anion gap) and renal damage (oxalate crystals)....
Ethylene Glycol

Solvent, antifreeze. Sweet taste attracts children and animals
Classically associated with
seizures, mental retardation, swallowing dysfunction

Which Palsy?
Spastic Quadriplegia
pupillary dilation=
meth intox
define tolerance

pharmacodynamic tolerance

pharmacokinetic tolerance
Decreased response to a given dose of drug after repeated doses

can be due to:
pharmacokinetic tolerance: body metabolizes more readily

pharmacodynamic tolerance: down regulate receptors
Tachy/bradycardia
Pupillary dilation
hi BP
Perspiration/chills
nausea/vomiting
Wt. loss
Psychomotor agitation/retardation
Muscular weakness, respiratory depression, chest pain
Confusion, seizures, dyskinesias, dystonias, coma

intox or withdrawal? what drug
intox

meth
Arm is more affected than the leg with difficulty in hand movement noted in infancy (early handedness before age 3)

Spasticity in the affected extremities (equinovarus* deformity of the foot) and a circumductive gait

Weakness of the hand and foot dorsiflexors, may have unilateral ankle clonus and Babinski

problem effects half the body...what do they have? intellect?
Spastic Hemiplegia

25% have cognitive abnormalities (i.e. 75% do not)
Fatigue
Vivid, unpleasant dreams
Insomnia/hypersomnia
Increased appetite
Psychomotor agitation or retardation

Peak within 2-4 days and resolve in a week w/ most serious symptom being depression.

intox or withdrawal? what drug
withdrawal

meth
describe a CHIARI MALFORMATION

does it cause non-obstructive or obstructive hydrocephaly?
Displacement of the cerebral tonsils into the cervical canal  usually no sx until adolescence or adulthood. (Recurrent headaches, neck pain, urinary frequency, and progressive lower extremity spasticity. Etiology unknown.

Non-communicating or Obstructive
tx for ppl getting off meth
Buproprion (Wellbutrin) produces feelings of well-being as they cope with the dysphoria

inhibit DA/NE reuptake
Infants are hypotonic with head lag
As they grow older they develop variable tone with rigidity and dystonia
Oropharyngeal muscles frequently involved (speech, swallow, drooling, tongue thrust)

what is this? intellect? most commonly 2ndary to?
Extrapyramidal CP

intellect often intact

CP most likely secondary to perinatal asphyxia
how do you get euphoria w/ cocaine
strong DA reuptake inhibition in brain
suicide is the 3rd leading cause of death in persons age ...
15-24
CT scan of brain, huge intaparenchymal bleed=

**
cocaine

vasoconstriction
a pt is referred to your office with suspected CP, over time it appears to be gettin worse...what do you say
this is not CP

doesnt progress

A history of a progressive disorder should lead you to look elsewhere (for example, muscular dystrophy, spinal cord tumor, or neurodegenerative diseases
euphoria, apathy, dysphoria, psy. Agitation/retardation
Pupillary constriction and one or more of the following
Drowsiness or coma
Slurred speech
Impairment in attention or memory

intox or withdrawal? what drug?
intox

opioid
describe a Dandy Walker Malformation

does it cause non-obstructive or obstructive hydrocephaly?
Dandy-Walker Syndrome: a cystic expansion of the 4th ventricle with failure of formation of the roof of the forth ventricle  90% have hydrocephalus. Other associated anomalies include agenesis of the posterior cerebellar vermis and of the corpus collosum.

Non-communicating or Obstructive
: cessation of use and three or more
Dysphoric mood
Nausea/vomiting
Muscle aches
Lacrimation/rhinorrhea
Pupillary dilation, piloerection, sweating
Diarrhea
Yawning
Fever
insomnia

intox or withdrawal? what drug?
withdrawal

opiod
Maryanne is a 12 year old straight A student who walks with her right leg turned in and runs with her right elbow flexed and against her body. Which type of CP does she have?

