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417 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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8 signs of newborn GBS infection?
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1) lethargy
2) breathing problems (grunting, tachypnea, nasal flaring, apnea) 3) poor feeding 4) irritability, anxious or stressed appearance 5) cyanosis 6) pallor with cold skin 7) heart issues: tachycardia, bradycardia 8) unstable body temperature (low or high) http://www.nlm.nih.gov/medlineplus/ency/article/001366.htm |
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Which trisomy is called Edwards syndrome?
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trisomy 18 http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Edwards_syndrome
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Which trisomy is Down syndrome?
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trisomy 21 wikipedia
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Which trisomy is Patau syndrome?
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trisomy 13 wikipedia
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Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome is associated with a problem with chromosome __
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11 wikipedia
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Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome can be identified by a crease in the ....
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frontal bone of the skull, indicating early closure of the skull http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmedhealth/PMH0002168/
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Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome is a congenital disorder that causes large ___ and large ___
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body size and organs http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmedhealth/PMH0002168/
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What two types of proteins are in breastmilk?
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whey and casein
APA website |
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Approximately 60-80% of all protein in breastmilk is __ protein.
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whey
APA website |
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The proteins in breastmilk have great ____ properties.
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infection-protection
APA website |
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What does the lactoferrin protein in breastmilk do?
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inhibits the growth of iron-dependent bacteria in the gastrointestinal tract, such as coliforms and yeast
APA website |
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Eating ___ can help increase the amounts of secretory IgA proteins in your breastmilk, which can help to ward off infection and allergy.
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fish
APA website |
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What does the secretory IgA protein in breastmilk do?
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helps protect baby from viruses, bacteria and allergy
APA website |
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What function does the enzyme lysozyme have in breastmilk?
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it protects the infant against E. Coli and Salmonella. It also promotes the growth of healthy intestinal flora and has anti-inflammatory functions
APA website |
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What does bifidus factor do in breastmilk?
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encourages growth of lactobacillus bacteria which protect the baby against harmful bacteria by creating an acidic environment
APA website |
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The amount and types of vitamins found in breastmilk is directly related to _____
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maternal nutrition
APA website |
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What is the primary carbohydrate found in breastmilk?
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lactose
APA website |
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_____ accounts for 40% of the total calories provided by breastmilk.
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Lactose
APA website |
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____ are living cells that help fight infection that are only found in breastmilk.
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Leukocytes
APA website |
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Is spinach or kale a better source of calcium?
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Kale. Spinach has a high concentration of oxalate, which inhibits calcium absorption. Kale, a low-oxalate vegetable is part of the same family as broccoli, turnip greens, collard greens and mustard greens - all good sources of calcium. www.ellenskitchen.com
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What is the best food source of magnesium?
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green, leafy vegetables
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What is another name for vitamin B1?
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Thiamine
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Which two vitamins are dandelion greens very high in?
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Vitamins A and K
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What does TRaiN PuP BeeF COB stand for?
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The B-vitamins:
B1: Thiamine B2: Riboflavin B3: Niacin B5: Pantothenic acid B6: Pyridoxine B7: Biotin B9: Folic acid B12: Cobalamines or cyanocobalamine |
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Which hormone is needed for proper calcium absorption?
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estrogen www.raw-milk-facts.com/calcium.html
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Which vitamin is needed for proper calcium absorption?
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vitamin D
www.raw-milk-facts.com/calcium.html |
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Which amino acid is necessary for proper calcium absorption?
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lysine
www.raw-milk-facts.com/calcium.html |
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Which is the most abundant element (periodic table of elements) in our bodies?
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calcium
www.raw-milk-facts.com/calcium.html |
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Which mineral is needed for proper absorption of calcium?
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phosphorus
www.raw-milk-facts.com/calcium.html |
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What is the best ratio of calcium to phosphorus (Ca/P) for the best calcium absorption?
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2:1 or 1:1
www.raw-milk-facts.com/calcium.html |
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Which foods and drink cause calcium loss or inhibit calcium absorption?
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high-protein diets (due to high phosphorus content and low Ca/P ratio), coffee, soft drinks, sodium (all cause loss of calcium)
www.raw-milk-facts.com/calcium.html |
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Which two categories of women are at the highest risk for not meeting calcium requirements?
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athletes and menopausal women because they do not have much estrogen
www.raw-milk-facts.com/calcium.html |
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Which three vegetables can block the absorption of calcium?
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rhubarb, spinach and soybeans (they contain oxalate, which blocks calcium absorption)
www.raw-milk-facts.com/calcium.html |
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What does Ca/P signify?
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Calcium to phosphorus ratio
www.raw-milk-facts.com/calcium.html |
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Why is magnesium sulfate given for eclampsia?
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it is an anticonvulsant and can prevent seizures
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Foods high in ____, such as meat, poultry, corn, potatoes, beer, and buckwheat, can interfere with calcium absorption.
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phosphorus
askdrsears.com |
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Which chemical compound is given in high doses to mothers with pre-eclampsia, eclampsia or preterm labor?
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magnesium sulfate
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What is the destruction of red blood cells which leads to the release of hemoglobin from within red blood cells into the blood plasma?
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hemolysis (as in hemolytic disease of the newborn)
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What are signs and symptoms of Rh incompatibility?
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newborn - low muscle tone, developmental delay, polyhydramnios, jaundice, a positive direct Coombs test, high levels of bilirubin in cord blood, signs of red cell destruction in infant's blood
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Which types of blood can people with blood type O receive?
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only type O
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What is another name for hemolytic disease of the newborn and what are the 2 types?
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erythroblastosis fetalis
ABO incompatibility Rh incompatibility |
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Vitamins and minerals in green leafy vegetables.
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vitamins A, K, C, folic acid
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Vitamins and minerals in egg yolk.
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Vitamins A and D
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Which nut contains the most calcium?
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almonds
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Thrills are vibratory sensations that represent palpable manifestations of loud, harsh murmurs. Palpations for thrills on the chest is better felt with the ___ than the tips of the fingers.
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palm of the hand
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A palpable thrill indicates a grade __ murmur or higher.
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grade 4
wikipedia |
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What is a bounding pulse?
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a strong and forceful pulse that can often be seen in arteries that are close to the skin
nlm.nih.gov |
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What is coarctation of the aorta?
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a type of birth defect in which a part of the aorta is narrowed, preventing blood from passing through the artery
ncbi.nlm.nih.gov |
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Why must hypoplastic left heart syndrome be detected as early as possible after birth?
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because the only chance for survival is the connection between the right and left sides of the heart. Therefore, medications must be administered to keep the ductus arteriosus and the foramen ovale open before they begin to close within days of birth
ncbi.nlm.nih.gov |
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What are the risks associated with hypoplastic left heart syndorme?
