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663 Cards in this Set

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Where is the fundus at postpartum day one?
Just below the umbilicus
Uterus involution occurs as a result of:
Autolysis of protein material within the uterine wall.
What is a NST?
The Non-Stress Test watches fluctuations in the baby's heart rate in response to it's own movements. Listen with fetoscope for 20 sec for FHR changes in response to activity. Moderate acceleration=good
Increased number and activity of endocervical glands are responsible for:
the formation of the mucus plug.
Normal blood pressure is:
90/60 - 140/90
How many fetal kick counts are expected in an hour?
8-10
Blood volume increases by _________ during pregnancy.
40-45%
Placenta accreta is:
placenta implantation is abnormally firm to uterine wall.
Placenta increta is:
placenta attached to the myometrium.
Placenta percreta is:
placenta attached through the uterus- may extend to nearby organs (like bladder) :(
What is IgG?
Immunoglobulin G- antibody moleculesIgG antibodies are involved in predominantly the secondary immune response. The presence of specific IgG, in general, corresponds to maturation of the antibody response.[2] Human IgG Subclasses: IgG is the only isotype that can pass through the human placenta, thereby providing protection to the fetus in utero. Along with IgA secreted in the breast milk, residual IgG absorbed through the placenta provides the neonate with humoral immunity before its own immune system develops. Colostrum contains a high percentage of IgG, especially in bovine colostrum.
What is IgM?
Immunoglobulin M: Immunoglobulin M, or IgM for short, is a basic antibody that is produced by B cells. It is the primary antibody against A and B antigens on red blood cells. IgM is by far the physically largest antibody in the human circulatory system. It is the first antibody to appear in response to initial exposure to antigen.IgM antibodies do not pass across the human placenta (only isotype IgG).
Hemolytic disease of the newborn is produced by the union of:
Rh-negative mother and
Rh-positive father
What is the difference between a direct and indirect coombs?
The indirect Coombs test is used in prenatal testing of pregnant women. It detects antibodies against RBCs that are present unbound in the patient's serum.The direct Coombs test is used to detect antibodies or complement proteins that are bound to the surface of red blood cells in the fetus/newborn.
What does a positive coombs from cord blood indicate?
Antibodies coating the baby's RBCs.
What is: Treponema Pallidum
Is the bacteria that causes syphilis.
Maternal malnutrition can lead to:
1.) inadequate uteroplacental function
2.) IUGR & SGA
3.) hypertrophic & hyperplastic brain deterioration in the fetus
What is Turner Syndrome?
A sex chromosome abnormality, where the second x is missing or incomplete. Affects girls only- often short and infertile.
cystic fibrosis=
genetic disease characterized by abnormal transport of chloride and sodium across epithelium, leading to thick, viscous secretions in the lungs, pancreas, liver, and intestine. affects caucasians, recessive gene
sickle cell=
is an autosomal recessive genetic blood disorder with overdominance, characterized by red blood cells that assume an abnormal, rigid, sickle shape. Affects Blacks, anemia, average life span 40y, 1/5000 chance in U.S. 1/500 Black children
Down's syndrome=
is a chromosomal condition caused by the presence of all or part of an extra 21st chromosome. Risk factor: maternal age
Edward's syndrome=
a genetic disorder caused by the presence of all or part of an extra 18th chromosome. 2nd most common after downs. kidney, heart and intestine problems, overlapping fingers, club foot, etc
Patau syndrome=
a chromosomal abnormality, a syndrome in which a patient has an additional chromosome 13 due to a nondisjunction of chromosomes during meiosis. often survive only days/weeks
Tay Sachs=
an autosomal recessive genetic disorder. In its most common variant, known as infantile Tay–Sachs disease, it causes a relentless deterioration of mental and physical abilities that commences around six months of age and usually results in death by the age of four.It is caused by a genetic defect in a single gene with one defective copy of that gene inherited from each parent. risk factors: ashkenazi descent, non-infantile, death by 41y
What are the risks to the fetus if a non-sensitized mother acquires Rubella antepartum?
for primary infection: deafness, heart defects, cataracts and mental retardation
What is a circumvallate placenta?
membranes double back for a short distance over the fetal surface when the chorionic plate is too small. There may be increased fetal loss with this condition and placental separation. fetal side of the placenta is smaller than the basal plate which is located on the maternal side.also called extrachorial placenta.
What organism is thrush?
candida albicans
What is the main organism that causes a UTI?
bacteria: Ecoli
What organism is a mastitis infection typically caused by?
bacteria: staphylococcus aureus
What typically causes mastitis in breastfeeding women?
caused by blocked milk ducts or milk excess. It is relatively common; estimates range depending on methodology between 5-33%. However only about 0.4-0.5% of breastfeeding mothers develop an abscess.
What are three probable signs of pregnancy?
enlargement of the abdomen
Hegar's signs: softening of uterus and cervix
Chadwicks sign:bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia caused by the hormone estrogen which results in venous congestion
What are five presumptive signs of pregnancy that the mother may feel/see?
1.amenorrhea
2. nausea and vomiting
3. breast changes
4. frequent urination
5. quickening
Normal Hgb=
Normal Hgb at 2500 ft. elevation:
11-13 gr.
higher than normal?
What are tubal/ectopic pregnancy signs/symptoms of rupture? At what weeks gestation do they often occur?
6-10 weeks gestation.
lower abdominal pain (often prior to bleeding)
vaginal bleeding
shoulder pain
Rate of PPV?
30/minute
Breath, 2, 3, Breath, 2, 3
Rate of chest compressions?
3:1 or 90/minute
1 and 2 and 3 and breath
1 and 2 and 3 and breath
Rubella Titer (german measles)
non immunity:
immunity:
has infection:
non immunity:<1:10
immunity: >1:10
has infection: >1:40-64
the absence of IgG rubella antibodies means that the person likely has not been exposed to the rubella virus or been vaccinated and is not protected against it. The presence of IgG antibodies but not IgM antibodies indicates a history of past exposure to the virus or vaccination and indicates that the person tested should be immune to the rubella virus.
lochia rubra:
red: day 2-3/5
lochia serosa:
pink/brown: day 3/5-10
lochia alba:
yellow/white: day 10-14
Miscarriages are clinically diagnosed in __________ % of pregnancies?
10
Sperm survive and remain viable longer in a ______________ enviornment.
alkaline.
What secretes progesterone in the female reproductive system?
corpus luteum (and placenta, later)
What are white spots on the baby's tongue and gums that can easily be removed?
milk residue
What is polycythemia?
increase in RBCs. measured through Hct. may be dehydration, heavy smoking, kidney disease
Vitamin K is believed to prevent:
newborn hemorrhagic disease, now called Vitamin K defiency in the newborn.
What is a ELISA test? What does it typically test for during pregnancy?
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). Typically tests for HIV.
How many days can you expect newborn meconium following birth?
3
Implantation occurs about__________ days after fertilization.
7-9 days.
The heart of the embryo is a distinguishable organ by the________ week.
8th.
Fetal sex organs have differentiated and are developed by the end of the ________ lunar month.
second.
A fetus that weighs 300gr, measures 18cm, and can suck and swallow amniotic fluid is approximately _________ weeks.
20 weeks.
Through what weeks are the embryonic stage?
2-8 weeks.
Chadwicks sign=
bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia caused by the hormone estrogen which results in venous congestion.
Hegar's sign=
It pertains to the features of the cervix and the uterine isthmus. It is demonstrated as softening of the uterine consistency and the possibility to palpate or compress the connection between the cervix and the fundus. The sign is usually present from 4 to 6th week till 12 weeks of pregnancy. It is more difficult to recognize in multiparous women.
Goodell's sign=
is an indication of pregnancy. It is a significant softening of the vaginal portion of the cervix.
When is the fetus most susceptable to teratogens?
2-12 weeks
The fetal heart begins beating at ______ week.
4 weeks.
The Brewer's diet recommends _______ gr. of protein/day
80-100
S.G.A.=
Small for Gestational Age
poor fetal growth, potentially visual and hearing defects and mental retardation. suspect IUGR
Days of typical human gestation:
From LMP:
From conception:
280 from LMP
266 from conception