Spastic diplegia
Spastic quadriplegia
Spastic hemiplegia
Extrapyramidal CP
Mixed type CP

finding on neural exam? cause?
Spastic hemiplegia

on neural exam:
contralateral ventricular dilitation

cause: stroke
*******

Alcohol and all drugs of this class (sedative/hypnotic/anxiolytic) are cross tolerant and their effects are additive.
this is a test question
• Describe psychotropic use in special populations:

children
elderly
pregnant/nursing
medically ill
Children
Begin with small doses and increase until clinical effects are observed

Elderly
Start with ½ the usual starting dose and increase slowly

Pregnant and Nursing Women
All psychotropic medications cross the placenta
Try to avoid during pregnancy (esp. 1st trimester) or when nursing
Consider ECT in severe cases
Medically Ill Persons

Treat using most conservative clinical practice
major sign of barbituate withdrawal?
seizures
Sally is a 3 year old with mental retardation, daily seizures, a feeding tube in her abdomen, and flexion contractures in her upper and lower extremities. Which type of CP does she have?

Spastic diplegia
Spastic quadriplegia
Spastic hemiplegia
Extrapyramidal CP
Mixed type CP

finding on neural exam?
Spastic quadriplegia

neuro imaging: cysts, brisk reflex, spasticity
tx for hydrocephalus?
Acetazolamide and furosemide reduce CSF production, but are not definitive solutions

V/P* shunting is palliative not curative (complicated by infection or obstruction)
Sarah turns 16 this year and wants to get her driver’s license. Her parents have her car specially adapted to allow control of the gas and break with her hands because her legs are too spastic. What type of CP does she have?

Spastic diplegia
Spastic quadriplegia
Spastic hemiplegia
Extrapyramidal CP
Mixed CP
Spastic diplegia
What do the following conditions have in common?
Sexually transmitted disease
Online pornography obsession
Domestic abuse
Constipation
Job loss or academic failure
Eating disorders
SHAME

Patients rarely tell you they have an eating disorder.
Patients may say they are depressed, anxious, or complain of GI problems.
They may say nothing, but you can observe a change in affect or cognition, or body-checking or avoidant behavior.
Their parents or significant others may tell you, and/or force them to see you
Michael is a 5 month old who was born following a very long, difficult labor. You notice considerable head lag when you hold him and excessive drooling. His mother is worried that he doesn’t nurse well. What kind of CP does he have?

Spastic diplegia
Spastic quadriplegia
Spastic hemiplegia
Extrapyramidal CP
Mixed CP
Extrapyramidal CP
which is more greatly affected in hydrocephalus: motor or intellect?
Motor performance is more greatly affected than intellect because the gray matter of the brain is less affected by the hydrocephalus than the white matter (spasticity or coordination defects)
what is Serotonin Syndrome? cause? sx? tx?
Cause
Administration of drugs that can raise plasma serotonin concentration
22% SSRI OD/ MAOI/Tramadol

Symptoms
Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
Restlessness
Extreme agitation
Confusion
Hyperreflexia
Autonomic instability
Myoclonus, seizures, *** hyperthermia, shivering, rigidity
Delirium, coma, CV collapse, death

Treatment
Stop offending agents
Supportive care
Control agitation (benzodiazepines)
Control autonomic instability
Control hyperthermia
5-HT2A antagonists (cyproheptadine, olanzapine)
Which of the following will you find in a child with familial macrocephaly?

Rapid increase in head growth
Cracked pot sound on percussion
1st degree relative with large head
History of meningitis
1st degree relative with large head
A 78 year-old white male, recently widowed, comes to your office complaining of insomnia. Further questioning reveals that the patient is feeling depressed and hopeless. He tells you he has “no reason to live” since his wife died. He started drinking whiskey to help him sleep but now he is drinking “more than he should”. His only son and grandchildren live in another state.

what are his risk factors for suicide?
white male

late age

recent loss

substance abuse

depression
Which of the following is seen in an older child with untreated hydrocephalus?

Gaze disturbance
Rapid increase in head size
Bulging fontanelle
Normal funduscopic exam
Gaze disturbance
12-24 hours – restless sleep, diluted pupils, anorexia, piloerection, irritability, tremor

withdrawal sx of?
Opioids
Most common congenital anomaly of nervous system?

due to?
Neural Tube Defects

FOLATE DEF
what is Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome? clinical findings?
Cause
Complication of neuroleptic drugs
Typicals > Atypicals
Clozapine + lithium