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heart failure on right side and death
ncbi.nlm.nih.gov |
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What is hypoplastic left heart syndrome and when do symptoms usually occur?
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a rare type of congenital heart disease in which parts of the left side of the heart (mitral valve, left ventricle, aortic valve and aorta) do not develop completely. Symptoms usually appear within hours of birth but can sometimes take days
ncbi.nlm.nih.gov |
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What does the foramen ovale connect?
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the right and left atrium
ncbi.nlm.nih.gov |
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Which two connections in the heart normally close on their own after a few days after birth?
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the ductus arteriosus and the foramen ovale
ncbi.nlm.nih.gov |
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What is peripheral pulmonary stenosis?
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a heart murmur from the turbulence as the blood crosses the fork where the main pulmonary artery splits in two, with one side going to each lung. caused by large amounts of blood rushing into relatively small arteries. usually benign
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What is the ductus arteriosus?
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a normal fetal blood vessel that closes within 12-24 hours after birth (complete sealing happens within 3 weeks after birth). in the developing fetus, it is the vascular connection between the pulmonary artery and the aortic arch that allows most of the blood to bypass the fetus' fluid-filled lungs
wikipedia |
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Which two arteries are connected via the ductus arteriosus during fetal development?
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the aorta and the pulmonary artery
wikipedia |
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What is differential cyanosis and with which congenital heart defect can it present?
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cyanosis of the lower extremities but not of the upper body
caused by a patent ductus arteriosus wikipedia |
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What does coarctation mean?
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narrowing
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What does the aorta do?
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carries blood from the heart to the vessels that supply the body with blood and nutrients
ncbi.nlm.nih.gov |
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Around half of newborns with aortic coarctation will show symptoms within ....
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the first few days of life
ncbi.nlm.nih.gov |
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Define systole.
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the rhythmic contraction of the heart, especially of the ventricles, by which blood is driven through the aorta and pulmonary artery after each diastole, or dilation
freedictionary.com |
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What does pansystolic mean?
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relating to or lasting throughout the systole of the heartbeat
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Heart murmurs are most frequently categorized by ___, into ___ heart murmurs and ___ heart murmurs.
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timing
systolic diastolic wikipedia |
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How can you locate the 2nd intercostal space from the sternal notch?
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find the sternal notch and walk fingers down the sternum a few cm until you find a distinct bony ridge. This is the sternal angle. The 2nd rib is continuous with the sternal angle and the 2nd intercostal space is just below that
www.rnceus.com |
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What is another name for the sternal angle?
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the angle of Louise
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What is ventricular septal defect and what can happen if it goes undetected?
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before a baby is born, the right and left ventricles of the heart are not separate. as the fetus grows, a wall forms to separate these. if the wall does not completely form, a hole remains. this hole is a ventricular septal defect, or VSD. If the hole is small, the baby may have no symptoms and the hole may eventually close. if it is large, too much blood will be pumped into the lungs, leading to heart failure
www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov |
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Where are the 6 places on the anterior chest to check for heart murmurs?
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1: the 2nd right intercostal space
2-5: the 2nd to 5th left intercostal spaces 6: the 5th mid-clavicular intercostal space (left) wikipedia |
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What is the bell side of the stethoscope used for?
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lower frequency sounds
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What are the symptoms of heart failure?
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tachypnea, hard breathing, paleness, failure to gain weight, tachycardia, sweating while nursing, frequent respiratory infections
ncbi.nlm.nih.gov |
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How many long chain fatty acids are there in breastmilk?
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150
Janet Jones |
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There is _____ present in breastmilk which helps train the baby on how to use insulin.
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oral insulin
Janet Jones |
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What causes the yellow color of colostrum?
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low casein content
Janet Jones |
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If a part of the placenta is retained, _____ levels will not drop and milk production will not begin.
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progesterone
Janet Jones |
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Iron is involved in the production of _____, the body's energy source.
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adenosine triphosphate or ATP
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Taking iron supplements will often darken...
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stool color
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What is lobelia used for in labor?
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to melt the cervix away
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Beans have no ...
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calcium
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Beans are extremely high in ...
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molybdenum
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Beans have no ...
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calcium
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Beans are extremely high in ...
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molybdenum
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Greens are extremely high in vitamin ... and vitamin ...
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K and A (K moreso)
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Greens are extremely high in vitamin ... and vitamin ...
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K and A (K moreso)
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___ is the best source of vitamin C, followed by ___ and then ___
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Papaya, then bell pepper, then strawberries
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Which types of fruits are good sources of vitamin C?
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citrus fruits
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___ is the best source of vitamin C, followed by ___ and then ___
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Papaya, then bell pepper, then strawberries
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Which types of fruits are good sources of vitamin C?
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citrus fruits
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Which green is particularly high in vitamin C?
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Kale (at 88% RDA)
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Greens and tomato are good sources of vitamin ___
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C
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Which food is the best source of vitamin A?
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sweet potato
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Which vegetables are good sources of vitamin A, but not quite as good as greens?
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orange vegetables
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Which is a better source of vitamin A: leafy greens or orange vegetables?
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leafy greens (with the exception of sweet potato)
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Which seed is a good source of both iron and copper?
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sesame seed
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Sesame seed is a good source of both of these minerals...
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iron and copper
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Sunflower seeds do not contain this mineral
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iron
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Pumpkin seeds are a good source of this mineral...
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iron (15% RDA)
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Shellfish (clams and oysters) are a good source of ...
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iron
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Soybeans, tofu and lentils are good sources of ...
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iron
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Name 5 good vegetarian sources of iron.
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soybeans, tofu, lentils, pumpkin seeds and sesame seeds
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Grains and nuts are high in ...
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manganese
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Olives are a good source of ....
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iron
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Broccoli is a good source of which vitamin?
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C
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Broccoli is a good source of this mineral
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calcium
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Which food is the best source of selenium?
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brazil nuts
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Which nut is an amazing source of omega 3?
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walnuts (95% RDA)
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Walnuts are the only nut that contain...
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high amounts of omega 3
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Which grain is highest in manganese?
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spelt
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Soybeans, tofu and lentils are good sources of ...
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iron
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Name 5 good vegetarian sources of iron.
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soybeans, tofu, lentils, pumpkin seeds and sesame seeds
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Grains and nuts are high in ...
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manganese
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Olives are a good source of ....
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iron
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Broccoli is a good source of which vitamin?
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C
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Broccoli is a good source of this mineral
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calcium
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Which food is the best source of selenium?
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brazil nuts
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Soybeans, tofu and lentils are good sources of ...
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iron
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Which nut is an amazing source of omega 3?