Mittendorf's study says: 288 days from LMP for primips and 283 days from LMP for multips
Metrorrhagia=
profuse bleeding from the uterus between periods
position=
relation of the presenting part to the 6 areas of the pelvic brim.
attitude=
the relationship of the fetal head to the trunk
What is the L/S ratio?
lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio. The lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio is a test of fetal amniotic fluid to assess for fetal lung immaturity. Lungs require surfactant, a soap-like substance, to lower the surface pressure of the alveoli in the lungs. This is especially important for premature babies trying to expand their lungs after birth. Surfactant is a mixture of lipids, proteins, and glycoproteins, lecithin and sphingomyelin being two of them.
What L/S ratio indicates a low risk of RDS?
An L/S ratio of 2 or more indicates a relatively low risk of infant respiratory distress syndrome
What L/S ratio indicates a high risk of RDS?
L/S ratio of less than 1.5 is associated with a high risk of infant respiratory distress syndrome. the concentration of lecithin in the amniotic fluid is <1.5 that of sphingomyelin
During the first 10-12 weeks of pregnancy the corpus luteum:
secretes progesterone to maintain the pregnancy until the placenta takes over.
Constipation is usually the result of:
prolonged stomach emptying time and decreased intestinal mobility
Eutocia=
normal labor
1st degree laceration =
perineal skin
what is the curve of carus?
sacrum, coccyx, pubic bones
Irregular contractions with no dilation may be a sign of:
latent labor
What is the apgar score of 0, 1 & 2 for respirations?
0=no breath
1=irregular breath/difficulty
2=crying
What is the apgar score of 0, 1 & 2 for grimace?
0=no grimace
1=facial grimace
2=sneeze pull away
You can sterilize instruments by__________
baking, boiling, pressure cooking, autoclave
The placenta weighs approximately __________ the weight of the baby.
1/5th
Velamentous cord insertion=
the umbilical cord inserts into the fetal membranes (choriamniotic membranes), then travels within the membranes to the placenta (between the amnion and the chorion). The exposed vessels are not protected by Wharton's jelly and hence are vulnerable to rupture.
succenturiate placenta =
an accessory (succenturiate) placental lobe to the main disk of the placenta.
A battledore placenta=
A battledore placenta is a placenta in which the umbilical cord is attached at the border/edge of the placenta and so resembles a battledore racket (raquet) which is a precursor to badminton.

When the umbilical cord placental end looks like it is connected to the edge of the placenta it is called a marginal or 'Battledore insertion'.
marginal insertion=
insertion point occurs at the very edge of the placenta
placenta triplex=
Synonym for placenta tripartita ... A placenta consisting of three parts almost entirely separate, being joined together only by the blood vessels of the umbilical cord;
What are the s/s of RDS?
Insuction/retraction and grunting
Vasa previa=
fetal vessels crossing or running in close proximity to the inner cervical os. These vessels course within the membranes (unsupported by the umbilical cord or placental tissue) and are at risk of rupture when the supporting membranes rupture
What are three clinical signs of maternal exhaustion:
tachycardia/elevated pulse
tachypnea
fever/elevated temperature
Hemorrhage is defined as blood loss that exceeds________cc/ml
500
Polyhydramnios is associated with____________.
Urinary problems
IUGR
Gestational Diabetes
Sock s/s and response:
increased pulse, increased respirations, increased then decreased BP

02, IV, Blanket, nothing by mouth
An essential hormone responsible for reproduction is:
estrogen
At _______ weeks the fetus has a full set of fingerprints
15
In newborns, an early sign of sepsis is:
hypothermia
What is the name of the temporary opening between the atria in the fetal heart which allows blood to pass (air does not pass through lungs)
foramen ovale
Disease that passes from parent to offspring across the placenta is transmitted by a:
vertical spread
The uterine muscles ________ & ______ to dilate the cervix
Retract and contract
Trophoblast=
the outer layer of the blastocyst that becomes the placenta
Name the stages of development to the embryonic stage:
ZiMBabwE
Zygote
Morula
Blastocyst
Embryo
Tachycardia in the fetus may indicate:
fetal infection
What does GTPALM stand for?
Gravida
Term
Pre-term
Abortions
Live
Multiples
Transmission of potential hereditary characteristics is the function of:
genes
How many chromosomes in the human cell?
46 (23&23)
The fetus receives oxygenated blood through the
umbilical vein
What are 3 positive signs of pregnancy?
U/S, FHT, fetal movement felt by examiner
Physiological jaundice is thought to be caused by:
rapid destruction of RBCs
A shrill, high pitched cry in a newborn may mean:
increased intracranial pressure (hydrocephalus)
Megaloblastic anemia=
is an anemia (of macrocytic classification) that results from inhibition of DNA synthesis in red blood cell production.[1] When DNA synthesis is impaired, the cell cycle cannot progress from the G2 growth stage to the mitosis (M) stage. This leads to continuing cell growth without division, which presents as macrocytosis.
What is megaloblastic anemia typically caused by? What condition is it associated with?
Folic acid deficiency and/or vit. B-12 malabsorption.

Neural tube defects
Pica=
cravings to eat non-food substances such as ice, clay, dirt, starch or plaster.
The three phases of a uterine contraction are:
increment
acme (peak)
decrement
When is an ultrasound most accurate?
8-10 weeks
MsAFP3 or Triple Screen gives this information:
Blood serum levels of MsAFP, hCG, estriol

It screens for neural tube defects, trisomies and other abnormalities
What is the risk of miscarriage with an amniocentesis:
.5-1%
When is an amnio typically done?
15-20 weeks (but as early as 12)
What does the BPP include?
1. Non stress test
2. fetal movements
3. fetal breathing movements
4. fetal tones
5. AFI
6. Placental grading
Testing for Rh-negative antibodies determines:
if sensitization has occurred. potential for increased risk to the fetus.
Which blood type can receive any type of blood and why?
AB is the universal recipient

