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207 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the MOST common cause of bacterial meningitis in children under five years of age? A) Neisseria Meningitides B) Group B streptococci C) Streptococcus Pneumoniae D) Haemophilus influenzae type B |
D) Haemophilus influenzae type B |
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How is "giariasis" USUALLY transmitted to others? A) Person-to-person transfer of cysts from the feces of the infected individual B) Drinking unfiltered water fromstreams/lakes C) Drinking unboiled water from streams/lakes D) Drinking inadequately chlorinated water from a municipal water distribution system |
A) person-to-person transfer of cysts from the feces of the infected individual |
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Which of the following duties of state and local health agencies is intended to ensure that the public's health and welfare are protected? A)Community-intensive planning B) Statutory administrative action C)Regulatory responsibilities D) Plan implementation |
C) regulatory responsibilities |
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Which of the following is a measure of the amount of light scattered by particles? A) Formazin Turbidity Units (FTU) B) Nephelometric Turbidity Units (NTU) C) Hydrosynatalic Turbidity Units (HTU) D) Lorcetic Turbidity Units (LTU) |
B) Nephelometric Turbidity Units (NTU) |
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What is an epidemic? A)The constant presence of a disease within a community or region B) The presence of an infectious agent on a body surface C) The presence of infection in a host without clear, recognizable clinic symptoms D) The occurrence in a community or region of cases of an illness clearly in excess of expectancy |
D) The occurrence in a community or region of cases of an illness clearly in excess of expectancy |
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What portal of entry should a field sanitarian protect to avoid contracting Lyme disease? A)skin B) respiratory tract C) reproductive organs D) digestive tract |
A) skin |
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Swimmer's itch is a common name for which of the following diseases? A) Leptospirosis B)Subdural dermatitis C) Schistosomiasis D) Trichiniasis |
C) Schistosomiasis |
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Which of the following factors would LEAST contribute to the emergence of a new infectious disease? A) Human Behavior B) Heat disinfection C) Antibiotic use D) Disinfectant use |
B) heat disinfection |
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Listeriosis is COMMONLY associate with a) contaminated water B) Contaminated food C) Infected mice D) infected birds |
B) contaminated food |
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Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is caused by infection with A) Dracunculus medinensis B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Escherichia coli 015 7: H7 D) salmonella typhimurium |
C) Escherichia coli 015 7: H7 |
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The basic principles of disease control include all of the following EXCEPT A) Lag phase B) control of disease source C) Mode of transmission D) Susceptibility |
A) Lag phase |
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Which one of the following phrases MOST accurately describes the term endemic? A) Sporadic occurrence of an illness B) Illness that exceed expected levels C) all illnesses present at any one time D) Constant presence of an illness |
D) Constant presence of an illness |
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The interval between exposure to an infectious agent and the appearance of the first symptom is called the: A)transmission period B) Susceptible period C) Reactive period D) Incubation period |
D) Incubation period |
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An establishment known to have imminent health hazards is not closed by the inspecting regulatory authority. This example BEST fits the definition of a: A) malfeasance B) Misfeasance C) Nonfeasance D) Controlling factor |
C) Nonfeasance |
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Vehicleborne, vectorborne, or airborne are all examples of: A) indirect mode of transmission B) Direct mode of transmission C) Hosts D) Life cycle sequences |
A) indirect mode of transmission |
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An employer is held liable for the tors of its employees committed within the scope of their employment. This is referred to as: A) respondeat superior B) Parens patriae C) Substituted judgment D) Corporate privilege |
A) respondeat superior |
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Performance of an authorized act in a unauthorized manner is called: A) Nonfeasance B) Misfeasance C) Malfeasance D) Disfeasance |
B) Misfeasance |
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An action authorized by law to restrict or prevent the movement of goods for the protection of public health, safety, and welfare is called an order of: A) injunction B) withholding C) embargo D) Seizure |
C) embargo |
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What is the federal agency that regulates food additives? A) CDC B) Consumer Product Safety Commission C) Department of Agriculture D) FDA |
D) FDA |
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When a legal action is being prepared, one of the first steps a sanitarian should take is to: A)Obtain a warrant B) Obtain a court order C) Keep accurate records D) Check with other agencies |
C) Keep accurate records |
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How is the term "contamination" defined when used in connection with a communicable disease? A) Infection of an individual or animal with pathogenic organisms. B) Presence of pathogenic agents on a surface, article, or substance C) Transfer of a vector, regardless of time or the nature of the host D) Contact between two or more sources of infection |
B) Presence of pathogenic agents on a surface, article, or substance |
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What is the MOST common contributing factor to foodborne illness? A)insect and rodent infestations B) dirty equiptment C) incorrect labeling of containers D) improper holding temperatures |
D) improper holding temperatures |
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Why are some foods classified as time/temperature control for safety? A) They have a pH below 4.2 B) They have a water activity below .85 C) They support rapid growth of pathogenic microorganisms D) They require rapid and thorough cooking |
C) They support rapid growth of pathogenic microorganisms |
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Which food does not require refrigeration at 41 F (5 C) A) open container of garlic in oil B) tofu C) sliced/ cut cantaloupe D) UHT creamers |