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walnuts (95% RDA)
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Name 5 good vegetarian sources of iron.
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soybeans, tofu, lentils, pumpkin seeds and sesame seeds
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Walnuts are the only nut that contain...
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high amounts of omega 3
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Grains and nuts are high in ...
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manganese
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Which grain is highest in manganese?
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spelt
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Olives are a good source of ....
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iron
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Broccoli is a good source of which vitamin?
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C
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Broccoli is a good source of this mineral
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calcium
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Which food is the best source of selenium?
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brazil nuts
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Which nut is an amazing source of omega 3?
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walnuts (95% RDA)
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Walnuts are the only nut that contain...
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high amounts of omega 3
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Which grain is highest in manganese?
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spelt
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Tofu is a good source of this mineral, but soybeans are not.
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calcium
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Chicken is not a good source of ___ compared with darker meats
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zinc
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All meat, poultry and seafood contain approximately 25% RDA of this mineral
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phosphorus
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Clams have very little of this mineral.
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calcium
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Sardines, shrimp, oysters, mussels and scallops contain good amounts of this mineral but most other seafood and fish do not.
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calcium
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Which 5 fish/seafood are the best sources of calcium?
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sardines, shrimp, oysters, mussels and scallops
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Salmon and sardines are good sources of this vitamin
|
D
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Vitamin D and ... should be taken together
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calcium
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Iron and .... should be taken together
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vitamin C
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A peanut is not a nut, it is a ...
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legume
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What does LoNG stand for?
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Legumes
Nuts/Seeds Grains Any combination of these creates a complete protein |
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Nuts with ... does not create a complete protein
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seeds
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This plant food has more protein than most plant foods
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Alfalfa
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Which three food types are the best sources of folic acid?
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beans, greens and liver
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What food is the absolute best source of omega 3?
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flax seed
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Which 4 foods are good sources of omega 3, but not as good as flax seed?
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walnuts, sardines, salmon and soybeans
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No nuts contain omega 3 except for this one..
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walnuts
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These 4 foods are excellent vegetarian sources of calcium.
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Yogurt, tofu, broccoli and sesame seeds
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Which seed is the best source of magnesium?
|
pumpkin seed
|
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Which three seeds are good sources of magnesium?
|
pumpkin, sesame, sunflower
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Potatoes are rich sources of ...
|
potassium
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Beans, spinach, swiss chard and papaya are good sources of...
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potassium
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Name 5 good sources of potassium.
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potatoes, beans, spinach, swiss chard and papaya
|
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Most greens have some potassium, but these two greens are the best sources by far:
|
spinach and swiss chard
|
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Banana has some potassium, but not nearly as much as this other fruit..
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papaya
|
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Calf liver is the absolute best source available for these 8 nutrients:
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vitamin A, zinc, copper, B12, B6, B2, folic acid, choline
|
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Which two meats are the best sources of vitamin B3
|
chicken and calf liver
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Which two meats have the highest protein content?
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pork and venison
|
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Grains and nuts are not good sources of this vitamin
|
B
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Animal products are good sources of ...
|
B vitamins
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Seeds are a good source of vitamin ___ but not any of the other B vitamins
|
B1 (thiamin)
|
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Grains are not a good source of this element
|
iron
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Molasses is a good source of this element
|
iron
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Nuts are NOT good sources of this element
|
iron
|
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Which three types of meat are good sources of iron, while the others are not.
|
pork, venison and liver
|
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Manganese deficiency is rare, but manganese helps to produce...
|
breastmilk
|
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Most grains, including brown rice, have around 15-20% RDA of this mineral
|
magnesium
|
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Calcium, phosphorus and potassium are __ minerals
|
macro
|
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Name the 9 trace minerals
|
copper, zinc, magnesium, iron, selenium, molybdenum, manganese, chromium and fluoride
|
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What do trace minerals do in the body?
|
they catalyze various chemical reactions
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What does PuB SoB Pie BaKeR Goo CAN stand for?
|
the foods highest in vitamin C:
Papaya Bell pepper Strawberry Broccoli Pineapple Brussel sprout Kiwi Orange Grapefruit Cantaloupe |
|
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What does YaT SoGy MiC See Chu ToyS mean?
|
Foods highest in calcium:
Yogurt Tofu Sesame seeds Goats milk Milk Collard Greens Spinach Cheese Turnip greens Scallops |
|
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What does SeaL STuC VaSe GLo OiL stand for?
|
Foods rich in iron:
Soybeans Lentils Spinach Tofu Calf Liver Venison Sesame seeds Garbanzo beans Lima beans Olives |
|
|
Which three beans are very high in iron?
|
soybeans, garbanzo beans and lima beans
|
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Which mineral are lima beans high in?
|
iron
|
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Which mineral are garbanzo beans high in?
|
iron
|
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Which is a great grain for protein?
|
quinoa
|
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Bran is high in which vitamins?
|
B-vitamins
|
|
|
Most beans are a good source of this trace mineral...
|
iron
|
|
|
What are the top ten foods in folic acid?
|
Calf liver
Lentils Pinto beans Garbanzo beans Spinach Black beans Navy beans Kidney beans Collard greens Turnip greens |
|
|
What is the mnemonic picture for folic acid?
|
a leafy vine growing up a spine
|
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|
What are the top ten foods in pyridoxine (B6)?
|
Tuna
Calf liver Chicken Salmon Turkey Venison Potato Cod Sunflower seeds Halibut |
|
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What are the top ten foods in calcium?
|
Yogurt
Tofu Sesame seeds Goat's milk Cow's milk Collard greens Spinach Cheese Turnip greens Scallops |
|
|
What does YaT SoGy MiC See Chu ToyS mean?
|
Foods highest in calcium:
Yogurt Tofu Sesame seeds Goats milk Milk Collard Greens Spinach Cheese Turnip greens Scallops |
|
|
What does SeaL STuC VaSe GLo OiL stand for?
|
Foods rich in iron:
Soybeans Lentils Spinach Tofu Calf Liver Venison Sesame seeds Garbanzo beans Lima beans Olives |
|
|
Which three beans are very high in iron?
|
soybeans, garbanzo beans and lima beans
|
|
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Which mineral are lima beans high in?
|
iron
|
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Which mineral are garbanzo beans high in?
|
iron
|
|
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Which is a great grain for protein?
|
quinoa
|
|
|
Bran is high in which vitamins?
|
B-vitamins
|
|
|
Most beans are a good source of this trace mineral...
|
iron
|
|
|
What are the top ten foods in folic acid?
|
Calf liver
Lentils Pinto beans Garbanzo beans Spinach Black beans Navy beans Kidney beans Collard greens Turnip greens |
|
|
What is the mnemonic picture for folic acid?