O is the universal doner
What is HgB?
is the iron-containing oxygen-transport metalloprotein in the red blood cellsHemoglobin in the blood carries oxygen from the respiratory organs (lungs) to the rest of the body (i.e., the tissues) where it releases the oxygen to burn nutrients to provide energy to power the functions of the organism, and collects the resultant carbon dioxide to bring it back to the respiratory organs to be dispensed from the organism.
Hct is=
packed cell volume (PCV) or erythrocyte volume fraction (EVF) is the percentage (%) of the concentration of red blood cells in blood. It is normally about 45% for men and 40% for women.
What is a normal pulse, temperature and respirations in an adult?
60-80bpm, 98.6F, 15-20pm
What are s/s of hyperactive labor?
contractions q 2m lasting 90s, rapid progressive cervical dilation, discomfort that seems out of proportion to ctx
What labor pattern can you expect from a primip with a diagonal conjugate of 10cm?
prolonged labor with failure of head to engage. a measurement of 10.5 is considered adequate
What is a normal breathing pattern for a full term neonate?
The abdomen is synchronous with the chest movements
The average heartrate for a full term, quite and awake newborn is:
120-140: davis says 110-150
The neonate can contract syphilis from mom during:
following 16 weeks of pregnancy
sings of hypoglycemia in a newborn include:
jitterniness Bluish-colored skin (cyanosis)
Breathing problems
Decreased muscle tone (hypotonia)
Grunting
Irritability
Listlessness
Nausea, vomiting
Pale skin
Pauses in breathing (apnea)
Poor feeding
Rapid breathing
Problems with maintaining body heat
Shakiness
Sweating
Tremors
Seizures
What are the 4 pelvic joints
symphysis pubic join
sacrococcygeal joint
2 sacroiliac joints
What is erythroblastosis fetalis (hydrops fetalis)?
Hemolytic disease of the newborn,
Hemolysis leads to elevated --------------levels
bilirubin
A male child receives a _____chromosome from the mother and a ________ chromosome from the fater.
x from mother and y from father
Fertilization occurs normally in:
the fallopian tubes
What are s/s of hemolytic disease of the newborn?
jaundice in the first 24 hours, enlarged liver
lysis=
breaking down of a cell
Which STI affects the central nervous system?
syphilis
cervical cap=
suctions to the cervix
The chorion is a thick membrane that develops from__________
tropholblasts
at term the placenta is _____ of the baby's weight and has ______ cotyledons
1/5-1/6
15-20
Leopolds steps
1.1 First maneuver: Fundal Grip
1.2 Second maneuver: Umbilical Grip
1.3 Third maneuver: Pawlick's Grip
1.4 Fourth maneuver: Pelvic Grip
marked tachycardia=
marked bradycardia=
180
100
s/s of pre-eclampsia and eclampsia
elevated bp, proteinuria, edema, iligohydramnios, kidney function,

severe pre-eclampsia= risk of placental abruption

eclampsia=seizures
At 37 weeks a fetus is:
depositing layers of subcutaneous fat
What is the primary cause of uterine enlargement during pregnancy?
hypertrophy of pre-existing myometrial cells.
anterior cervix=
retroverted uterus
which hormone controls the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle?
estrogen
DES=
Diethylstilbestrol From about 1940 to 1970, DES was given to pregnant women in the mistaken belief it would reduce the risk of pregnancy complications and losses. In 1971, DES was shown to cause a rare vaginal tumor in girls and women who had been exposed to this drug in utero.
What are the risks to pregnant mothers exposed to DES in utero?
vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma; structural anomalies of the uterus; poor pregnancy outcomes
Diagonal conjugate=
a measurement of the distance from the inferior border of the symphysis pubis to the sacral promontory. The measurement, averages around 12.5 to 13.0 cm in adult women.
Obstetrical conjugate=
The line between the narrowest bony points formed by the sacral promontory and the inner pubic arch is termed obstetrical conjugate: It should be 10.5 cm or more. This anteroposterior line at the inlet is 1.5-2 cm less than the diagonal conjugate (distance from undersurface of pubic arch to sacral promontory).
Interspinous measurement=
The distance between the ischial tuberosities (normally > 10.5 cm)
vitamin K is administered during the newborn neonatal period because:
to help prevent vitamin K. deficiency syndrome. newborns lack intestinal bacteria with which to synthesize vitamin k.
Why are the newborns hands and feet blue?
acrocyanosis
Suction the ________ then the ________
mouth then nose
Why may a postpartum woman's bowels be sluggish?
progesterone, decreased abdominal muscle
What is one presumptive sign of pregnancy?
amenorrhea
Naegele's Rule=
The rule estimates the expected date of delivery (EDD) by adding one year, subtracting three months, and adding seven days to the first day of a woman's last menstrual period (LMP). The result is approximately 280 days (40 weeks) from the LMP.
Nicole's Rule=
Now called Wood's Method:
1. add 1 year to the first day of the LMP then:
for primip= subtract 2 months, 2 weeks
for multips=subtract 2 months, and 2.5 weeks (18 days)
2. add or subtract the number of days her cycle varies from 28 days
Another name for chronic hypertension=
essential hypertension- preexisting condition
anatomy=
study of the structure and shape of the body and their relationship to one another
physiology=
study of how the body and its parts work and function
Blood volume increases by:
20-40%- frye says 50-60%; 30-50% in varneys
Name two hormones that the placenta produces:
estrogen and progesterone
name one essential male hormone responsible for reproduction=
testosterone
After ovulation, menstruation takes place as the result of:
degeneration of the corpus luteum
vuvla=
the external structures from the symphysis pubis to the perineum
Which hormones stimulates and maintains milk production after childbirth?
prolactin
the primary function of hCG is:
maintain the corpus luteum during the first trimester
Development of the secondary sex characteristics in males is stimulated by:
testosterone
childbirth is also called:
parturition
menarche=
first menstrual period
After fertilization the produce of conception is_________ then_________.
zygote, morula, blastocyst, implant (10-14 days) embryo
embryonic stage=
2-8 weeks from fertilization
function of the placenta is to:
provide nutrients/ remove waste, provide barrier to infection
when is the embryo most suceptable to teratogens?
2-12 weeks from conception, 4-12 weeks from lmp
the heart begins beating in the embryo (from conception)
21-22 days from conception, 35 days from LMP
chorion
s one of the membranes that exist during pregnancy between the developing fetus and mother. It is formed by extraembryonic mesoderm and the two layers of trophoblast and surrounds the embryo and other membranes. The chorionic villi emerge from the chorion, invade the endometrium, and allow transfer of nutrients from maternal blood to fetal blood. (outer membrane)
amnion
a membrane building the amniotic sac that surrounds and protects an embryo.
how many arteries and veins in the umbilical cord?
2 arteries=supply deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta
1 vein=carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the growing fetus
A A
V birdie
From LMP the average human gestation=
from conception=
280 from lmp
266 from conception