D) UHT creamers |
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What is the best means of inhibiting the growth of microorganisms in fresh meat? A) topical use of approved hypochlorite solutions B) exposure to ultraviolet light for 30 minutes C) chemical preservatives D) adequate refrigeration and cleanliness |
D) adequate refrigeration and cleanliness |
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What is the MAXIMUM accumulated time that time/temperature control for safety food can safely be exposed to the temperature danger zone? A) 2 hours B) 4 hours C) 6 hours D) 8 hours |
C) 6 hours |
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If time only is used as a public health control, the MSCIMUM period of time recommended by the FDA for time/ temperature control for safety food to be held is: A) 2 hours B) 4 hours if the warmest part of the food item does not exceed 120 F C) 6 hours if the warmest part of the food does not exceed 70F D) This public health control is never permitted |
C) 6 hours if the warmest part of the food does not exceed 70F |
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What is the minimum period of time that FDA recommends employees wash their hands and arms up to the elbow? A) 10 seconds B) 20 seconds C) 30 seconds D) 40 seconds |
B) 20 seconds |
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Unpasteurized eggs NOT intended for immediate service should be cooked to: A) 165 F for 15 seconds B) 155 F for 15 seconds C) 145 F for 15 seconds D) 140 F for one minute |
B) 155 F for 15 seconds |
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What is the usual mode of infection from Salmonella? A) ingestion of contaminated food B) ingestion of contaminated water C) contact with an active case D) contact with fomites |
A) ingestion of contaminated food |
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What is the source of scombroid poisoning? A) histamines in the muscle of fish B) sprouted green potatoes C) undercooked pork D) rice contaminated with roden feces |
A) histamines in the muscle of fish |
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All of the following are signs of spoiled fish EXCEPT: A) strong odor B) elastic flesh C) gray gills D) sunken eyes |
B) elastic flesh |
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Which of the following shellfish are MOST likely to cause illness? A) oysters B) crabs C) shrimp D) scallops |
A) oysters |
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The laboratory reports a positive coliform test that exceeds permissible limits of a bottle of pasteurized milk. What does this indicate? A) improper bactericidal treatment of the equipment B) Improper virucidal treatment of the equipment C) A contaminated water supply D) A contaminated food supply |
A) improper bactericidal treatment of the equipment |
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What is the MOST effective practice for preventing trichoinosis in people? A) Be certain that ground meat is freshly ground at the time of purchase B) Be sure that fresh pork is thoroughly cooked C) Avoid the consumption of ground meat products D) Cook steak until well done |
B) Be sure that fresh pork is thoroughly cooked |
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An HACCP plan is NOT required when: A) smoking foods as a method of preservation B) cooling and reheating TCS foods in bulk C) performing ROP D) Using food additievs or addint other components to preserve food or render it non-TCS |
B) cooling and reheating TCS foods in bulk |
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What should NOT be done with food samples collected during a foodborne illness investigation? A) refrigerate B) freeze C) seal D) label |
B) freeze |
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What is the PRIMARY requirement in designing a food service facility? A) durability B) cleanability C) appearance D) convenience |
B) cleanability |
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What is the MOST important rule of food storage? A) follow the "first in, first out" rule B) store products in order of "pull by" date C) repackage dry foods into metal containers D) store canned goods under refrigeration |
A) follow the "first in, first out" rule |
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Insectidcides/ pesticides may be stored in all ways EXCEPT: A) in a metal locked cabinet B) on the lowest shelf in the storage room C) above the dishwashing sinks D) in a basement separate from food and other chemicals |
C) above the dishwashing sinks |
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What type of well is considered LEAST likely to become contaminated? A) drilled B) bored C) driven D) dug |
A) drilled |
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Diatomaceous earth filters: A) should be supplemented by chlorination system B) should be integrated into a rapid sand filtration system. C) Can be used for a public water treatment system D) Can be used in a public sewer treatment system |
A) should be supplemented by chlorination system |
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Microbial pollution travels only a short distance through: A) sandstone B) smooth clay C)Fissured rock D) Limestone |
B) smooth clay |
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What type of filter is recommended for use in small communities and rural places? A) Diatomaceous earth B) granular C) cartridge D) Slow sand |
D) Slow sand |
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All of the following are used to disinfect water EXCEPT: A) chlorine B) bromine C) fluorine D) iodine |
C) fluorine |
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Backsiphonage may be prevented by all of the following methods EXCEPT: A) Hydrostatic loops B) Vacuum breakers C) Sir gap separation D) Backpressure units |
A) Hydrostatic loops |
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Which of the following is the LEAST effective method for cadmium removal from drinking water? A) Activated carbon B) Iron coagulation C) Lime softeining D) Ion Exhange |
A) activated carbon |
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Before a drinking water sample is taken, the sampling tap should be clean, free of leaks, and flushed for how long? A) 1-1.5 mintues B) 2-3 minutes C) 4-5 minutes D) 6-7 minutes |
B) 2-3 minutes |
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What contaminant has been associated with learning and cognitive disorders in children who drink contaminated water? A) Manganese B) Copper C) Lead D) Parathion |
C) Lead |
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The wastewater from the flushing of a water closet, latrine, or privy is referred to as A) gray water B) black water C) green water D) brown water |
B) black water |
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If a septic tank is pumped during a wet period, the: A) water may flow into the tank B) field may flood the tank C) tank may float out of the ground D) tank may be crushed by wet earth |