|
a leafy vine growing up a spine
|
|
|
What is your mnemonic for calcium?
|
chompers (teeth)
|
|
|
What are the top ten foods for vitamin A?
|
calf liver
sweet potato carrot greens winter squash |
|
|
Which two trace elements does turmeric contain?
|
iron and manganese
|
|
|
What are the top ten foods for potassium?
|
Swiss chard
lima beans potato yam soybeans spinach papaya pinto beans lentils kidney beans |
|
|
What is the difference between the peritoneum and the periosteum?
|
the peritoneum is the lining in the abdominal cavity and the periosteum is the lining of the bones (skull)
|
|
|
What is Pawlik's grip?
|
a modified 3rd Leopold maneuver in which the midwife grasps the fundus in one hand and the presenting part in the other 1154
|
|
|
What is a galactocele?
|
a milk retention cyst, thought to be rare products of plugged ducts 1080
|
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What would bile-stained emesis and failure to pass stool in the newborn lead you to suspect?
|
intestinal obstruction 1036
|
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How early before labor does lightening occur?
|
approximately 2 weeks 737
|
|
|
What is lightening?
|
the descent of the presenting part of the baby into the true pelvis 737
|
|
|
What are the specific signs of lightening?
|
urinary frequency, generalized pelvic pressure, sensation that a bowel movement is needed, leg cramps, dependent edema in the legs because the pressure from the presenting part is preventing venous stasis 737
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Once lightening has occurred, your fingers will now ___ rather than ___ during Leopold's fourth maneuver.
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diverge rather than converge 737
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|
|
Lightening usually occurs prior to labor only in _____.
|
primigravidas 737
|
|
|
Lightening provides an indication of the adequacy of the pelvic ..
|
inlet 738
|
|
|
Because the length of time between lightening and true labor varies with individuals, it is of little use in predicting...
|
the onset of labor... except in a most generalized fashion of a few days to a couple of weeks. 738
|
|
|
How quickly does labor usually begin after expulsion of bloody show?
|
24 to 48 hours 739
|
|
|
How long does it usually take for the mucus plug to be expelled?
|
1 to 2 days 739
|
|
|
What are the signs and symptoms of impending labor? (7 of them)
|
lightening, cervical changes, false labor, premature rupture of membranes, bloody show, energy spurt and gastrointestinal upset 737
|
|
|
How long after the energy spurt does labor usually begin?
|
24 to 48 hours 739
|
|
|
How long does the prelabor energy spurt usually last?
|
a few hours 739
|
|
|
Women who have an energy spurt before labor often...
|
energy labor exhausted and therefore have long, difficult labors 739
|
|
|
Which gastrointestinal upsets might be indicative of impending labor?
|
nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, indigestion 739
|
|
|
What are the three phase of a contraction?
|
increment, acme and decrement 740
|
|
|
Which of the phases of a contraction is the longest?
|
the increment phase is longer than the other 2 phases combined 740
|
|
|
How can you assess a good, effective labor contraction?
|
only by palpation or uterine pressure catheter (the mom's vocalization of when contractions begin and end and their strength is inaccurate and highly variable. by palpation, a good, effective labor contraction is indicated by not being able to digitally indent the uterine wall during the acme 740
|
|
|
What is fetal axis pressure?
|
the elongation of the uterus during contractions into an ovoid (longer vertically than horizontally) which brings the upper pole of the fetus in solid direct contact with the contracting uterine fundus while the lower pole is directed downward and pushed into the pelvis 741
|
|
|
What is the normal gradient pattern for effective contractions?
|
strong contraction in the fundus, moderate in the middle and light to nonexistent in the lower segment, causing and thinning in the isthmus (lower uterine segment) 740
|
|
|
Progressive cervical change in a primigravida in labor is generally ____ then ___.
|
sequential then simultaneous 742
|
|
|
In a primigravida, about 50-100% effacement occurs first, followed by...
|
a combination of any remaining effacement and dilatation occurring simultaneously 742
|
|
|
The cervix of a multip entering labor is frequently ... (dilation and effacement)
|
1-2 cm dilated with little to no effacement 742
|
|
|
Where in labor might be the primigravida with a paper-thin cervix and 1-2cm dilation be?
|
on the verge of labor 742
|
|
|
What is the only indicator that enables one to diagnose labor accurately?
|
progressive cervical change (both dilation and effacement) 742
|
|
|
What should you do with the woman not in active labor who gives a history suggestive of ruptured membranes?
|
sterile speculum exam to check for amniotic fluid escaping the cervix 743
|
|
|
Little to no descent of the presenting part occurs during the ___ phase.
|
latent 744
|
|
|
The active phase is generally from ___ cm to complete dilation.
|
3-4 cm 745
|
|
|
Friedman divided the ___ phase of labor into three sequential phases.
|
active 744
|
|
|
What are the three phases of active labor according to Friedman?
|
acceleration, maximum slope and deceleration 744
|
|
|
What is Friedman's phase of maximum slope?
|
the period of active labor when cervical dilation is occurring most rapidly, generally from 3-8 cm 745
|
|
|
Friedman's acceleration phase starts the ___ phase of labor.
|
active 745
|
|
|
Friedman's deceleration phase is the end of the active phase, during which the rate of dilation slows and ____ reaches its maximum rate.
|
descent 745
|
|
|
What is Friedman's hourly upper limit for nulliparas in active labor (3-10 cm)? Multiparas?
|
11.7 hours nulliparas
5.2 hours multips 746 |
|
|
What are some of the lesser known signs of transition?
|
beads of perspiration on upper lip or brow, chattering teeth, cramps in butt, thighs, legs, thirst, inability to breathe abdominally, marked restlessness, difficulty in readily comprehending directions, toes curl with contractions, severe low backache, apprehensive 746
|
|
|
Synclitism and asynclitism describe the relationship of the sagittal suture of the fetal head to the ___ and the ___ of the mother's pelvis
|
sacrum and symphysis pubis 749
|
|
|
Definition of anterior or posterior asynclitism is based not on which maternal pelvic structure the sagittal suture is closer to but instead on...
|
which parietal bone is leading 750
|
|
|
In a normal labor, the head usually enters the pelvic inlet with a moderate degree of ___ asynclitism, which then changes to ___ asynclitism as it descends further into the pelvis before the mechanism of internal rotation takes place.
|
posterior then anterior 750
|
|
|
Molding usually occurs as the overriding of the ___ bones by the ___ bone.
|
the parietal bones are overriden by the occipital bone 751
|
|
|
In molding, when the parietal bones overlap at the sagittal suture, the ___ bone overlaps the ___ bone, which was depressed because of pressure from the sacral promontory.
|
anterior overlaps the posterior 751
|
|
|
Where are true labor contractions felt, as opposed to false labor contractions?