288 days from lmp for primips
283 days from lmp for multip
fetus grows arm and leg buds at:
4 weeks from lmp
describe the fetal scull:
anterior fontanel=diamond
posterior fontanel=triangle
sagittal suture=ant-post, division b/wpartietal bones
biparietal diameter=largest transverse diameter of the head
bitemporal diameter=greatest distance between 2 temporal sutures
you can hear the fetal heart tones with a doppler at:
10-12 weeks
leukorrhea=
a profuse think or thick vaginal secretion begins in the first trimesterLeukorrhea may occur normally during pregnancy. This is caused by increased bloodflow to the vagina due to increased estrogen. Female infants may have leukorrhea for a short time after birth due to their in-uterine exposure to estrogen.
to relieve leg cramps=
-extend leg and dorsiflex foot
-elevate and support legs
-increase ca, phosphorus/or mag
chloasma
pigmentary changes from pregnancy
gravida=
times pregnant
parity=
any live births after 21-24 weeks
excessive use of antibiotics may result in vaginal infection with:
yeast (candida albicans)
1st trimester=
2nd trimester=
3rd trimester=
1st trimester= 1-12 weeks
2nd trimester= 13-27 weeks
3rd trimester= 28-40+ weeks
Innominate bone in the pelvis is comprised of the:
(hip bone) =ischium, illium and pubis
occiput=
military=
brow=
face=
occiput
straight ahead
sniffing position
full extension of neck
Presentation=
refers to which anatomical part of the fetus is leading, that is, is closest to the pelvic inlet of the birth canal. According to the leading part, this is identified as a cephalic, breech, or shoulder presentation.
Cephalic presentations=
vertex (crown) — the commonest and associated with the fewest complications
sinciput (forehead)
brow (eyebrows)
face
chin
Breech presentations=
complete breech
footling breech
frank breech
kneeling
Shoulder presentations=
arm
shoulder
trunk
Station=
some sources say -5 tp +5 others -4 to +4
At +3 and +4 the presenting part is at the perineum and can be seen.
Lithotomy=
flat on back, legs in stirrups
FHT that stays the same with no variations is considered=
absent/silent variations, flat
episiotomy=
midline repairs easier, more comfortable, heals faster than medio-lateral
preterm labor starts prior to-
37 weeks
hemorrhage with blood loss exceeds=
500 cc (though frye says this is too little) approx 2 cups
types of shock midwives encounter=
hemorrhagic, hypovolemic, septic
If in shock=
911
do not give water (stomach shuts down? will be thirsty)
legs up, head down on left side
cover with blanket
IV
Hegars sign=
softening of the lower uterine segment, isthmus uterus, junction of the cervix and uterus
chadwicks sign=
blue, red, purple cervix, vulva, rugae
goodell's sign=
softening of the cervix
delivering in a face presentation must come out________ and turn/rotate to a_________
posterior
mentum anterior position
when delivering a breech you should:
-rotate anterior if turning posterior
-pull loop of cord (debated)
-wrap a towel around baby and gentle support body (....)
After a shoulder dystocia be prepared for:
hemorrhage, full resuscitation, maternal sepsis (hand inside- watch for fever)
Normal changes in pp recovery:
100 F in first 24 hours
uterus goes down 1fb a day
diastasis recti is common in multips, may be perminent
common to lose 9-15lbs immediately
common pp discomforts:
constipation, mainly due to dehydration
excessive perspiration due to hormonal changes
hemorrhoids (fiber, fluids, witchhazel, soaks, rest)
dispareunia-
from Greek meaning "badly mated" painful sex
mature milk usually comes in at ____ days pp
2 days
In the pp period, if the mother presents with a fever, ask her:
Did her milk come in?
Are her breasts sore?
Is her uterus/abdomen tender?
Does her lochia smell normal?
Are there s/s of a UTI?
PP blues last=
up to 2 weeks
A temperature rise may occur up to 24 hours pp due to:
dehydration or exertion associated with labor, infection
puerperal morbidity=
pp illness related to the pregnancy
a nosocomial infection is caused by:
the care provider or enviornment provided by the care provider
endometritis is caused by:
bacterial or viral contamination of the repro tract. Symptoms include lower abdominal pain, fever and abnormal vaginal bleeding or discharge. Caesarean section, prolonged rupture of membranes and long labor with multiple vaginal examinations are important risk factors. chronic caused by STI,tuberculous
List 7 cardinal movements:
descends, engages, flexes, internal rotation, extension, restitution, external rotation
head usually enters the inlet in ________ or _________ position because the pelvic inlet is widest from side to side.
occiput transverse or oblique
distinguish between stress and urge incontinence
stress= sneeze, running
urge= have to go all the time
late pp hemorrhage can occur up to:
6 weeks
endometritis may present as=
tachycardia
uterine tenderness
subinvolution
increased wbc
s/s of mastitis=
Breast tenderness or warmth to the touch
General malaise or feeling ill
Swelling of the breast
Pain or a burning sensation continuously or while breast-feeding
Skin redness, often in a wedge-shaped pattern
Fever of 101 F (38.3 C) or greater [4]
The affected breast can then start to appear lumpy and red.

Some women may also experience flu-like symptoms such as:

Aches
Shivering and chills
Feeling anxious or stressed
Fatigue
Breast engorgement [5]
peritonitis=
Peritonitis is an inflammation of the peritoneum, the serous membrane that lines part of the abdominal cavity and viscera.
s/s of peritonitis=
acute abdominal pain, abdominal tenderness, and abdominal guarding, which are exacerbated by moving the peritoneum, e.g., coughing (forced cough may be used as a test), flexing one's hips, or eliciting the Blumberg sign (a.k.a. rebound tenderness, meaning that pressing a hand on the abdomen elicits less pain than releasing the hand abruptly, which will aggravate the pain, as the peritoneum snaps back into place). Diffuse abdominal rigidity ("washboard abdomen") is often present, especially in generalized peritonitis
Fever
Sinus tachycardia
Development of ileus paralyticus (i.e., intestinal paralysis), which also causes nausea, vomiting and bloating.
thrombophlebitis treatment includes:
bed rest, hot packs, compression stockings
What does RhoGam do to prevent sensitization?
The antibodies in the artificial anti-D will “fight off” any rhesus positive cells from the baby and prevent the woman from producing her own anti-D. The medicine is a solution of IgG anti-D (anti-RhD) antibodies that bind to, and lead to the destruction of, fetal Rh D positive red blood cells that have passed from the fetal circulation to the maternal circulation.
The normal weight gain of a newborn is _________/day or _______/week.
1/2-1 oz/day
6-12 oz/week
another word for nosocomial is=
iatragenic
at six months the baby's weight is_____________
doubled
Your neonate has a pulse of 100+. What is the appropriate apgar score for him?
2
newborn respiration rate=
30-60
stump falls off between=
4-10days
1st period of reactivity is:
2nd stage=
3rd=
1st stage: reactivity for first 30m after birth
2nd stage: 30-2hours, decreased period of responsiveness
3rd stage: 2-8 hours- second period of reactivity
neuromuscular test refers to=
neurological maturity
ballard score=
Ballard Score, or Ballard Scale is a commonly used technique of gestational age assessment. It assigns a score to various criteria, the sum of all of which is then extrapolated to the gestational age of the baby. These criteria are divided into Physical and Neurological criteria. This scoring allows for the estimation of age in the range of 26 weeks-44 weeks. The New Ballard Score is an extension of the above to include extremely pre-term babies i.e. up to 20 weeks.
a cbc with differential=
CBC with white blood count and type
lie=
longitudinal, transverse, oblique
attitude=
relation of head to its trunk, flexed, military, brow, face
presentation=
part that lies at the pelvic brim= cephalic, breech
denominator (variety)=
mentum, occiput, sacrum, brow, acromian
denominator
the fetal part used to determine the position (occiput, sacrum, acromion process)
phimosis=
fully retracted foreskin
subinvolution
not going down (as in uterus) cause of retained placenta fragments
cervix of multip on the verge of true labor
little or no effacement with 1-2 cm or more of dilation
responsible fore closure of the ductus arteriosus is:
increase in oxygen levels in the blood
hypoxemia=
decreased oxygen levels in the blood
emia=
blood cells
malnourishment leads to irreversible damage for child, especially during
the last few months of pregnancy and first few months of life- brain cells grow rapidly
every midwife should have and provide to her clients:
1. code of ethics
2. definition of midwifery practice
3. standards for the practice of midwifery
4. a philosophy of care
chest compression rate/minute
90/minute
PPV rate=
breath, 2 and 3, breath, 2 and 3
an normal infant should void ______ x in a 24 hour period
6
impending fetal demise is seen with:
a flat baselin, a wandering baseline, a sinusoidal baseline
macrocytic anemia:
large red blood cells, b-12/folic acid defeciency
microcytic anemia:
small blood cell, iron deficiency
normocytic anemia=
caused from blood loss?
HSV s/s
painful itchy bumps "vesicles", fever, malaise, inguinal lymph swelling
What rubella titer indicates immunity? non immunity?
immunity= >1:8
non-immune=<1:8
primary infection: 4-fold increase in antibody levels
syphilis s/s
depends on if it is a primary, secondary, latent or tertiary outbreak, but skin lesion, called a chancre,sometimes painful, sometimes not, rash, may include fever, sore throat, malaise, weight loss, hair loss, and headache, lymph node enlargment
fetal iron stores in the breastfed baby last _____ months following birth
4-6
piskacek's sign=
asymmetric enlargement of the body of the pregnant uterus as a result of its enlargement in the cornual region, usually over the site of implantation.
newborn's regain their birth weight at:
10 days
endometrium after birth is regenerated at:
6 weeks
hemorrhoids caused by: ______ and ______
progesterone (relaxes veins) and enlarging uterus
hypertension see a risk in blood pressure of:
30/15