C) tank may float out of the ground |
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Nutrients associated with eutrophication include all of the following EXCEPT: A) organic carbon B) Potassium C) Nitrogen D) Phosphates |
B) Potassium |
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Which of the following is LEAST important when reducing sewage to gases? A) Anaerobic bacteria B) Earthworms C) Protozoa D) Aerobic bacteria |
B) Earthworms |
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A septic tank maintenance worker has checked an empty tank for the presence of hydrogen sulfide (H2S) The test was negative, and there are no odors indicating the presence of other hazardous gases. Is the tank safe to enter without a respirator and supplied air? A) yes, because hydrogen sulfide and odors were not detected B) No, because oxygen content and methane were not released C) yes, because the absence of odors and H2S indicates acceptable confined space entry conditions D) No, because a lack of H2S is a sign of a hazardous confined space atmosphere |
B) No, because oxygen content and methane were not released |
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All of the following are true about ozone as a disinfectant EXCEPT which one? A) Nontoxic to aquatic organisms B)Source of dissolved oxygen C) Excellent viricide D) Long-lasting residual |
D) Long-lasting residual |
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Aerobic bacteria require all of the following nutrients EXCEPT: A) Carbon B) Magnesium C) Phosphorus D) Nitrogen |
B) Magnesium |
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What does a mottled brown and red soil indicate? A) Unsuitability for absorption due to chemical composition B) Suitability for absorption due to granular structure C) Inadequate aeration methods D) Adequate agglomeration |
C) Inadequate aeration methods |
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Alternative small wastewater treatment systems are considered UNLESS: A) Impervious formations are found at a depth of 10 ft B) Space is limited and surface water supplies are inadequate C) Highly porous formations exist D) High groundwater exists |
A) Impervious formations are found at a depth of 10 ft |
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Lime coagulation, mixed media filtration, and activated carbon filtration will greatly reduce: A) Heavy metals B) Biological contaminants C) EPA priority pollutants D) EPA listed hazardous exists |
C) EPA priority pollutants |
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It is known that some common pathogenic organisms found in wastewater will survive more than _______ of harsh temperature extremes: A) 2 months B) 5 months C) 2 years D) 5 years |
C) 2 years |
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A storm sewer is used to : A) Remove rain other standing surface water B)Remove sewage and storm water C) Remove household water waste and gutter drain water D) Remove non-toxic, non-hazardous wastewater |
A) Remove rain other standing surface water |
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Stream pollution is sometimes apparent by: A) Increased levels of available oxygen in the water B) A zone of degradation C) Large numbers of crayfish and cristovomer species D) large numbers of small fish |
B) A zone of degradation |
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A young lake is considered to be: A) Eutrophic B) Mesotrophic C) Oligiotrophic D) Ohyotrophic |
C) Oligiotrophic |
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If the septic tank will also have a garbage disposal unit feeding into it, the: A) Size of the tank should be increased 50 percent B) Tank should have an agitator C) Tank should not be equipped with a gas baffle D) Tank should not be constructed with precast concrete |
A) Size of the tank should be increased 50 percent |
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Sludge accumulation in a tank serving a normal home has been estimated at: A) 40-50 liters per person per year B) 69-80 gallons per person per year C) 18-21 gallons per person per year D) 2.2 galons per person per year |
C) 18-21 gallons per person per year |
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How often should a septic tank for a private home be serviced? A) every year B) every 5-10 years C) Every 3-5 years D) every 10 years |
C) Every 3-5 years |
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Human disease from aerosols of wastewater: A) Are related primarily to watewater treatment by the activated sludge, trickling filter, and spray irrigation processes B) Has been demonstrated from pathogens recovered in aerosols from the spray irrigation of treated wastewater C)May be caused by very small numbers of organisms D) Is a hazard even to those who have had sub clinical infections, and thus should have been immunized |
A) Are related primarily to watewater treatment by the activated sludge, trickling filter, and spray irrigation processes |
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Plants absorb certain constituents of wastewater; using wastewater for irrigation of consumable plant products may present a health hazard to humans if the water contains: A) Nitrates B) Iron C) Cadmium D) Chlorides |
C) Cadmium |
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After the serciving (pumping) of a septic tank, it is essential that the tank and lid be: A) Cleaned with bleash or chlorine product B) scrubbed to remove hardened sludge C) Recolonized with commercial biological product containing yeast D) Replaced and secured for safety reasons |
D) Replaced and secured for safety reasons |
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According to the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) how must hazardous household waste be disposed? A) Household hazardous waste is exempt from RCRA requirements B) It must be disposed as a hazardous waste by a professional hazardous waste C) It must be incinerated D) It may be disposed in a storm drain or sanitary sewer |
A) Household hazardous waste is exempt from RCRA requirements |
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The grinding of garbage is an acceptable method of: A) Garbage disposal B) Volume reduction C) Wet oxidation D) Energy recovery |
A) Garbage disposal |
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A solid waste manager is trying to reduce lead in the solid waste stream. What should be targeted in the municipal waste stream as a major contributor of lead to the environment? A)Fluorescent light tubes B) Lead acid batteries C) Household batteries D) Rechargeable batteries |
B) Lead acid batteries |
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All of the following are considered advantages of using the "shredded solid waste' landfill method EXCEPT which one? A) It does not cause odors B) It may require daily earth cover C) It will readily absorb precipitation D) It reduces insect breeding |