|
true contractions are felt as radiating across the uterus and the lower back; false contractions are usually felt int he lower abdomen and groin 754
|
|
|
What complication is commonly misdiagnosed or overlooked during false labor?
|
urinary tract infection (urinary frequency, suprapubic, flank and back pain may be overlooked or misdiagnosed as just false labor) 754
|
|
|
How can you differentiate between true labor, false labor and urinary tract infection?
|
true labor can be ruled out by the absence of cervical change, false labor by the absence of irregular uterine contractions that are relieved by walking 754
|
|
|
Walking stimulates ___ labor and relieves ___ labor.
|
stimulates true labor and relieves false labor 755
|
|
|
Why is walking a good test for true or false labor?
|
walking stimulates true labor and relieves false labor 755
|
|
|
What is a complication that can masquerade as a sign of labor?
|
urinary tract infection 758
|
|
|
What might an elevated respiratory rate in labor indicate?
|
shock or anxiety 758
|
|
|
What might an elevated systolic but normal diastolic blood pressure during labor indicate?
|
a woman who is anxious or in pain 758
|
|
|
What might an elevated pulse in labor indicate?
|
infection, shock, anxiety or dehydration 758
|
|
|
In the lateral recumbent position, contractions are ___ and __ frequent than in the supine position.
|
stronger and LESS frequent 763
|
|
|
In which 5 situations should the mother assume the lateral recumbent position?
|
1) maternal supine hypotensive syndrome
2) fetal stress (to reduce uterine activity, relieve pressure on the cord) 3) ROP or LOP positions if long arc rotation is slow (right side for ROP, left side for LOP) 4) severe preeclampsia (for better urine flow) 5) ineffectual uterine contractions 763 |
|
|
How often should you check blood pressure, temperature, pulse, respirations and bladder during active labor?
|
BP: every hour
Temp, pulse and resps: 1) every 2-4 hours when temp is normal and membranes are intact, 2) every 1-2 hours once membranes have ruptured Bladder: every 2 hours 774 |
|
|
Urine obtained via ____ evidence of proteinuria may be considered valid (otherwise blood in the urine can give false positive results).
|
catheterization 775
|
|
|
Dry or chapped lips are not a positive sign of dehydration during labor because...
|
it could be due to mouth breathing during contractions 776
|
|
|
When are the only 5 times a vaginal examination is indicated?
|
1) upon admission to establish an informational baseline
2) before giving medication 3) to verify complete dilation before pushing 4) after SROM if prolapsed cord is suspected or possible 5) to check for prolapsed cord when FHR is not improved with the usual maneuvers 777 |
|
|
What is the OB back rub?
|
applying pressure to the specific spot on the woman's spine where the fetal head is pressing at that moment 787
|
|
|
The 1 minute Apgar score is almost never indicative of future ____
|
neurological damage 794
|
|
|
Only absent _____ WITH late or _______ decelerations over a period of time are strongly associated with perinatal asphyxia.
|
absent baseline variability with late or prolonged decelerations 795
|
|
|
What is ischemia?
|
a restriction of blood supply to the tissues
|
|
|
What is a primary concern in monitoring fetal wellbeing during labor?
|
the prevention of hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy (HIE) in the neonate 795
|
|
|
What causes cerebral palsy?
|
an injury to the brain before, during or shortly after birth
|
|
|
What is the most common outcome of hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy of the neonate in the term infant?
|
spastic quadriplegic cerebral palsy 795
|
|
|
By what gestational age with approximately 80% of fetuses have accelerations associated with movement that meet nonstress test criteria of 15 beats in amplitude and at least 15 seconds off the baseline?
|
by 28 weeks 795
|
|
|
What percent of term fetuses with nonreassuring tracing actually have low Apgars and cord blood gases?
|
20% 796
|
|
|
In order to determine a baseline heart rate in labor it is necessary to listen ....
|
between contractions for several intervals within a 10-minute period 797
|
|
|
After establishing baseline heart rate in labor, the midwife should then listen...
|
immediately following a contraction to determine if there is a significant change in the heart rate as a result of the contraction 797
|
|
|
How often should you listen to FHR during active phase for a woman with no risk factors? With risk factors?
|
no risk: every 30 minutes
with risk: every 15 minutes 798 |
|
|
How often should you listen to FHR during 2nd stage for a woman with no risk factors? With risk factors?
|
no risk: every 15 minutes
risk: every 5 minutes 798 |
|
|
What is a periodic FHR pattern?
|
a pattern associated with uterine contractions 801
|
|
|
What is an episodic FHR pattern?
|
a pattern not associated with uterine contractions 801
|
|
|
What is the definition of recurrent decelerations?
|
decelerations that occur with > or = 50% of contractions over a 20 minute period 801
|
|
|
Define absent, minimal, moderate and marked FHR variability.
|
absent: no detectible amplitude range (amplitude is peak to trough)
minimal: undetectable to 5 bpm amplitude moderate: 6 to 25 bpm amplitude marked: more than 25 bpm amplitude 801 |
|
|
Define FHR acceleration.
|
an abrupt increase in FHR above baseline (onset to peak in <30 seconds; acme is > or = 15 bpm above baseline and acceleration lasts 15 second to 2 minutes from onset to return to baseline 801
|
|
|
What is a prolonged FHR acceleration?
|
an acceleration that lasts more than 2 minutes and less than 10 minutes 801
|
|
|
Define late FHR deceleration.
|
gradual deceleration, onset to nadir is greater than or equal to 30 seconds, deceleration is delayed in time, with nadir occurring after the peak of the contraction; in most cases the onset, nadir and recovery of the deceleration occur after the beginning, peak and ending of the contraction, respectively 802
|
|
|
Define early FHR deceleration.
|
gradual decrease of FHR, nadir of deceleration occurs at the same time as the peak of the contraction; in most cases onset, nadir and recovery of the deceleration are coincident with the beginning, peak and ending of the contraction, respectively 802
|
|
|
Is a FHR acceleration abrupt or gradual?
|
abrupt 802
|
|
|
Is an FHR deceleration abrupt or gradual?
|
gradual 802
|
|
|
What is a gradual FHR deceleration defined as?
|
onset to peak is greater than or equal to 30 seconds 802
|
|
|
What is an abrupt FHR acceleration/deceleration defined as?
|
onset to peak is less than 30 seconds 801
|
|
|
Early and late FHR decelerations are associated with....
|
contractions 802
|
|
|
Define variable FHR deceleration.
|
abrupt decrease, onset of decel to nadir is less than 30 seconds, decrease below baseline is more than or equal to 15 bpm and lasts from 15 seconds to 2 minutes from onset to return to baseline; when variable decels are associated with uterine contractions, their onset, depth and duration commonly vary with successive uterine contractions 802
|
|
|
In the term fetus, fetal tachycardia alone is not usually associated with...