Clinical Features
Hyperthermia
Autonomic instability
Extreme muscle rigidity, tremor
Mental status change, confusion
Dystonia or akinesia
Mutism
Agitation
Leukocytosis
Elevated CPK
Coma, death
48-72 hours – peak intensity of syndrome, all earlier symptoms increased in intensity plus weakness, depression, nausea, vomiting, intestinal spasm, diarrhea, increase HR and BP, chills and flushes, muscle pain, and involuntary movements of limbs

withdrawal sx of?
Opioids
what percent of people w. polio will have sx?
1%

but they can still transmit the dz
Midline defect with failure of closure of the posterior vertebral arches and laminae (typically lumbosacral)
Without protrusion of meninges or spinal cord
Ordinarily asymptomatic and found incidentally on X-ray in 5 to 15% of the general population
Spina Bifida Occulta
tx for opiod withdrawal?
Methadone detox – substitute and withdraw over next 3 weeks. (oral, legal, longer, less intense)

Methadone maintenance – substitute and maintain. Newer drug, levomethadyl (Orlaam), also available

Opioid antagonists – to induce quick withdrawal or to prevent relapse

Clonidine – a2 agonist to suppress autonomic signs of withdrawal

Buprenorphine (Subutex, Suboxone) maintenance – first drug approved to maintain opioid dependence outside of specialized clinics. Physician must be certified by FDA to prescribe
define a Meningocele.

Sx?
Midline defect in which the meninges herniate through a defect in the posterior vertebral arches, unaccompanied by neural tissue

Many patients have **gait abnormalities or loss of bladder control***, particularly during periods of rapid growth
give the demographic risk factors for suicide:

age
gender
race
marital status
religion
occupation
Age – elderly at highest risk for completed suicide

Gender – males at higher risk than females for completed suicide (more women will try)

Race – white, Native American at highest risk

Marital status – single, widowed, divorced

Religion – Protestant, Jewish

Occupation – professionals - especially physicians; unemployed
define a Myelomeningocele

how do sx vary based on location?
Midline defect of the posterior vertebral arches with herniation of meninges and neural tissue

High lesions (above T11) are associated with higher morbidity, lower intelligence, and greater disability than low lesions (below L3)

Mid-sacral to mid-lumbar region:
flaccid paralysis of the legs
lack of touch and pain sensation
clubfeet and subluxed hips
Chiari II malformation with hydrocephalus (~80%)

Low sacral region:
bladder and bowel incontinence
perineal anesthesia
no motor involvement
what is an important use of Buprenorphine
maintenance – first drug approved to maintain opioid dependence outside of specialized clinics. Physician must be certified by FDA to prescribe
A child is born with a low lumbar midline defect. MRI shows herniation of meninges through a spinal defect without neural tissue. What should you expect?

He will develop worsening spasticity in his legs
He may have intermittent incontinence as he grows
80% are associated with Chiari II malformation
Lack of touch and pain sensation in the legs
correct: He may have intermittent incontinence as he grows

myelomeningiocele:
80% are associated with Chiari II malformation
Lack of touch and pain sensation in the legs
what is the Most effective treatment for mood disorders, that is used for rapid response. One side effect is potentially forgetting large portions of your life
ElectroConvulsive Therapy

Most Common Indications
Major depressive disorder
Bipolar disorder – depression or mania
Refractory schizophrenia
Catatonia (in mood disorders or schizophrenia)
Mood disorders in pregnancy

Relative Contraindications
Increased intracranial pressure (NPH, benign intracranial hypertension, etc.)
Intracranial lesions (tumor, hematoma, aneurysm, AVM, etc.)
Recent myocardial infarction (< 3 months)
Recent stroke
Unstable aortic aneurysm
On the boards you will be asked about the most common cause of neural tube defects. You’ll answer:

Maternal drug use
TORCH infection
Radiation
Malnutrition
B9 deficiency
B9 deficiency
withdrawal from what kind of drugs can cause seizures?
General CNS Depressants

Short acting barbs, BDZs like diazepam and flunitrazepam (“roofies”), non-barbs such as methaqualone, gamma hydroxybutyrate (GHB), and ketamine
A 5 month infant is brought to your office. At your visit a few months ago, you noted some flattening of the back of his skull. You advised repositioning. On review of yesterday’s CT scan, you note a premature fusion of bilateral lambdoid sutures. You advise the parents:

He should receive OMT
He needs an MRI
He should receive surgery
OMT won’t be enough, he’ll need helmet therapy
He should receive surgery
inability to maintain body weight at or above a minimally normal weight for age and height.
Intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, even though underweight.
Anorexia Nervosa
A collective term for a set of late-onset and sometimes irreversible disorders which can include chorea, dysphonia, dystonia, tics, and myoclonus
Tardive Dyskinesia
what two psychiatric disorders have increase rates for completed suicide?
MDD 15%