C) It will readily absorb precipitation |
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The "BEST sanitary landfill method for a location with rolling terrain is the: A) low-area method B) Valley or ravine area method C) trench method D) area or ramp method |
D) area or ramp method |
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Why is it important for a business that generates hazardous waste to deal only with licensed disposal companies that have a good compliance history? A) Large companies with good compliance histories generally have deep pockets B) Once the hazardous waste disposal company picks up the waste, it becomes the responsible party C) the business is held accountable for where and how the hazardous waste generated is disposed of D) It is important only if the business generates 220 pounds or more per month of hazardous waste |
C) the business is held accountable for where and how the hazardous waste generated is disposed of |
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Which of the following is NOT a type of hazardous waste incinerator? A) Pressurized B)Fluidized C) Fixed hearth D) Rotary kiln |
A) Pressurized |
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Which federal law regulates underground storage tanks for hazardous wastes? A) Clean Water Act B) Federal Water Pollution Control Act C) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act D) Solid Waste Disposal Act |
C) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act |
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A measure of the probability and severity of adverse effects under specific conditions BEST describes: A) Risk B) Hazard C) Exposure D) Toxicity |
A) Risk |
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Which of the following sampling devices is BEST for collecting undisturbed soil samples? A) Auger B) Shelby tube C) Split spoon D) Veihmeyer rod |
C) Split spoon |
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What is the term for statistical estimate of an oral dose of a chemical that produces a lethal effect on half of an animal population? A) LC50 B) LD50 C) EC50 D) ED50 |
B) LD50 |
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The dose-response relationship of a toxic substance depends on all of the following EXCEPT the : A) Amount and concentration of the substance B) pH of the substance C) Duration of exposure to the substance D) Toxicity of the substance |
B) pH of the substance |
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Which respiratory device provides the BEST protection? A) Positive pressure respirator with a full face piece B) Negative pressure respirator with a full face piece C) full-face canister respirator D) Half-face respirator |
A) Positive pressure respirator with a full face piece |
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The Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know-Act (SARA Title III) requires the disclosure of all of the following EXCEPT type and quantities of: A) chemicals produced on site B) Chemicals accidentally discharged into the atmosphere C) Chemicals routinely discharged into the atmosphere D) All chemicals routinely discharged into the atmosphere |
D) All chemicals routinely discharged into the atmosphere |
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For first responders at an incident, which one of the following is listed correctly according to order of importance? A) Responder safety, environmental safety, public B) Public safety, property protection, responder safety, environmental safety C) Responder safety, public safety, environmental safety, property protection D) Property protection, public safety, responder safety, environmental safety |
C) Responder safety, public safety, environmental safety, property protection |
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Rocky Mountain spotted fever is transmitted by: A) Deerflies B) Dog ticks C) deermites D) chiggers |
B) Dog ticks |
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What are the peak seasons for rats to breed in temperate zones? A) Spring and fall B) summer and winter C) Winter and spring D) fall and summer |
A) Spring and fall |
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Which one of the following pesticides can be legally used in the United States by the public? A) Diazinon B) Silvex C) 2.4.5. T D) None of the above |
A) Diazinon |
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Poison Ivy, poison oak, and poison sumac contain oleoresin that is found in all parts of the plant EXCEPT the: A) Leaves B) flowers C) bark D) wood |
D) wood |
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Psittacosis is MOST commonly spread by: A) bats B) shellfish C) rodents D) pigeons |
D) pigeons |
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Hay fever is correctly referred to as: A) Leguminosis B) Pollenosis C) Asthma D) Sinusitis |
B) Pollenosis |
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Which of the following is MOST effective for controlling ragweed? A) Fenthion B) Dieldren C) 2,4 - D D) Petroleum oil |
C) 2,4 - D |
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The term "endemic" means: A) sporadic occurrence of an illness B) constant presence of an illness C) All illnesses present at any one time D) An unusually large number of persons with the same illness |
B) constant presence of an illness |
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The interval between exposure to an infectious agent and the appearance of the first symptom is called the A) lag time B) susceptible period C) incubation period D) primary period |
C) incubation period |
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Schistosomiasis is a/an: A) water contact disease B) foodborne disease C) milkborne disease D) airborne disease |
A) water contact disease |
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A disease transmitted by birds and bird droppings is: A) dengue fever B) psittacosis C) Tularemia D) Hurine Typhus |
B) psittacosis |
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An infected organism that does not exhibit symptoms during the spread of an illness is called a: A) reservoir B) Parasite C) host D) Carrier |
D) Carrier |
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The killing of an infectious agent outside the body by chenical or physical means is termed: A) detoxification B) deodorization C) Destabilization D) Disinfection |
D) Disinfection |
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Rocky Mountain spotted fever is spread by: A) flies B) spiders C) cockroaches D) ticks |
D) ticks |
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Many diseases and infestations have common names that can confuse the professional when referred to by lay individuals and often children. The term cooties refers to a/an: A) flea infestation B) Infestation of bedbugs C) lice infestation D) Infestation of flies |