|
poor outcomes 802
|
|
|
Fetal tachycardia combined with either late decelerations or _____ and absent variability, with or without meconium, is indicative of fetal hypoxia.
|
prolonged variable decels 802
|
|
|
What might fetal tachycardia without other fetal heart rate change indicate?
|
prematurity (<28 weeks gestation), maternal hyperthermia (infection possible), fetal hypoxia, drugs, congenital anomalies, maternal dehydration, fetal anemia, hyperthyroidism 802
|
|
|
Fetal bradycardia more than ___bpm that is accompanied by adequate variability is rarely associated with fetal acidemia.
|
more than 80bmp 802
|
|
|
What might a low baseline FHR of 100 to 120 bpm indicate?
|
maternal hypothermia, prolapsed cord, fetal hypoxemia or asphyxia, vagal stimulation, cardiac anomalies, drugs 803
|
|
|
What might cause a low heart rate due to vagal FHR response in the fetus?
|
maternal Valsalva, vaginal exam, rapid descent, or posterior or transverse position of the fetal head in a vertex position 803
|
|
|
What five things should the midwife assess if the fetus's baseline heart rate is less than 110 bpm?
|
1) presence of prolapsed cord
2) duration of bradycardia 3) presence or absence of variability 4) late or prolonged variable decels 5) expected length of time until delivery 803 |
|
|
Average variability in the FHR indicates...
|
the fetus's autonomic nervous system is mature and well oxygenated 803
|
|
|
What cause cause diminished FHR variability? (4 things)
|
fetal sleep, drugs, anemia, or hypoxia 803
|
|
|
When FHR variability is minimal, without the presence of decelerations, it is...
|
rarely caused by asphyxia 803
|
|
|
How long should fetal sleep cycles persist?
|
no longer than 80 minutes in the average fetus 803
|
|
|
Accelerations in FHR are associated with ____ pH.
|
normal 803
|
|
|
What causes early FHR decelerations?
|
head compression 803
|
|
|
Early decelerations are association with cervical dilation from __ to __ centimeters.
|
4 to 7 803
|
|
|
What causes variable decels?
|
cord compression 803
|
|
|
Are variable decelerations associated with contractions?
|
no, the onset of variable decels is unpredictable and occurs at different times in relation to the onset and duration of uterine contractions 803
|
|
|
Which type of FHR deceleration is the most commonly seen in labor?
|
variable decels 804
|
|
|
Are variable decels associated with abnormal outcomes?
|
not usually 804
|
|
|
When are variable decels a cause for concern?
|
they are nonreassuring when they become progressively repetitive and deeper, lasting longer and are associated with tachycardia or diminished variability 804
|
|
|
What is considered a nonreassuring variable decel?
|
one that drops to less than 70 bpm for more than 60 seconds 804
|
|
|
Which kind of variable decel is considered nonreassuring?
|
the kind that has a slow return to baseline or is associated with tachycardia 804
|
|
|
A pattern of late decelerations is thought to be due to ...
|
uteroplacental insufficiency 804
|
|
|
Variable decels coupled with ____ or ____ are associated with fetal acidosis.
|
diminishing variability or tachycardia 804
|
|
|
The fetal heart rate in a late decel will usually be within the normal range and can be as shallow as ___ bpm below the baseline rate.
|
10 bpm 808
|
|
|
The severity of the fetal hypoxia cannot be measured by ___ of the late deceleration.
|
the depth 808
|
|
|
What are the causes of chronic and acute uteroplacental insufficiency?
|
lupus, poorly controlled diabetes, hyperthyroidism, intrauterine infection, IUGR associated with maternal chronic hypertension, other hypertensive disorders, maternal hypotension syndrome, hypertonic uterine contractions, postmaturity, abnormal placentation, fetal anemia associated with rh sensitization, nonimmune hydrops or fetal-maternal hemorrhage 808
|
|
|
What 10 things can cause a prolonged FHR decel?
|
1) umbilical cord compression
2) profound uteroplacental insufficiency 3) hypotension related to supine positioning or anesthesia 4) paracervical anesthesia 5) hypertonic or tetanic uterine contractions 6) drugs 7) maternal hypoxia 8) pelvic exam 9) maternal valsalva 10) rapid descent of fetal head 809 |
|
|
Define sinusoidal FHR pattern.
|
undulating, repetitive, uniform, fetal heart rate equally distributed 5 to 15 bpm above and below the baseline for at least 10 minutes 809
|
|
|
Does a sinusoidal FHR pattern have any association with uterine contractions?
|
no, it has no relationship to either contraction pattern or fetal movement 809
|
|
|
Does a sinusoidal FHR pattern have any relationship to fetal movement?
|
no 809
|
|
|
How often does a sinusoidal FHR pattern undulate?
|
2 to 6 cycles per minute 810
|
|
|
True sinusoidal patterns are...
|
extremely rare 810
|
|
|
Significant sinusoidal FHR patterns are associated with...
|
chronic fetal anemia, as seen in isoimmunization and abruptio placentae and severe hypoxia with acidosis 810
|
|
|
The wandering baseline FHR is a very late development in the progression of...
|
fetal deterioration 810
|
|
|
The wandering baseline FHR is first diagnosed when the midwife...
|
is unable to establish a baseline fetal heart rate. 810
|
|
|
The wandering baseline FHR is usually within the normal parameters of 120 to 160 bpm, but is identifiable by its total absence of...
|
short-term variability 810
|
|
|
What should you do in case of nonemergent, but nonreassuring FHR patterns?
|
position the woman on her side 811
|
|
|
Why should you position the woman on her side in case of non-emergent but non-reassuring FHR patterns? (3 things)
|
it redistributes uterine contents in an attempt to alleviate any cord compression, it alleviates supine hypotension syndrome, it decreases the frequency of uterine contractions 811
|
|
|
Define anaphylaxis.
|
a serious allergic reaction that is rapid in onset and may cause death
uptodate.com |
|
|
What is an erythrocyte?
|
a red blood cell that contains the pigment hemoglobin, which gives blood its red color and transports oxygen and carbon dioxide to and from tissues
google dictionary |
|
|
What are some causes of oligohydramnios?
|
congenital anomalies
IUGR PROM post maturity syndrome |
|
|
Where is AFP secreted?
|
first secreted by yolk sac, then by fetal liver
|
|
|
What is dosage for methergine?
|
0.2 mg q 4 hours for 6 doses
|
|
|
Which hormones are controlled by the pituitary?
|
follicle stimulating hormone
luteinizing hormone prolactin oxytocin |
|
|
Which classification of drugs is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy?