Substance Related Disorders 15%
why is cocaine so addictive?
short half life and sensitization to the drug

have to use it more often and in higher dose to get euphoria
tx for Depression w/ seasonal pattern
Adjunct in non-seasonal depression
Sleep disorders (e.g., shiftwork, jet lag)
OCD w/ seasonal pattern
Phototherapy
what drug when abused can cause serious cardiotox?
Cocaine
~ 90% of community-acquired viral meningitis is due to what?
Enteroviruses
dental decay along with Memory loss
Learning impairment
Motor deficits
Psychiatric disorders

are side effects of chronic use of which drug
methamphetamine
What are 2 of the biggest risk factors for suicide?
History of previous suicide attempt!
Family history of suicide

others:
Feelings of hopelessness
Suicidal ideation, plan for suicide
Access to firearms
Stressful life events, recent loss
Lack of social support, lives alone
Severe anxiety, panic attacks
Insomnia or lack of sleep
Chronic or terminal illness (e.g., AIDS, cancer)
Prolonged pain, loss of function, disfigurement
what drug can be given to help you quit smoking
buproprion

atypical anti-depressant, blocks 5ht and DA reuptake

or Varenicline-partial nicotine agonist
Recurrent episodes of binge eating.
Recurrent inappropriate compensatory behavior in order to prevent weight gain…(exercise, diet pills, etc)
The binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviors both occur, on average, at least twice a week for 3 months
Bulimia Nervosa

Self-evaluation is unduly influenced by body shape and weight.
The disturbance does not occur exclusively during episodes of anorexia nervosa
what kind of drug is Varenicline? moa? use?
partial nicotine agonist.

Blocks nicotine receptor in presence of full agonist (nicotine from cigarette smoke)

This blocks pleasurable effect if person smokes.

Stimulates receptor slightly to decrease cravings

Thought to be the most effective drug for smoking cessation
what is Parasuicidal Behavior?

*
Term that describes persons who engage in self harm (e.g., cutting the skin) without the expectation of dying.

Some are malingering – seeking admission to hospital to avoid situations such as incarceration

Others want attention from significant others
10% go on to complete suicide

More often: female; low lethality; <35 yr. old; high expectation of rescue

Personality disorder, adjustment disorder, substance abuse common
person is trying to quit smoking but starts having crazy dreams...what is he on
Varenicline
how is polio mostly spread?
Asymptomatic infection in 90-95%
(primary source of epidemic
spread).

fecal oral

the only reservoir is man
Salvia divinorum is what kind of drug
contains salvinorum A (a κ-opioid agonist), a short acting hallucinogen.
when should you try to commit someone
imminent risk to self or others

acutely psychotic/manic

cant take care of themselves
: recurrent episodes of binge eating in the absence if the regular use of inappropriate compensatory behaviors characteristic of bulimia nervosa
Binge-eating disorder
pharmacological tx of:

amphetamines
Lorazepam for agitation and haloperidol for psychosis
a child presents to the ER with tightness of the neck and jaw muscles, hyperreflexia, tonic extensor thrusts...they parents thing he may have found some type of poison in their tool shed. What got him, moa, and how do you tx?
strychnine

Produces CNS excitation by blocking glycine-mediated postsynaptic inhibition


tx:
IV diazepam, lorazepam, or anesthetic dose of short acting barbiturate
Respiratory support
Quiet surroundings
Gastric lavage
pharmacological tx of:

benzos
Flumazenil

antagonist
Static Risk Factors: Demographic for violence:

age
gender
SEC
Age
Risk increased in teens to early 20’s
Increased violence among those > 70 (esp. if have dementia)

Gender
Men 3 times more likely than women

Socioeconomic status
Lower SES associated with increased risk
Research with higher SES not extensive
pharmacological tx of:

Cocaine
Lorazepam for agitation or seizures
usual onset of anorexia?

bullimia?

binge eating disorder?
arex: Usual onset in adolescence (14-18)

bulimia: Usual onset of late adolescence through early adulthood

bed: affects individuals of all ages
pharmacological tx of:

Hallucinogens
Lorazepam for agitation
what is the greatest risk of violence?
Substance abuse

in patients with or without mental illness substantially increases risk
pharmacological tx of:

Marijuana
Lorazepam for agitation
paralytic poliomyelitis only occurs in 1% of ppl, what are the sx of this? how does it kill you
loss of fnction in limbs due to neuronal destruction

respiratory paralysis-->death
pharmacological tx of:

Opioids
Naloxone
what is the single best predictor of violence?
Previous history of violence = single best predictor
pharmacological tx of:

Phencyclidine
Lorazepam for agitation and haloperidol for psychosis
flip to see risk factors for eating disorders..objective
Certain sports: ballet, figure skating, gymnastics, wrestling, track
First-degree family members with an eating disorder (13x greater risk)
Type 1 Diabetes mellitus, especially with onset in adolescence
History of physical or sexual abuse
Comorbidity with affective & anxiety disorders, especially Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
The physician should suspect drug seekers if patients.....
State that they are from out of town
Claim that the prescription has been lost
Visit the physician during off-hours
Present symptoms that contradict clinical observation (atypical symptoms)
Will not permit a medical history and workup
Seek a specific drug rather than treatment for symptoms
what is the most significant cause of fungal meningitis?
Cryptococcus neoformans
what is the female athlete triad?
Disordered eating
Amenorrhea
Osteoporosis
what are the 2 tx for polio? which is used to eliminate the virus from the environment
Salk (killed)

Sabin (live, attenuated) vaccines
--sabin prevents fecal-oral spread of wild type-->eliminates from environment

Major disadvantage of sabin: but may lead to minor/major
disease (including VAPP – vaccine associated
paralytic poliomyelitis).
how is diabetes a risk factor for eating disorders?
Increased risk of AN among adolescent females with DM1
DM management can exacerbate ED
Perfectionism, focus on #s, focus on body & food
Insulin restriction is a purge equivalent
Among adults with DM2, bulimia is more common than anorexia
Success requires close collaboration of multidisciplinary team
Exchanges instead of carb-counting
No food records
what is the MOA of local anesthetcs?
Block voltage-gated sodium channels
bind to specific receptors at the INTRACELLULAR end of the voltage gated sodium channel
prevent axonal conduction by a functional blockade
3. Explain the biopsychosocial etiology of eating disorders
Genetic predisposition
Serotonin
NIMH genetics study

Psychological vulnerability (ie, risk avoidant temperament)
Relational dynamics

Cultural phenomenon
children who get "aseptic" meningitis....normal cause??

when are they getting it?
Coxsackie A, B, echoviruses

Late summer or early fall --when kids go back to school

Both fecal-oral and respiratory transmission
what was the Key's study, what did it show?
36 healthy young men, caloric intake reduced to ½ of their usual intake for 6 months

Developed food preoccupation and feeding rituals, food-related hoarding behavior, depression…
MOA of caffeine?
– act as antagonists at adenosine receptors.

Adenosine receptors are located on presynaptic terminals of noradrenergic neurons and blocks NE release. So caffeine increases NE release.
brittle hair and dry skin
cachexia
lanugo
hypoactive bowel sounds
hyper- or hyporeflexia
cognitive impairment
hypothermia
hypotension
bradycardia

physical findings of what?
anorexia nervosa

hypothermia
hypotension
bradycardia
require hospitalization
Patients present with fever, chills, headache, stiff neck, nausea
and vomiting, photophobia. May be signs of mental dysfunction. You suspect meningitis, but are unsure... your first step is to:

send off labs to find out if it is viral or bacterial

start anitbacterial tx immediately

obtain an MRI

dont worry about tx, most meningitis is viral and self limited
start antibacterial therapy immediately
eroded dental enamel
painless parotid gland enlargement
Russell’s sign
Hypoactive bowel sounds
Peripheral edema

physical findings of what?
Bullemia Nervosa
when given this general anesthetic, free radicals can build up (especially when used over multiple surgeries) and damage a specific organ...what is the drug? what is the organ?
Halothane hepatitis – free radical metabolites
what are the Medical Complications of AN, BN, ad BED?
AN: complications result from malnutrition
BN & purging AN: complications result from mechanism of purging
BED: complications result from obesity
cardiovascular disease (CAD, hypertension), dyslipidemia, Diabetes mellitus, obesity-related hypoventilation syndrome and obstuctive sleep apnea, pressure sores, osteoarthritis
describe what your WBC count will be like in bacterial and viral meningits
bacterial: +1000, PMNs

viral: less, lymphocytes
when discussing eating disoders, what is key to remember, especially with anorexia?
high Mortality rate

Common complaints related to GI & CNS functions, and dermatologic effects
adverse effects of caffeine?
At 1 g dose of caffeine (12 cups coffee)
Insomnia, excitement, mild delirium, sensory disturbances
Increased heart rate
Increased respiration

At higher doses (10 g)
Clonic convulsions → death

Chronic use in pregnant women may increase rate of spontaneous abortion
Tolerance and physical dependence can occur.