C) lice infestation |
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The term rad means: A) required administered dose B) Radiation admitted dose C) Roentgen absorbed dose D) Radiation absorbed dose |
D) Radiation absorbed dose |
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Which of the following have little penetrating power and are normally a hazard to health only in the form on internal radiation received through ingestion, inhalation, or open wounds? A) x-rays B) alpha particles C) beta particles D) Gamma rays |
B) alpha particles |
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Beta radiation is MOST commonly blocked by which one of the following materials? A) lead C) concrete C) Magnesium alloy D) Glass or plastic |
D) Glass or plastic |
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Microwaves are reflected by: A) metals B) plastic C) glass D) polymers |
A) metals |
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The energy of ionizing radiation is measured in: A) Ergs of energy per gram B) One electrostatic unit C) Electron volts (eV) D) one-erson sievert (Sv) |
C) Electron volts (eV) |
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The term "frequency" cannot be described as: a) WAVES b) Particles C) Vibrations D) Oscillations |
A) waves |
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The shorter the wave length, the: A)Higher the frequency and lower the energy B) Lower the frequency and energy C) lower the frequency and higher the energy D) higher the frequency and energy |
D) higher the frequency and energy |
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The roentgen is a measure of the ionization in air produced by exposure to: A) x-rays and gamma rays B) alpha particles C) beta particles D) all of the above |
A) x-rays and gamma rays |
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The absorption of how many ergs (energy-per-gram) of air represents one roentgen? A) About 150 B) about 100 C) About 86 D) About 50 |
C) About 86 |
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The term "rem" is short for: A) Roentgen energy measure B) Roentgen equivalent measure C) Radiation energy measure D) none of the above |
D) none of the above |
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Which term is used to show the exposure of large populations to low-level radiation? A) person-rem B) Gamma-rem C) Radiation-rem D) Quantum-rem |
A) person-rem |
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The rate at which atoms of radioactive sources (radionuclides) disintegrate are measured in: A) Rems B) Rods C) curies D) roentgens |
C) curies |
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Isotopes of the same element have: A) The same mass number but different atomic numbers B) The same atomic number but different mass numbers C) Different atomic and mass numbers D) The same atomic and mass numbers |
B) The same atomic number but different mass numbers |
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Which of the following have little penetrating power and are normally a hazard to health only in the form of internal radiation received through ingestion, inhalation, or open wounds? A) x-rays B) alpha particles C) Beta particles D) Gamma ray |
B) alpha particles |
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What is the danger and/or hazard posed by an etiological agent? A) corrosive reaction B) Asphyxiation C) Human disease D) Allergic reaction |
C) Human disease |
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No person should be permitted to work in a trench or pit in sandy clay soil that has unsupported sides or banks higher than: A) 2 feet B) 3 feet C) 4 feet D) 5 feet |
D) 5 feet |
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An employer moves employees who have reached the upper permissible level of exposure to a hazardous environment, to prevent further exposure. What type of hazard control is this? A) professional control B) personal control C) Administrative control D) Engineering control |
C) Administrative control |
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A negative pressure fit test fopr a protective mask: A) Is done by placing both palms against the intake filters B) Is done by placing both hands over the exhalation points C) should be conducted at a minimum of once a week D) Should be repeated until an air leak is detected |
A) Is done by placing both palms against the intake filters |
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Quantitative risk assessments USUALLY measure human exposure through all of the following EXCEPT: A) computer models B) Blood or urine analyses C) personal Surveys D) toxicological analyses |
A) computer models |
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The most likely photochemical smog is due to: A) large industries B) chemical processing plants C) Hazardous waste indinerators D) Heavy motor vehicle traffic |
D) Heavy motor vehicle traffic |
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The industries LEAST likely to be a source of sulfur dioxide pollution are: A) metal smelters B) Coal and oil burning power plants C) refineries D) hazardous waste incinerators |
D) hazardous waste incinerators |
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Scrubbers are wet collectors generally used to remove particles that form as a : A) dust, aerosol, or fog B) mist, solid, or vapor C) fog mist or dust D) fume, dust, or mist |
C) fog mist or dust |
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Particle size selective inlets are used to separate particulates above and below 2 to 3 microns in size on: A) High-volume samplers B) Outfall vacuums C) Baghouse air filters D) atmospheric respirator sieves |
A) High-volume samplers |
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The most common type of noise measurement device used for initial inspections is the: A) octave-brand analyzer B) noise dosimeter C) sound level meter D) sound analyzer |
C) sound level meter |
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When two pollutants are combined, the effects are greater than the sum of the individual effects. This is called: A) commensalisms B) synergism C) magnification D) multiplication |
B) synergism |
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Air is vital to existence. In fact in a day's time humans breathe an average of: A) 3 to 4 pounds of air B) 35 pounds of air C) 37 pounds of air D) 1,600 ft3 of air |
B) 35 pounds of air |
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Which component of clean, dry air has the smallest volume? A) carbon monoxide B) nitrogen dioxide C) ammonia D) Sulfur dioxide |
C) ammonia |
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Ozone reduces the useful life of all of the following except: A) rubber B) textiles C) Dyes D) Nylon |
D) Nylon |