|
X
|
|
|
What are the 5 components of the BPP?
|
tone
breathing movements heart rate (NST) amniotic fluid volume movement |
|
|
What are desired hematocrit levels in each trimester?
|
1st: 33%
2nd: 32% 3rd: 33% |
|
|
What is the normal AFI at 38 weeks?
|
1000 mL or 1 L
|
|
|
What is the usual dosage for RhoGam?
|
300 mcg
|
|
|
What is tinel's sign?
|
a tingling produced when the wrist is tapped midline at the wrist crease in a person that has carpal tunnel syndrome
|
|
|
What are the most common signs of anaphylaxis?
|
cutaneous symptoms (itching, hives, swelling)
respiratory symptoms (nasal discharge, congestion, change in voice quality, throat closure, dyspnea, cough) gastrointestinal symptoms (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, cramping) cardiovascular symptoms (dizziness, tachycardia, hypotension, collapse) uptodate.com |
|
|
What are the most common triggers of anaphylaxis in the pregnant or postpartum woman?
|
antibiotics for group B strep, anesthetic agents, oxytocin, intravenous iron, laminaria used to dilate the cervix, latex, NSAIDs, breastmilk
uptodate.com |
|
|
While low grade fevers are not significant, a fever above __ poses the possibility of damage to the fetus.
|
100.4
|
|
|
What is the vulva?
|
collectively the labia (majora, minora), clitoris, and openings of urethra and vagina. Extends from pubic bone to point in front of anal opening
|
|
|
Data from animal studies indicate core temperature elevations of 102 degrees fahrenheit or higher can cause spontaneous abortion or ___ ___ defects.
|
neural tube
|
|
|
What does GCT stand for?
|
glucose challenge test
|
|
|
What is choline and what does it do?
|
chemical similar to B vitamins. works in concert with folate and methionine to protect the cell membrane, the liver. Human milk has high levels of choline.
|
|
|
What is the potentially deadly medical condition characterized by whole-body inflammatory state and the presence of a known or suspected infection?
|
sepsis
wikipedia |
|
|
What is hypoplasia?
|
the underdevelopment or incomplete development of a tissue or organ
wikipedia |
|
|
Define hypertrophy.
|
cells increase in size
|
|
|
The first ___ pairs of ribs are attached to the sternum, or breastbone, by cartilage.
|
7
wikipedia |
|
|
How many ribs do we have on each side and how many intercostal spaces?
|
12 ribs, 11 intercostal spaces
wikipedia |
|
|
What is thrombocytopenia?
|
a disorder in which there is an abnormally low amount of platelets in the blood
www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov |
|
|
What is another word for platelets?
|
thrombocytes
wikipedia |
|
|
What is thrombocytosis?
|
an increase in number of platelets, could lead to clotting
wikipedia |
|
|
What is the opposite of hemorrhage?
|
hemostasis
|
|
|
In the case of RhD, what is the minimum amount of fetal blood (RhD pos) needed to cause immunization in the mother?
|
0.25mL
Understanding Diagnostic Tests of the Childbearing Year 135 |
|
|
Repeated miscarriages occurring after the first trimester may be associated with an uncommon factor sensitization or incompatibility problem. What 2 tests should be ordered in this case?
|
an antibody screen of te mother
blood type and factor of biological father Understanding Diagnostic Tests of the Childbearing Year 132 |
|
|
ABO reactions (stay the same/worsen) in general with subsequent children.
|
stay the same
antibodies in the mother's system usually remain stable because they are usually produced without exposure to foreign RBCs Understanding Diagnostic Tests of the Childbearing Year 130 |
|
|
Define aerophagia?
|
a condition that occurs when a person swallows too much air, which goes to the stomach. It causes abdominal bloating and frequent belching and may cause pain
|
|
|
What is anencephaly?
|
the absence of a large part of the brain and the skull. Anencephaly is one of the most common neural tube defects. Neural tube defects are birth defects that affect the tissue that grows into the spinal cord and brain. Anencephaly occurs early in the development of an unborn baby. It results when the upper part of the neural tube fails to close. Why this happens is not known. Possible causes include environmental toxins and low intake of folic acid by the mother during pregnancy. Anencephaly occurs in about 1 out of 10,000 births. The exact number is unknown, because many of these pregnancies result in miscarriage. Having one infant with this condition increases the risk of having another child with neural tube defects.
|
|
|
What is arthralgia?
|
joint pain
|
|
|
What is Bandl's retraction ring?
|
a ridge that may form around the uterus at the junction of the upper and lower uterine segments during the prolonged second stage of an obstructed labor. The lower segment is abnormally distended and thin, and the upper segment is abnormally thick. The ring, which may be seen and felt abdominally, is a warning of impending uterine rupture
|
|
|
What is circumoral?
|
surrounding the mouth
|
|
|
Define aerophagia?
|
a condition that occurs when a person swallows too much air, which goes to the stomach. It causes abdominal bloating and frequent belching and may cause pain
|
|
|
What is dyspareunia?
|
painful sexual intercourse, due to medical or psychological causes
|
|
|
What is anencephaly?
|
the absence of a large part of the brain and the skull. Anencephaly is one of the most common neural tube defects. Neural tube defects are birth defects that affect the tissue that grows into the spinal cord and brain. Anencephaly occurs early in the development of an unborn baby. It results when the upper part of the neural tube fails to close. Why this happens is not known. Possible causes include environmental toxins and low intake of folic acid by the mother during pregnancy. Anencephaly occurs in about 1 out of 10,000 births. The exact number is unknown, because many of these pregnancies result in miscarriage. Having one infant with this condition increases the risk of having another child with neural tube defects.
|
|
|
What is arthralgia?
|
joint pain
|
|
|
What is dyspnea?
|
shortness of breath (SOB), or air hunger, is the subjective symptom of breathlessness
|
|
|
What is Bandl's retraction ring?
|
a ridge that may form around the uterus at the junction of the upper and lower uterine segments during the prolonged second stage of an obstructed labor. The lower segment is abnormally distended and thin, and the upper segment is abnormally thick. The ring, which may be seen and felt abdominally, is a warning of impending uterine rupture
|
|
|
What is dysuria?
|
Painful or difficult urination
|
|
|
What is circumoral?
|
surrounding the mouth
|
|
|
What is ecchymosis?
|
bluish discoloration of an area of skin or mucous membrane caused by the extravasation of blood into the subcutaneous tissues as a result of trauma to the underlying blood vessels or fragility of the vessel walls. Also called bruise.
|
|
|
What is dyspareunia?
|
painful sexual intercourse, due to medical or psychological causes
|
|
|
What is erythema?
|
is redness of the skin, caused by hyperemia of the capillaries in the lower layers of the skin
|
|
|
What is dyspnea?
|
shortness of breath (SOB), or air hunger, is the subjective symptom of breathlessness
|
|
|
What is dysuria?
|
Painful or difficult urination
|
|
|
What is ecchymosis?
|
bluish discoloration of an area of skin or mucous membrane caused by the extravasation of blood into the subcutaneous tissues as a result of trauma to the underlying blood vessels or fragility of the vessel walls. Also called bruise.
|
|
|
What is erythema?
|
is redness of the skin, caused by hyperemia of the capillaries in the lower layers of the skin
|
|
|
What is fetal hydrops?