Withdrawal symptoms include lethargy, irritability, and headache
if a person is vomiting a lot what would Cl lvls be like?
decreased
in the winter time, what 2 viruses could have caused meningitis?
enterovirus or herpes
tx for AN?

BN tx goal?

BED?
AN: Nutritional rehabilitation--full weight restoration.

BN: goal of treatment for BN is normalization of eating behavior

BED:complete abstinence from binge-eating and modest weight loss (5-10%)
what is the relationship btw pKa and rate of onset for local anesthetics?
lower the pKa the faster the onset of action
when a pt is diagnosed w/ anorexia, what test should you run after a year?
DEXA

Treatment
Weight restoration, smoking cessation
Calcium +/- Vitamin D
Calcium & Vitamin D plus alendronate compared favorably to placebo
what fungal infection can cause CNS infections without pts being immunocompromised??
C. gatti

more pathogenic than - Cryptococcus neoformans
What is refeeding syndrome?
Typically develops on day 4

Not just seen in anorexia, but in rapid refeeding from any malnourished state

Hypophosphatemia followed by fluid shifts and other serum electrolyte deficits

Mortality due to heart failure, pulmonary edema
Therapeutic uses of caffeine?
combination with aspirin or ergot alkaloids (cafergot..tx of headaches)
what are some of the pathogenic factors of - Cryptococcus neoformans? 3
Negatively charged capsule (inhibits phagocytosis);

excess production of capsular material inhibits chemotaxis

melanin production: from conversion of brain catecholamines (e.g., DOPA, acts as a chemoattractant); Also utilizes nitrogen from creatine, creatinine.

melanin protects organism from oxidative compounds
(free radicals) produced by macrophages
what is the tx for malignant hyperthermia?
Dantrolene

puts Ca back in SR
how is Cryptococcus neoformans obtained?
Inhaled as a yeast:
From dried pigeon or blackbird droppings (nitrogen rich).
No person-person spread.
Does not cause disease in pigeon
Primarily in immunocompromised, spread via blood to CNS
Methylphenidate is what kind of drug?
amphetamine

Ritalin
if you suspect at all that a pt has cryptoccocal meningitis, what is the standard test?

***
Traditional:
India Ink Stain
(of CSF)
how can you keep the ester and amide local anesthetics apart?
AMIDE LINKAGE (2 EYES!!)
LIDOCAINE
lidocaine (Xylocaine)
mepivacaine (Carbocaine)
bupivacaine (Marcaine)
etidocaine (Duranest)
ropivacaine (Naropin)

vs ESTERs
PROCAINE
procaine (Novocaine)
tetracaine (Pontocaine)
benzocaine
cocaine
tx for cryptococcal meninigits?
typically itraconazole

amp B or fluconazole would work
how do amphetamines work?
release NE, DA, and 5HT from nerve terminals

elevation of mood, euphoria, increased alertness
Reduced feeling of fatigue
Restlessness, increased motor activity
Reduced appetite
At very large doses, convulsions may occur
Halothane is what kind of drug?
Inhalation Anesthetic Agents
adverse effects of amphetamines?
Peripheral sympathomimetic effects (e.g., increased blood pressure). Avoid in patients with uncontrolled hypertension and coronary artery disease.

CNS irritability → depression
Abuse potential

Concern about long-term safety of stimulant treatment in children

Recent concern about deaths in patients with structural cardiac defects taking methylphenidate and Adderall. FDA reviewing psychiatric (hallucinations) and CV effects of all ADHD drugs
which type of local anesthetic are more likely to cause allergic response
Esters are metabolized to common metabolite PABA

allergic

remember esters only have 1 eye
therapeutic uses of Amphetamines?
Narcolepsy – amphetamines/methylphenidate

Attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder – methylphenidate and d-amphetamine most commonly used. Long acting forms of both are now available and make once daily dosing possible (also transdermal). Clonidine may be effective in some children.
Isoflurane is what kind of drug?