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Major effects on humans are caused by Los Angels and London type smog, along with what two pollutants? A) Sulfur dioxide and hydrogen fluoride B) sulfur dioxide and carbon monoxide C) Hydrogen sulfide and peroxayl nitrates D) ozone and nitrogen dioxide |
A) Sulfur dioxide and hydrogen fluoride |
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Photochemical smog has been reported in congested areas with: A) large industries B) chemical processing plants C) industries processing hazardous wastes D) high motor vehicle traffic |
D) high motor vehicle traffic |
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What type of air pollution causes bleaching of leaves in plants? A) PAN B) Sulfur dioxide C) industries processing hazardous wastes D)high motor vehicle traffic |
B) Sulfur dioxide |
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Which of the following are not major sources of sulfur dioxide pollution? A) Metal smelters B) Coal and oil burning power plants C) refineries D) electrical substations |
D) electrical substations |
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Which of the following is not a malodorous gas? A) sulfur dioxide B) Hydrogen sulfide C) carbon monoxide D) Phenol |
C) carbon monoxide |
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What size particle can reach the lowest part of the lung? A) 15 microns B) 50 microns C) 3 microns D) any size particle |
C) 3 microns |
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Cross-connection controls include air gaps, backflow preventers, vacuum breakers, and: A) gate valves B) Indirect waste piping C) air vents D) bypass valves |
B) Indirect waste piping |
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The drain line of an ice machine should connect to the sewer system through a/an: A) hydrostatic valve B) indirect connection below the floor C) open receptacle with an air gap D) hydroduric valve |
C) open receptacle with an air gap |
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Vent gasses from a coal-burning furnace combined with high moisture inside a chimney will form: A) A glass-like glaze B) hydrochloric acid C) sodium chloride D) sulfuric acid |
D) sulfuric acid |
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What is the PRIMARY cause of death resulting from automobile exhaust accumulation in garages? A) methane B) ethylene dioxide C) Carbon monoxide D) Tetraethyl lead |
C) Carbon monoxide |
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The end of a waste pipe should terminate below the rim of a sink directly connected to the drainage system by at LEAST: A) 2 inches B) 4 inches C) 5 inches D) 6 inches |
A) 2 inches |
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The most common type of injury in a home is A) a fall B) asphyiation C) tripping D) an animal bite |
A) a fall |
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A "S" trap is not considered legal in most state plumbing codes due to which of the following factors? A) they clog easily B) they are not vented C) They are unsightly D) they do not drain |
B) they are not vented |
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Which of the following products is not a traditional formaldehyde air pollution source? A) cosmetics B) burning vegetation C) particle board D) computer emissions |
B) burning vegetation |
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Long term effects of lead poisoning include: A) learning disabilities B)severe acne D) adults diabetes |
A) learning disabilities |
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A stud is a unit of building constitution that is intended as a: A) vertical support B) horizontal support C) roof only support D) support for sheet rock |
A) vertical support |
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A joist is used: A) to hold up a floor B) as a horizonal support C) as a roof only support D) as a support for sheet rock |
B) as a horizonal support |
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A footing drain is required to: A) control moisture B) eliminate radon C) keep a foundation from slipping D) Keep the feet dry while pouring concrete |
C) keep a foundation from slipping |
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The chimney of the house should be a minimum of ___ above the highest structure of the home. A) five feet B) three feet C) 18 inches D) level with the eve of the house |
B) three feet |
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What is the horizontal part of the stairs you step on called? A) riser B) thread C) step D) footer |
B) thread |
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What is the vertical part of the stairs you step on called? A) riser B) tread C) step D) footer |
A) riser |
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When footers fail this often results in: A) leaky roofs B) warped studs C) twisted joist D) cracked and/or displaced foundations |
D) cracked and/or displaced foundations |
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A plastic ground cover sealed to the foundation should be placed on the ground in the crawl space of the home to: A) control moisture in the crawlspace B) keep natural gas out of the crawlspace C) keep underground springs from washing away footers D) Keep insects from eating the wood structure |
A) control moisture in the crawlspace |
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The footing drain is intended to drain water away from the base of the home to: A) prevent damage to the footer and foundation B) Keep the concrete from dissolving C) control termites D) control mold on the footer |
A) prevent damage to the footer and foundation |
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The termite shield is placed between the: A) foundation and the sill B) footer and the foundation C) joist and the header D) stud and the header |
A) foundation and the sill |
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The maximum size of a stair riser should be: A) 8.25 b) 12 in c) 6 in D) 10.25 in |
A) 8.25 in |
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What is the ASHRAE-recommended minimal thermal standard for dwellings at 40% humidity and an air circulation rate of 45 fpm? A) 570 degrees F B) 600 degrees F C) 680 degrees F D) 760 degrees F |
D) 760 degrees F |
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The distance between the end of the water supply pipe and the sink should be how many times the diameter of the supply pipe? A) 1-.5 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 |
B) 2 |
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Excessive condensation, corrosion, and mildew occur when the relative humidity exceeds A) 20% B) 40% C) 60 % D) 80% |
C) 60 % |
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Nosocomial infections are a recurring problem in: A) food establishments B) health care facilities C) swimming pools D) health spas |
B) health care facilities |