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Hydrops fetalis is a condition in the fetus characterized by an abnormal collection of fluid with at least two of the following:
Edema (fluid beneath the skin, more than 5 mm). Ascites (fluid in abdomen) Pleural effusion (fluid in the pleural cavity, the fluid-filled space that surrounds the lungs) Pericardial effusion (fluid in the pericardial sac, covering that surrounds the heart) In addition, hydrops fetalis is frequently associated with polyhydramnios and a thickened placenta (>6 cm). |
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What is hydrocephalus?
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also known as "water in the brain," is a medical condition in which there is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the ventricles, or cavities, of the brain. This may cause increased intracranial pressureinside the skull and progressive enlargement of the head, convulsion, tunnel vision, and mental disability. Hydrocephalus can also cause death
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What is menorrhagia?
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Menorrhagia: Abnormally heavy bleeding at menstruation
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What is metrorrhagia?
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Metrorrhagia: Abnormal bleeding from the uterus
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What is microcephaly?
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is a neurodevelopmental disorder in which the circumference of the head is more than two standard deviations smaller than average for the person's age and sex
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What is mucopurulent?
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Mucopurulent: containing or composed of mucus and pus
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What is myalgia?
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Pain in a muscle; or pain in multiple muscles
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What is oophoritis?
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Inflammation of an ovary; ovaritis
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What is palmar erythema?
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reddening of the palms at the thenar and hypothenar eminences
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What is the peritoneum?
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The serous membrane lining the cavity of the abdomen and covering the abdominal organs
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What is polyuria?
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Production of too much dilute urine
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What is prodrome?
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an early symptom indicating the onset of a disease
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What does purulent mean?
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Consisting of, containing, or discharging pus
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What is salpingitis?
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Inflammation of the fallopian tubes
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What is seborrhea?
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a condition in which overactivity of the sebaceous glands causes the skin to become oily
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What is vaginosis?
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a disease or infection of the vagina; specifically : bacterial vaginosis
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What is vaginitis?
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nflammation of the vagina
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What is a vesicle?
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A small blister full of clear fluid
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The pelvic muscles may be divided into two groups:...
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the pelvic floor and the urogenital triangle with the deep transverse muscle
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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Where do all of the muscles of the urogenital triangle and the pelvic floor meet?
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the perineum
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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What is the most superficial layer of muscles in the perineal musculature?
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urogenital triangle
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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Which three muscles make up the urogenital triangle?
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the superficial transverse, bulbocavernosus and ischiocavernosus
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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The _____ muscle forms the top point and two lateral sides of the urogenital triangle (the top point is the urethra and the base is at the top of the perineum)
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ischiocavernosus
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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The ____ muscle forms the base of the urogenital triangle.
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superficial transverse
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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The ____ muscle runs from the inside of the top point of the urogenital triangle down behind the superficial transverse muscle and is shaped like a pair of parenthesis.
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bulbocavernosus
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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The ____ muscle forms a solid triangular base of muscle immediately behind the open urogenital triangle. It is perforated by the urethra and the yoni.
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the deep transverse muscle
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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What lies behind the urogenital triangle?
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the pelvic floor
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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Each muscle in the urogenital triangle and the deep transverse muscles are distinct, but made up of fibers that are ....
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difficult if not impossible to discern with the naked eye.
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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The pelvic floor is made up of several muscle which function collectively and are referred to as the ____ muscle.
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levator ani
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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The pelvic floor forms a supportive muscular hammock or sling that prevents...
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the abdominal and pelvic contents from falling through the pelvic cavity.
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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Which is the most superficial (shallow) muscle in the genital area?
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the anal sphincter
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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Which is the most visually distinct muscle in the perineal body?
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the anal sphincter
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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The superficial transverse muscle extends out to each _____
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ischial tuberosity
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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The ischiocavernosus muscle extends out to each side to the ____
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ischial spines
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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The ischiocavernosus muscle is hardly ever...
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damaged during childbirth
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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Which muscle forms the sphincter of the yoni?
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bulbocavernosus
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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The fibers of the bulbocavernosus muscle are shaped like the top of a ....
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figure-eight
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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What forms the bottom loop of the figure-eight shape that starts as the bulbocavernosus muscle on top?
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the anal sphincter
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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Which two muscle of the perineal musculature form the "figure-eight" shape together?
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the bulbocavernosus and the anal sphincter
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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Which perineal muscle is most likely to be damaged at birth?
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bulbocavernosus
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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The levator ani is made up of which three muscles?
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pubococcygeus, iliococcygeus and coccygeus (also called ischiococcygeus)
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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The pubococcygeus muscle can be divided into which three divisions?
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pubovaginalis, puborectalis and pubococcygeus proper
Healing Passage 19-21 |
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Postprandial glucose testing is done by testing glucose...
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after a normal meal
Understanding Diagnostic Tests in the Childbearing Year 248 |
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When does newborn infection of HBV generally occur?
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during mixing of maternal and fetal blood and via contact with infected cervical and vaginal secretions and amniotic fluid either prior to or during the birth
Understanding Diagnostic Test in the Childbearing Year 637 |
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Does surgical delivery reduce the risk of newborn HBV infection?
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no
Understanding Diagnostic Test in the Childbearing Year 637 |
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Is nursing a risk factor for HBV transmission to the newborn?
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not unless there is potential for blood contact due to bleeding nipples
Understanding Diagnostic Test in the Childbearing Year 637 |
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The baby is infected ___ to __% of the time when the mother has early, untreated syphilis.
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70-100% of the time
Understanding Diagnostic Test in the Childbearing Year 775-91 |
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HBV does not usually cross the _____, but syphilis often does.
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placenta
Understanding Diagnostic Test in the Childbearing Year 775-91 |
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About 25% of fetuses exposed to ____ will die before birth.
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syphilis
Understanding Diagnostic Test in the Childbearing Year 775-91 |
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Any woman who gives birth to a stillborn baby after 20 weeks gestation should be retested for ____
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syphilis
Understanding Diagnostic Test in the Childbearing Year 775-91 |