140/90 mild
the placenta secretes the following hormones:
progesterone, estrogen, HCG, HPL (human placenta lactogen)
Human placental lactogen (HPL)=
also called human chorionic somatomammotropin, is a polypeptide placental hormone. Its structure and function is similar to that of human growth hormone. It modifies the metabolic state of the mother during pregnancy to facilitate the energy supply of the fetus. HPL has anti-insulin properties.
maternal vital that remains elevated in the immediate pp
temperature
what are the most ominous heart tones besides (flat)
late decelerations with loss of short term fetal variability
AFP=
increased in open neural tube defects and omphalocele & decreased in Down syndrome. Typically, MSAFP is measured in the beginning of the second trimester (14–16 weeks)
the smallest pelvic diameter to which the fetus has to accomodate itself is:
interspinous diameter
largest diameter of the fetal head=
occipitomental
widest point when head enters pelvic inlet=
biparietal
to detect abnormal or periodic fetal heart rate changes or patterns when using a fetascope:
5 second increments and a 5 second break between the period of counting during a ctx
anterior fontannel closes at:
12-18 months (about when baby starts talking)
posterior fontannel closes at:
3-6 months pp
what triggers milk ejection?
sucking
normal glucose levels for mom=
for baby=
80-120, 80-100 fasting
40+
military presentation is also called
sinciput (latin for forehead)
pain with movements of the cervix think.....
ectopic pregnancy
chest circumference=
30-36 cm (11-14 inches)
most likely to suffer from mastitis:
breastfeeding moms at more than a week pp
1st degree tear involves=
involving only the skin around the vaginal opening.
2nd degree tear involves=
involve vaginal tissue (vaginal mucosa) and the perineal muscles
3rd degree tear involves=
involve vaginal mucosa, posterior fourchette, perineal skin and muscles, and external anal sphincter
4th degree tear involves=
involve the perineal muscles and anal sphincter as well as the tissue lining the rectum.
most common cause of uterine rupture=
separation of previous cesarean scar with pitocin hyperstimulation
90 min after birth normal to see_________ in a newborn
sleep, murmur, bowel sounds, heart rate of 108
marked bradycardia cutoff
bellow 100
fertile cervical mucus is ________ and the peak day is________
clear, slippery, stretchy
peak day=last day of this kind of mucus
maternal cardiac output is highest_________
immediately pp
polyhydramnios causes and s/s
causes= multiple gestation, diabetes, urinary probs
s/s=difficulty palpating and heart fht, edema, confirm with u/s
chloasma occus with___________ and most often in_________
pregnancy, oral contraception
brunettes and dark skin
bartholins cysts=
formed when a Bartholin's gland is blocked, causing a fluid-filled cyst to develop; glands = two glands located slightly posterior and to the left and right of the opening of the vagina. They secrete mucus to lubricate the vagina
formed when a Bartholin's gland is blocked, causing a fluid-filled cyst to develop
HIV most likely transmitted:
during labor and delivery
ecchymosis=
bruising
complications of HPV (warts) in pregnancy=
increase in the number and size of warts
excessive bleeding during delivery if tearing or cutting extends to affected area
intrapartum laryngeal infection of the baby
gastroschisis=
at risk for=
defect in the anterior abdominal wall through which the abdominal contents freely protrude (organs on outside)
dehydration, hypothermia
at 12 weeks the uterus is:
at 16:
at 20:
12=just above pubic bone
16=halfway btw pubic bone and umbillicus
20=umbilicus
bishop pelvic score
highest score=
induce at=
The Bishop score grades patients who would be most likely to achieve a successful induction. The duration of labor is inversely correlated with the Bishop score; a score that exceeds 8 describes the patient most likely to achieve a successful vaginal birth. components of vaginal exam= cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, fetal station
highest score=13
5 or less- labor unlikely to start without induction
sex of fetus seen at=
14 weeks
cold stress effects on newborn:
hypoglycemia, pulmonary vasoconstriction, metabolic acidosis
varicella infection can be passed to the newborn :
day 6 BEFORE birth-day 2 following birth, if preg. then baby can get passive immunity before day 6
abruptio placenta s/s
tender, rigid uterus (from blood buildup), elevated maternal pulse, shock, abnormal fht
DIC=
Possible complication of=
s/s of DIC=
Disseminated intravascular coagulation=DIC leads to the formation of small blood clots inside the blood vessels throughout the body.[1] As the small clots consume coagulation proteins and platelets, normal coagulation is disrupted and abnormal bleeding occurs from the skin
causes=abruptio placentae, pre-eclampsia, amniotic fluid embolism
s/s=The affected person is often acutely ill and shocked with widespread haemorrhage (common bleeding sites are mouth, nose and venepuncture sites), extensive bruising, renal failure
this procedure_______ examines amniotic fluid through intact membranes
amnioscopy
vital non expected to change in pregnancy=
blood pressure (this is so not true)
changes include: displaced heart to left, hrate increase 10 beats, increased cardiac volume
combined oral contraceptives prevent pregnancy by inhibiting the production of:
FSH & LH
oral contraceptives can cause bloating/sodium retention from:
increased estrogen
genotype=
the genetic makeup of a cell, an organism, or an individual (i.e. the specific allele makeup of the individual) usually with reference to a specific character under consideration.[1] For instance, the human CFTR gene, which encodes a protein that transports chloride ions across cell membranes, can be dominant (A) as the normal version of the gene, or recessive (a) as a mutated version of the gene. Individuals receiving two recessive alleles will be diagnosed with Cystic fibrosis.
phenotype=
is an organism's observable characteristics or traits. Phenotypes result from the expression of an organism's genes as well as the influence of environmental factors and the interactions between the two.
cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia, and tay-sachs, which can be diagnosed by prenatal genetic studies are examples of:
autosomal recessive disorders
autosome=
a chromosome that is not a sex chromosome, or allosome; that is to say, there is an equal number of copies of the chromosome in males and females.[1] For example, in humans, there are 22 pairs of autosomes. In addition to autosomes, there are sex chromosomes, to be specific: X and Y. So, humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes.
besides restoration of the diploid number of chromosomes what else occurs at fertilization?
start of mitotic cell division and fetal sex determination
ponstel (Mefenamic acid) to relieve primary dysmenorrhea=
a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug used to treat pain, including menstrual pain.Mefenamic acid decreases inflammation (swelling) and uterine contractions by a still unknown mechanism. However it is thought to be related to the inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis. (antiprostaglandin)
the primary function of hCG is to:
maintain the corpus luteum during the first trimester
an __________ pH increases:
vaginal infections
which hormone is responsible for the production of clear, elastic cervical mucus associated with spinnbarkeit and ferning?
estrogen
oocyte=
immature egg
oogenesis=
The formation of an oocyte is called oocytogenesis, which is a part of oogenesis.[1] Oogenesis results in the formation of both primary oocytes before birth, and of secondary oocytes after it as part of ovulation.
oogonia=
a primordial oocyte in a female fetus Oogonia are formed in large numbers by mitosis early in fetal development from primordial germ cells. In humans they start to develop between weeks 4 and 8 and are present in the fetus between weeks 5 and 30. Once the primordial germ cells have arrived in the ovary, they develop into oogonia. Oogonia migrate from the yolk sac to the genital ridge (site of the future ovaries) located on the posterior abdominal wall. Oogonia develop by mitosis. However, some of them become primary oocytes, which begin meiosis which is halted in prophase I. When they have entered Prophase I of meiosis they become primary oocytes; it is important to note that this process is complete before birth, in contrast to spermatogenesis.
the physiologic effects of estrogen include:
increased basal metabolism
placental growth
smooth muscle tissue relaxant
development of acini (mammary) cells in the breasts
If conception fails to occur, menstration takes place about 2 weeks after ovulation as a result of:
degeneration of the corpus luteum (drop in progesterone)
the physiologic effects of estrogen include:
development of secondary sex characteristics, myometrial thickening, maturation of ovarian follicles
testosterone production is stimulated by:
luteinizing hormone
In response to anterior pituitary stimulation, the graafian follicle secretes:
An antral follicle (or Graafian follicle) is an ovarian follicle during a certain latter stage of folliculogenesis. estrogen
developing follicles and the graafian follicle are found in the
cortex of the ovaries
the non-pregnant uterus is lined by the:
endometrium
which principle factor causes vaginal pH to become acidic:
the action of doderlein's bacillus (lactobacillus)
the frenulum and prepuce of the clitoris are formed by the:
labia minora
Frenulum of labia minora=
the fourchette or the posterior commissure of the labia minora) is a frenulum where the labia minora meet posteriorly.The fourchette may be torn during delivery due to the sudden stretching of the vulval orifice, or during intercourse.
the labia minora taper, extending posteriorly to form the:
fourchette
the increased activity of the endometrial glands during the luteal phase of the female reproductive cycle is stimulated by:
(secretatory phase) named from corpus luteum- progesterone
increased levels of Gn-RH stimulate the anterior pituitary to secrete:
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), also known as Luteinizing-hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) and luliberin. responsible for the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary.
the external visible structures of the female reproductive system extending from the symphysis pubis to the perineum
vulva
the almond shaped area enclosed laterally by the labia minora and extending from the clitoris to the fourchette is called
vestibule
when obtaining a pap smear, the midwife removes cells from the squamocolumnar junction called the:
inside of the external os
in which portion of the fallopian tube the site of sterilization?
isthmus
in which portion of the fallopian tubes does fertilization normally occur?
ampulla
the largest portion of the uterus is the:
myometrium
endometrium is called__________ in pregnancy
decidua basalis
which term refers to the upper first portion of the uterus?
corpus uteri (incudes cavity and fundus)
the uterine isthmus is essential during pregnancy in the formation of:
lower uterine segment
the vaginal portion of the cervix that dilates during labor is called the:
eternal os
the vas deferens is a:
also called ductus deferens, part of the male anatomy of many vertebrates; they transport sperm from the epididymis in anticipation of ejaculation.conduit for spermatozoa
the male hormone testosterone which maintains spermatogenesis is synthesized and released by:
The mesonephric duct (also known as Wolffian duct, archinephric duct, Leydig's duct and nephric duct) is a paired organ found in mammals including humans during embryogenesis.In a male, it develops into a system of connected organs between the efferent ducts of the testis and the prostate, namely the epididymis, the vas deferens, and the seminal vesicle. The prostate forms from the urogenital sinus and the efferent ducts form from the mesonephric tubules.