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MINIMUM wash water temperature in a hospital laundry is: A) 146 to 150 F B) 160 to 167 F C) 170 to 178 F D) 185 to 196 F |
B) 160 to 167 F |
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A biohazard is: A) Any material that negatively impacts a biological organism B) A material of biological composition, especially if infective, that constitutes a threat to people or their environment C) A chemical that constitutes a threat to people or their environment D) any virus that causes fatal disease |
B) A material of biological composition, especially if infective, that constitutes a threat to people or their environment |
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Blood borne pathogens are regulated by: A) OSHA B) FDA C) CPSC D) HHS |
A) OSHA |
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Muerto Canyon Virus (MCV) is a Hantavirus mainly carried by: A) Deer B) FDA C) CPSC D) HHS |
C) CPSC |
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The Muerto Canyon Virus causes a disease that destroys what primary organ in humans? A) lungs B) kidneys C) liver D) Gophers |
A) lungs |
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The incidence of tuberculosis in English laboratory workers working with M. tuberculosis was reported to be how many time higher than the general population? A) 2 times B) 3 times C) 5 times D) 10 times |
C) 5 times |
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The term "universal precautions" refers to: A) Specific respiratory protection used in hospitals B) An infection control program regulating the handling of blood and certain body fluids C) personal and environmental protection procedures used when handling hazardous chemical wastes D) precautions to be used when collecting samples for potential litigation |
B) An infection control program regulating the handling of blood and certain body fluids |
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The biosafety containment level suitable for work involving agents of moderate potential hazard to personnel and the environment is: A) Biosafety level 1 B) biosafety level 2 C) biosafety level 3 D) biosafety level 4 |
B) biosafety level 2 |
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Biological safety equipment includes: A) Biosafety cabinets B) needles and syringes C) disinfecting chemicals D) technical manuals |
D) technical manuals |
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The three biosafety containment levels consist of a combination of: A) Laboratory practices, safety equipment, and facilities B) laboratory techniques, research protocols, and safety equipment C) research protocols, safety training, and laboratory facilities D) Laboratory practices, safety training, and research protocols |
A) Laboratory practices, safety equipment, and facilities |
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The protection of personnel and the immediate laboratory environment from exposure to infectious agents by good microbiological technique and safety equipment is called: A) primary containment B) secondary containment C) tertiary containment D) pentiary containment |
A) primary containment |
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The release of genetically engineered materials in to the environment is regulated by: A) USDA and EPA B) NIH and CDC C) EPA and AEC D) FDA and PHS |
A) USDA and EPA |
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Studies indicate that swimmers have a higher overall illness rate over non-swimmers: A) regardless of bathing water quality B) due to poor regulatory practice C) if they are over 50 years of age D) if they swim in pools |
A) regardless of bathing water quality |
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The treatment system of a pool is typically recommended to be installed in which of the following flow arrangements? A) skimmer or gutter line, main drain line, adjustment valves, disinfectant feeder, hair strainer, pump, filter, pH feeder pump, adjustable inlets B) skimmer or gutter line, main drain line, adjustment valves, hair strainer, pump, filter, pH feeder pump, adjustable inlets C) Skimmer or gutterline, main drain line, adjustment valves, pH feeder pump, hair strainer, pump filter, disinfectant feeder, adjustable inlets D) skimmer or gutter line, main drain line, adjustment valves, hair strainer, filter aid pump, filters, disinfectant feeder, pH feeder, adjustable inlets |
D) skimmer or gutter line, main drain line, adjustment valves, hair strainer, filter aid pump, filters, disinfectant feeder, pH feeder, adjustable inlets |
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Swimming pool water clarity is measured in terms of NTU or Nephelometer Turbidity Units. It is recommended that a level of .5 NTU A) shall be maintained B) shall not be exceeded CA) is the minimum level D) is the maximum level |
B) shall not be exceeded |
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A swimming pool filtration system should filter the entire volume of water at a MINIMUM of every: A) 2 hours B) 6 hours C) 10 hours D) 13 hours |
B) 6 hours |
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The rate of filtration for a vacuum diatomite filter should be: A) 1 to 2 gpm/ ft2 B) 3 to 4 gpm) ft2 C) 5 to 6 gpm/ ft2 D) 7 to 8 gpm/ ft 2 |
A) 1 to 2 gpm/ ft2 |
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Chemicals that have been used for pool disinfection include chlorine, chloro-iso-cyanurates, bromine, and: A) Ammonia B) soda ash C) sodium thiosulfate D) Iodine |
D) Iodine |
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Due to the large quantity of floating organisms and materials, the gutters or skimmers should receive what MINIMUM percent of the total pool water? A) 95% B) 45% C) 60% D) 30% |
C) 60% |
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The recommended and MOST effective method of maintaining pool water quality is: A) super-chlorination B) intermittent circulation, chlorination, and filtration C) continuous recirculation, chlorination, and filtration D) chlorination/ dechlorination |
C) continuous recirculation, chlorination, and filtration |
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One advantage of using cyanuric acid additive is that it: A) allows easier measurement of chlorine B) prevents pH deterioration C) stabilizes residual chlorine D) requires less soda ash as an additive to the pool |
C) stabilizes residual chlorine |
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The acidity-alkalinity balance affects eye irritation, water coagulation, and the: A) effectiveness of chlorine B) ambient water temperature C) effectiveness of the skimmers D) evaporation rate |
A) effectiveness of chlorine |
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The addition of sodium bicarbonate will: A) raise the ambient water temperature B) lower the ambient water temperature C) raise the pH D) lower the pH |
C) raise the pH |