*
Inhalation Anesthetic Agents
phentermine is what kind of drug? moa? use?
Amphetamine

release NE, DA, and 5HT from nerve terminals

Appetite suppression
which type of local anesthetic are more likely to systemic response
amides

Hydrolyzed by liver microsomal enzymes (P450)

Longer acting & more systemic toxicity than esters

Caution with severely compromised hepatic function
how does cocaine produce its CNS effects? what kind of drug was it again?
Cocaine produces its CNS effects (and peripheral side effects) by inhibiting re-uptake of catecholamines, particularly DA. It acts primarily on centers controlling alertness and responsiveness, and on the brain’s reward center.

local anesthetic (ester)
Enflurane is what kind of drug? tox to worry about?
Inhalation Anesthetic Agents

increase risk of seizure
adverse effects of cocaine?
similar to amphetamine. Vasoconstriction and ↑ BP; cardiac arrhythmias
what terminates the action of Local Anesthetics
Systemic absorption (out of tissues) terminates local action (Not local metabolism)
What kind of drug is modafinil? moa? use?
Non-amphetamine stimulants used to treat excessive sleepiness due to narcolepsy, sleep apnea and shift work sleep disorder.

Stimulate cells in sleep/wake centers which release the neurotransmitters hypocretin 1 and 2. Results in increased wakefulness.

help get your fil of sleep
Desflurane is what kind of drug?

good thing about it?

bad?

*
Inhalation Anesthetic Agents

rapid emergence (low lambda)

more irritating to airway
What kind of drug is armodafinil? moa? use?
Non-amphetamine stimulants used to treat excessive sleepiness due to narcolepsy, sleep apnea and shift work sleep disorder.

Stimulate cells in sleep/wake centers which release the neurotransmitters hypocretin 1 and 2. Results in increased wakefulness.

help get your fil of sleep
what are the good effects of vasoconstictors when used w/ Local Anesthetics?

bad?
good:
Decrease rate of systemic absorption and decrease systemic toxicity

Increase local drug concentration and increase neuronal uptake of LA

Increase local duration of action (e.g. lidocaine’s duration my increase two fold with epi)

Bad:
DON’T use in areas of toes, fingers, ear lobes, penis (ischemia)
May produce tissue necrosis
May produce systemic toxicity (cardiovasc)
Sevoflurane is what kind of drug?

whats good about it?

*
Inhalation Anesthetic Agents

similar to desflurane except not irritating to airway (low lambda-Rapid emergence)
adverse effects of this drug include:

Headache, nausea, diarrhea, dry mouth, anorexia are common.
Nervousness, anxiety, and insomnia have been reported, but less than amphetamine, or methylphenidate.
Psychiatric problems (hallucinations, suicidal ideation) and serious allergic rxns.
Less abuse potential than amphetamine or methylphenidate
Modafinil and armodafinil
what is used to induce anesthesia in kids??
Sevoflurane
what kind of drug is Atomoxetine? use? moa?
NOT a stimulant; included here because it is used to treat ADHD

Selectively inhibits NE transporter, blocking NE reuptake and resulting in increased attention and decreased impulsivity and hyperactivity. Since it doesn’t block DA reuptake, it’s not likely to be abused
7. indicate which system is most sensitive to systemic effect of local anesthetics and which system is second most sensitive
1. CNS
First an apparent CNS stimulation (convulsions most serious)
Followed by CNS depression (death due to respir depression)
Premonitory signs include: ringing in ears, metalic taste, numbness around lips

2. CVS
HYPOTENSION: Arteriolar dilation is a result of:
Direct effect (procaine and lidocaine have most effect)
Block of postganglionic sympathetic fiber function
CNS depression
Avoid by adding vasoconstrictor to prep

Note: cocaine is exception: produces vasoconstriction, blocks NE reuptake

ARRHYTHMIAS: direct effect (More resistant than CNS)
Decrease cardioexcitability and contractility
Decreased conduction rate
Increased refractory rate (bupivicaine)
Note: cocaine is exception......it stimulates heart
ALL can cause arrhythmias if conc. is high enough
how do stimulants help tx ADHD
increase attention span
what kind of drug is propofol?

use?
IV anesthetic agent

used to induce pts
black box for Atomoxetine
suicidal behavior in children and liver injury.
What drug is likely responsible for CV arrhythmia??