For this it is critical that the ducts are exposed to testosterone during embryogenesis. Testosterone binds to and activates androgen receptor, affecting intracellular signals and modifying the expression of numerous genes..[1]

In the mature male, the function of this system is to store and mature sperm, and provide accessory semen fluid.
CVS can detect which genetic disorders:
tay-sachs, cystic fibrosis, trisomy 21, not neural tube defects
after CVS, no:
sex for two days, spotting normal, no bed rest needed
Most common indication for performing CVS:
maternal age
to diagnose endometriosis do:
laparoscopy and biopsy results
cervical cap=
inserted prior to arousal, leave in up to 48 hours,
contraindications for cervical cap=
abnormal papgiven birth may have scar tissue or irregularly shaped cervixes that interfere with the cap forming a good seal.[26] For some women, available sizes of cervical caps do not provide a correct fit. Also, cavity rim caps are not recommended for women with an anteflexed uterus.
LAM (lactation amennorhea method)
For women who meet the criteria (listed below), LAM is 98% - 99.5% effective during the first six months postpartum.[1]

Breastfeeding must be the infant’s only (or almost only) source of nutrition. Feeding formula, pumping instead of nursing,[2] and feeding solids all reduce the effectiveness of LAM.
The infant must breastfeed at least every four hours during the day and at least every six hours at night.
The infant must be less than six months old.
The mother must not have had a period after 56 days post-partum (when determining fertility, bleeding prior to 56 days post-partum can be ignored).
oral contraceptives- wait ______ months before attempting pregnancy
3
discontinue the pill and call if you have:
severe headaches
contraindications of a diaphragm:
frequent UTIs
proper diaphragm use:
use water soluable jelly, store cool, dry place, check for tears before each use, fefit if gain/lose 15 lbs
contraceptive film dissolves in the vagina and acts as a _______
Insert it ______ minutes before sex
effective up to:
spermacide (chemical barrier)
15-20
2 hours
IUD contraindications:
reexamine after insertion at:
PID, ectopic, AIDS
fist menses
the lower uterine segment forms at about ________ weeks of pregnancy.
28-30
placenta forms from the:
chorionic vili and decidua basalis
partner with pregnancy symptoms=
couvade syndrome
milk supplies to mother:
calcium, riboflavin (B2), and vitamin a
vitamin c foods=
oranges, grapefruit, cabbage, bananas, parsley, brocoli, brussel sprouts, liver, oysters, goat milk
iron foods=
spinach, beef, organs, dried fruit, red meat, lentils, beans, poultry, fish, leaf vegetables, tofu, chickpeas, black-eyed peas, blackstrap molasses,
nosebleeds intermittently caused by:
hyperemia (increase of blood flow) of the nasal mucous membranes
typical feelings about pregnancy:
1st trimester:
2nd:
3rd:
ambivalent
identify baby as separate human
prepare for labor
folic acid
helps to prevent:
vitamin B9,[3] vitamin Bc, The human body needs folate to synthesize DNA, repair DNA, and methylate DNA as well as to act as a cofactor in biological reactions involving folate.[7] It is especially important in aiding rapid cell division and growth, such as in infancy and pregnancy. Children and adults both require folic acid to produce healthy red blood cells and prevent anemia.
prevent= neural tube defects
foods high in folate:
Leafy vegetables such as spinach, asparagus, turnip greens
Legumes such as dried or fresh beans, peas and lentils
Egg yolks.[70]
Baker's yeast
Fortified grain products (pasta, cereal, bread); some breakfast cereals (ready-to-eat and others) are fortified with 25% to 100% of the recommended dietary allowance (RDA) for folic acid
Sunflower seeds
Liver and liver products contain high amounts of folate
Kidney[70]