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To raise the pH, add: A) chlorine B) muriatic acid C) soda ash D) sulfuric acid |
C) soda ash |
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To mix acid and water, always: A) add water to acid B) add acid to water C) add soda ash to water D) stir while pouring water into the acid |
B) add acid to water |
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When chlorine is added to water: A) one acid is formed B) two primary acids are formed C) HC1 is considered the primary product D) ozone is produced in large quantities |
A) one acid is formed |
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The best control of swimmer's itch at a bathing beach is to: A) add copper sulfate B) increase the chlorine residual C) lower the chlorine residual D) lower water level and allow plants to dry out |
A) add copper sulfate |
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The prefered method for controlling sewage from watercraft is the use of: A) onboard holding tanks B) shipboard discharge C) incinerator toilet D) Compost toilet |
A) onboard holding tanks |
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Gas chlorine provides: A) 50% available chlorine B) 75% available chlorine C) 92% available chlorine D) 100% available chlorine |
D) 100% available chlorine |
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The microbe primarily responsible for skin infections in whirlpools is: A) escherichia coli B) pseudomonas aeruginosa C) shigella sonnet D) salmonella Typhimurium |
B) pseudomonas aeruginosa |
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Water in childrens' wading pools should be completely recirculated every (minimum standard): A) 60 minutes B) 90 minutes C) 120 minutes D) 180 minutes |
A) 60 minutes |
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The ideal pH range for swimming pools is: A ) 6.0 to 8.5 B) 6.5 yo 8.5 C) 7.2 to 7.6 D) 5 to 7 |
C) 7.2 to 7.6 |
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The generally prohibited swimming facility from a public health perspective is a a) home outdoor pool B) fill and draw pool C) Natural flow-through pool D) Recirculating pool |
B) fill and draw pool |
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It is essential that all public pools: A) require footbaths B) Require pre-showering of patrons C) run the recirculation and disinfection equipment 24 hours per day D) Shovel in at least 4 pounds of calcium hypochlorite per 10,000 gallons per 4 hour period |
C) run the recirculation and disinfection equipment 24 hours per day |
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The formula: volume of pool = turnover rate, pump flow rate (GPM) X 60 min will tell the: A) number of hours it takes for the entire contents of the pool to pass through the filters B) efficiency rate of the pumps C) gallons per minute flow rate D)Chlorine demand per day |
A) number of hours it takes for the entire contents of the pool to pass through the filters |
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The main drain should have a grate that is how much larger than the area of the discharge pipe to prevent dangerous suction effects? (absolute minimum) A) 4 times B) 5 times C) six times D) seven times |
??? |
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The speed and effectiveness whith which emergency action can be taken is dependent PRIMARILY on the A) size of the emergency B) probably number of victims C) prior planning D) level of the agency responding |
C) prior planning |
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Evacuation and survival of individuals in an emergency or natural disaster is most often dependent on the extent to which: A) Individuals can help themselves B) how soon relief can be mustered C) how soon a favorable environment can be restored D) quality prior planning has taken place |
A) Individuals can help themselves |
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The government organization that usually deals with major disasters is the: A) American Legion B) FEMA C) Red CRoss D) disaster response agency |
B) FEMA |
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One of the FIRST actions an individual should take upon hearing an order for the evacuation of homes and businesses is turn off the: A) main electric power switch B) outside gas valve C) property water supply valve D) Public utility services to the building |
D) Public utility services to the building |
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When temporary shelter is necessary in an emergency, the FIRST consideration in shelter selection should be: A) protection of the survivors from health and safety risks B) Availability of heat, light, and space C) The emotional state of the survivors D) color of chlorination tablets |
A) protection of the survivors from health and safety risks |
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The minimum amount of water per day that should be provided for natural disaster victims is: A) 1-2 gallons per person B) 3-5 gallons per person C) 6-9 gallons per person D) 10 gallons or more per person |
B) 3-5 gallons per person |
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After flooding and other natural disasters, vaccination is needed for: A) typhoid B) measles C) AIDS D) vaccinations not required |
D) vaccinations not required |
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The quantity of liquid bleach (household) used to treat 1,000 gallons of bacterially contaminated water for drinking is: A) 2 quarts B) 2 pints C) 1 pint D) .5 pint |
C) 1 pint |
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A satisfactory method for disinfecting water that is not chemically or grossly polluted with bacteria is: A) chlorination B) Fluorination C) Oxygenation D) COs treatment |
A) chlorination |
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In emergency situations, when the water is turbid or colored but not chemically contaminated, the chlorine dosage should be: A) tripled B) discontinued C) decreased D) doubled |
D) doubled |
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Approved emergency response plans at nuclear electric power plant sites must be tested AT LEAST every: A) 2 years C) 3 years C) 4 years D) 5 years |
A) 2 years |
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Key components of the HAZWOPER program EXCLUDE: A) safety and health programs B) Personal protection C) training D) sanitary requirements |
D) sanitary requirements |
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HAZWOPER requirements apply to: A) voluntary cleanup at uncontrolled hazardous waste sites B) Routine sanitary sewer operations C) small quantity generators D) Water treatment plant operators |
A) voluntary cleanup at uncontrolled hazardous waste sites |
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The difference between a disaster and terrorism is best described as: A) intent B) criminal activity C) nature f disaster D) number impacted |
A) intent |