**
bupivicaine
Guanfacine use? moa?
Also not a stimulant, but used as an adjunct in the treatment of ADHD.

It is an α2 –adrenergic agonist that decreases central sympathetic activity.
what 2 drugs can be metabolized by rapid redistribution?

(comlex)
thiopental or diazepem
Describe the potential adverse effects of ephedra.
) have been associated with heart attacks, sudden cardiac death, stroke, brain hemorrhage, seizures, and deaths
8. indicate in what ways cocaine differs from most local anesthetics with regards to CNS and vascular effects.
CNS: euphoria

CVS: cocaine is exception......it stimulates heart and: produces vasoconstriction, blocks NE reuptake
moa of ephedra?
herbal product containing ephedrine, an indirect and direct acting sympathomimetic amine.

Ephedrine acts indirectly by releasing Norepinephrine and directly by stimulation of a, b1, and b2 adrenergic receptors.
what kind of drug is ketamine? how does it work?

problem with it?
IV anesthetic

doesnt exactly put pt to sleep, but will make them not care and not in pain--dissociative

go ahead and cut me

when a pt wakes up they can have hallucinations and get impaired recovery
moa of LSD?

effects?
agonist at presynaptic serotonin receptors (5HT2a) in the midbrain

Major effects
Heightened awareness of sensory input; synesthesia
Passive observer state
Inward attention
Diminished ability to determine boundaries
what is cauda equina syndrome? what is responsible for this?
transient neurological symptoms after spinal anesthesia

LA can cause concentration-dependent nerve damage to central and peripheral NS
Psilocybin and psilocin
mescaline

all similar to what? so moa?
LSD

agonist at presynaptic serotonin receptors (5HT2a) in the midbrain
Dexmedetomidine is what kind of drug? moa?

use?
IV anesthetic

α2 agonist

used for intubation
moa of marijuana?
Bind to specific cannabinoid (CB) receptors located in various brain areas. Endogenous ligands (endocannabinoids, EC) have also been identified.

Stimulation of CB receptors leads to activation of brain’s reward center (pleasurable effects) and also activates centers involved with eating.
which LA is limited to surface or topical anesthesia only?
Benzocaine
as increased heart rate, dry mouth, increased appetite, and reddening of conjunctiva =
stoner

probably wearing tie dye listwning to phish with a necklace that has a little mushroom in it

weeeeeeeeeeeeed
Etomidate is what kind of drug?

use?
IV anesthetic

short procedures
adverse effects of weed
Decreased testosterone levels
Bronchitis
Airway obstruction
“Amotivational” syndrome (?)
this drug is

topical, infiltration and spinal anesthesia
Frequently used for topical ophthalomogical anesthesia
slow onset and more prolonged effect than procaine (longest duration of the esters)

~10X more toxic and more potent than procaine
Tetracaine

ester
Therapeutic use of marijuana
Glaucoma

Antiemetic (dronabinol [Marinol] and nabilone [Cesamet]) approved for use)
what anesthetic causes marked amnesia?
midazolam
moa of PCP
Acts by binding to high affinity sites in cortex and limbic system, resulting in blocking of NMDA-type glutamate receptors

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=LzB03c6Dc10
most widely used local anesthetic?
LIDOCAINE
effects of PCP?
hallucinations (desired effect), detachment, disorientation, ataxia, violent behavior, distortion of body image, loss of proprioception, numbness, nystagmus, sweating, rapid heart rate, hypertension, acute psychotic reactions, and seizures. Can be fatal in overdose
what local anesthetic drug is most likely to cause sedation?
LIDOCAINE
3,4 methylenedioxymethamphetamine is what kind of drug? moa?
An amphetamine analog which produces central stimulation, euphoria, and hallucinations. MDMA causes DA release like amphetamine, but its major effect is on 5HT neurons. It causes 5HT release and blocks 5HT synthesis and reuptake. The net effect is more 5HT in the synapse and depletion of 5HT in the neuron.

this MDMA / Ecstasy
what local anesthetic drug cannot be used in obstetrical anesthesia
mepivicaine

More toxic to neonates so not used in obstetrical anesthesia (fetus poorly metabolizes mepivicaine)
pt comes in with in overheating and dehydration. Also causes involuntary grinding of the teeth. What drug were they on?
3,4 methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA or Ecstasy)
which LA is most likely to produce vasoconstrictor effects
• cocaine
is reported to cause feelings of empathy, closeness to others and facilitates interpersonal relationships
3,4 methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA or Ecstasy)