Moderate amounts:

Certain fruits (orange juice, canned pineapple juice, cantaloupe, honeydew melon, grapefruit juice, banana, raspberry, grapefruit and strawberry) and vegetables (beets, corn, tomato juice, vegetable juice, broccoli, brussels sprouts, romaine lettuce and bok choy),[71] beer.[72]
ibuprofin=
non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug, decreases prostaglandins (which are mediators of pain, inflammation, and fever), thins blood. (stop labor=ibuprofin?)

available under a variety of popular trademarks, including Motrin, Nurofen, Advil, and Nuprin.[7]
preeclamptic s/s in 1st trimester think:
hydatidiform mole
frequent leg cramps: what should you ask mom?
assess intake of diary products (sodium, calcium, magnesium and potassium help prevent cramps)
ask of varicose veins
GTPAL
Gravida=number of total pregnancies
Term= term deliveries
Preterm OR Para=
Abortions= abortions (both surgical abortions and miscarriages)
Living= living children (para)
direct coombs=
indirect coombs=
negative/positive=
direct=cord blood, used to detect these antibodies or complement proteins that are bound to the surface of red blood cells;
indirect=detects antibodies against RBCs
positive = bad, negative indirect = good, rhogam
waddling=which hormone
relaxin
women can feel a quickening around=
18-20 weeks (first)
14-18 weeks (2nd)
funic souffle=
uterine souffle=
funic=is a blowing sound heard in synch with fetal heart sounds, and may originate from the umbilical cord. (FHT)
uterine= a sound made by the blood within the arteries of the gravid uterus.
the bag of waters.....
maintains temperature, cushions, prevents cord entanglement, provides even muscle growth
kegels=which muscle
puboCoccygeus muscle (PC muscle)
MsAFP timeframe
Typically, MSAFP is measured in the beginning of the second trimester (14–16 weeks)
MSAFP above normal can indicate
above normal is seen in multiple gestation, when there is placental abruption, as well as in a number of fetal abnormalities, such as neural tube defects including spina bifida and anencephaly, and abdominal wall defects
PIH and Diabetes may need magnesium sulfate to prevent: by:
to prevent seizures, by decreasing neuromuscular irritability
magnesium sulfate toxity s/s and side effects
respiratory depression, los of deep tendon reflexes (clonus),

flushing/sweating occur
main s/s of PIH indicating eclamptic seizures
epigastric pain, elevated liver enzymes, blurry vision,
when a seizure occurs first:
maintain a patent airway, turn a woman on Lside incase of vomit
what is the chance of developing diabetes later in life with a positive GTT test?
25%-50%
the biophysical profile includes:
The biophysical profile (BPP) has 5 components: 4 ultrasound (US) assessments and a nonstress test (NST). The nonstress test (NST)(CTG) evaluates fetal heart rate and response to fetal movement. The five discrete biophysical variables:

Fetal movement
Fetal tone
Fetal breathing
Amniotic fluid volume
Fetal Heart Rate
NST=
presence of two or more fetal heart rate accelerations within a 20-minute period, with or without fetal movement discernible by the woman.
kickcounts=
10 movements/1 hour
20 movement/2 hours
this hormone is responsible for the increase in cells which produce milk within the breast and stimulate the initial production of milk:
prolactin
this hormone produced by the placenta ensures proper fetal development and stimulates the milk glands in the breast in anticipation of breastfeeding
HpL Human placental lactogen
It modifies the metabolic state of the mother during pregnancy to facilitate the energy supply of the fetus. HPL has anti-insulin properties. HPL is a hormone secreted by the syncytiotrophoblast during pregnancy.
this hormone is found in early pregnancy and is responsible for helping limit the activity of the uterus and soften the cervix in preparation for delivery:
relaxin
this hormone is the only pregnancy hormone released by the posterior pituitary:
oxytocin
birth defects are most likely to occur during this time of fetal development:
2-12 weeks of gestation
at the end of pregnancy, the progesterone levels from the placenta drop off, thereby stimulating the begining of:
labor/uc
production of this hormone diminishes once the placenta is mature enough to take over estrogen and progesterone production:
HcG
this organ continues to produce both progesterone and estrogen for the duration of the pregnancy
placenta
supplements of this hormone are sometimes prescribed as a fertility treatment or to assist in reducing the risk of miscarriage
progesterone
during the pregnancy, these two hormones working in conjunction stimulates the growth of breast tissue and prevents lactation until after the birth
progesterone and estrogen
this hormone plays a very important role in the development of the fetus. W/out it, the lungs, kidneys, liver, adrenal glands and other organs would never be triggered into maturation
estrogen
the levels of this hormone get higher and higher right up to just before the birth, then fall to allow contractions leading to labor
progesterone
this refers to the day the woman becomes pregnant
conception
this hormone is only produced during pregnancy. first by the ovaries, and later by the placenta
HcG
this hormone induces smooth muscle contractions in the uterus and mammary glands
oxytocin
these tissue hormones seem to play a role in getting labor started and may be used in their synthetic form to induce labor in a pregnancy which has gone past 40weeks
prostaglandins
this hormone stops the uterus from making spontaneous movements and stops the uterus from contracting
progesterone
this hormone found in maternal plasma and urine increase dramatically during the first trimester and may contribute to causing nausea and vomiting often associated with pregnancy
hCG
this hormone prevents the release of eggs from the ovaries and stimulates the production of the hormones estrogen and progesterone
hCG
this hormone protects the female fetuses from the effects of androgens in the mother's systems
estrogen
(androgens= substances that have a masculinizing effect)
one role of this hormone during pregnancy is to regulate the production of progesterone over the full term. as this hormone is produced by the placenta, progesterone production is stimulated and regulated
estrogen
predisposed to uti's after birth from:
trauma to the trigone of the bladder
to determine if the mother has femoral thrombophlebitis: (with s/s of pain/edema of R leg)
Homans' sign is a sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). A positive sign is present when there is pain in the calf or popliteal region with examiner's abrupt dorsiflexion of the patient's foot at the ankle while the knee is flexed to 90 degrees.[1][2] This sign is frequently elicited in clinical practice because of the ease of use, although it is falling into disfavor because of poor reliability and because it is frequently positive in individuals without DVT.
kernig's sign
Kernig's sign (after Waldemar Kernig (1840–1917), a Baltic German neurologist) is positive when the leg is bent at the hip and knee at 90 degree angles, and subsequent extension in the knee is painful (leading to resistance).[3] This may indicate subarachnoid haemorrhage or meningitis.[4]
babinski sign:
The lateral side of the sole of the foot is rubbed with a blunt instrument or device so as not to cause pain, discomfort or injury to the skin; the instrument is run from the heel along a curve to the toes, Extensor: the hallux dorsiflexes, and the other toes fan out; this is Babinski's sign- found in healthy infants
heparin for (hx of femoral throbophlebitis)
prevents addtional thrombus formation
thrombophlebitis therapy includes:
maintain bedrest (keep leg still)
monitor pedal pulses
moist heat to area
Brandt Andrew's Maneuver
Placental delivery can be achieved by use of the Brandt-Andrews maneuver, which involves applying firm traction on the umbilical cord with one hand while the other applies suprapubic counterpressure
warfarin:
(also known under the brand names Coumadin, Jantoven, Marevan, Lawarin, Waran, and Warfant) is an anticoagulant. It is most likely to be the drug popularly referred to as a "blood thinner," yet this is a misnomer, since it does not affect the thickness or viscosity of blood. Instead, it acts on the liver to decrease the quantity of a few key proteins in blood that allow blood to clot. most widely used anticoagulant
HIV receives retrovir which:
prevention of viral replication delayed development of AIDS production of increased numbers of CD4 T cells
organism responsible for mastitis:
S. aureus is the most common etiological organism responsible, but S. epidermidis and streptococci are occasionally isolated as well.
thrombophlebitis therapy includes:
maintain bedrest (keep leg still)
monitor pedal pulses
moist heat to area
Brandt Andrew's Maneuver
Placental delivery can be achieved by use of the Brandt-Andrews maneuver, which involves applying firm traction on the umbilical cord with one hand while the other applies suprapubic counterpressure
warfarin:
(also known under the brand names Coumadin, Jantoven, Marevan, Lawarin, Waran, and Warfant) is an anticoagulant. It is most likely to be the drug popularly referred to as a "blood thinner," yet this is a misnomer, since it does not affect the thickness or viscosity of blood. Instead, it acts on the liver to decrease the quantity of a few key proteins in blood that allow blood to clot. most widely used anticoagulant
HIV receives retrovir which:
prevention of viral replication delayed development of AIDS production of increased numbers of CD4 T cells
organism responsible for mastitis:
S. aureus is the most common etiological organism responsible, but S. epidermidis and streptococci are occasionally isolated as well.
to assess baby's spinal nerves elicit the ________ reflex
crossed extension reflex (touch one foot, other knee flexes) stepping on nail, one retracts, other supports weight and goes rigid
chest pain with pink frothy sputum and diaphoresis (sweating) are early signs of:
AFE (amniotic fluid embolism)
magnet reflex:
baby pushes back if you push feet
galant reflex
stroke side of abdomen, turns
a neonate with respiratory distress syndrome- signs typically show up in ______ hours
4
hypoglycemia in neonate s/s
tremor
what results from deposits of bilirubin in the neonates brain, especially in the brain stem and basal ganglia
Kernicterus is damage to the brain centers of infants caused by increased levels of unconjugated bilirubin.The word originates from the German kern, nucleus, kernel, and the Greek ikterus, jaundice
unequal bilateral femoral pulses in a neonate typically indicates:
Coarctation (narrowing) of the aorta
most reliable indicator of neonatal infection:
a change in feeding pattern
when caring for a circumcised neonate:
cover with sterile gauze and petroleum jelly for 24 hours
a neonate with erythroblastosis fetalis. This disease results from:
destruction of red blood cells (Hemolytic disease of the newborn)
ABO incompatibility:

Mom is:
Baby is:
Mom is O
Baby is A or B
For Caucasian populations about one fifth of all pregnancies have ABO incompatibility between the fetus and the mother, but only a tiny minority develop symptomatic ABO HDN[1]. The latter only occurs in mothers of blood group O because they can produce enough IgG antibodies to cause hemolysis.
epstein's pearl's=
Epstein's pearls are small white or yellow cystic vesicles (1 to 3 mm in size) often seen in the median palatal raphe of the mouth of newborn infants (occur in 65-85% of newborns). They are typically seen on the roof of the mouth (palate) and are filled with fluid. They are caused during the development of the palate by entrapped epithelium (fissural cyst).
hemorrhagic areas in the inner aspects of the sclera are:
normal
This is a conjunctival hemorrhage. These may occur at birth and represent broken blood vessels on the surface of the sclera (the white part of the eyeball). These are resorbed and disappear in a few weeks without consequence.
cyanosis of the hands and feet in a newborn is:
normal
hypospadias:
a birth defect of the urethra in the male that involves an abnormally placed urinary meatus (the opening, or male external urethral orifice). Instead of opening at the tip of the glans of the penis, a hypospadic urethra opens anywhere along a line (the urethral groove) running from the tip along the underside (ventral aspect) of the shaft to the junction of the penis and scrotum or perineum
DTP vaccine:
first given at____ months of age.
diphtheria, pertussis (whooping cough) and tetanus. DTaP and Tdap refer to similar combination vaccines in which the pertussis component is acellular.

2 months
milia=
white papules on nose/forehead
LGA=
over 4000gr, 8.8 lbs
SGA=
under 2500 gr, 5.5lbs
ortalani's sign=
is a physical examination for developmental dysplasia of the hip. (hip click) if positive, refer to pediatrician
calcium=
leg cramp prevention, bones, prevents bp increases, blood clotting, nerve transmission,

dairy (milk cheese), spinach,seaweeds such as kelp, wakame and hijiki; nuts and seeds (like almonds and sesame); blackstrap molasses; beans; figs; quinoa; amaranth; collard greens; okra; rutabaga; broccoli; dandelion leaves; kale; and fortified products such as orange juice and soy milk. An overlooked source of calcium is eggshell, which can be ground into a powder and mixed into food or a glass of water
the chest circumference is typically _____ inches smaller than the head
1 inch or 2.5 cm
folic acid=
prevents neural tube defects, heart health
Leafy vegetables such as spinach, asparagus, turnip greens
Legumes such as dried or fresh beans, peas and lentils
Egg yolks.[70]
Baker's yeast
Fortified grain products (pasta, cereal, bread); some breakfast cereals (ready-to-eat and others) are fortified with 25% to 100% of the recommended dietary allowance (RDA) for folic acid
Sunflower seeds
Liver and liver products contain high amounts of folate
Kidney[70]
Iron=
red meat, lentils, beans, poultry, fish, leaf vegetables, tofu, chickpeas, black-eyed peas, blackstrap molasses, fortified bread, and fortified breakfast cereals
Potassium=
controls bp, decreases kidney stones
include parsley, dried apricots, dried milk, chocolate, various nuts (especially almonds and pistachios), potatoes, bamboo shoots, bananas, avocados, soybeans, and bran, although it is also present in sufficient quantities in most fruits, vegetables, meat and fish.[72]
Vitamin A:
good for reproduction, immune function, eyes, fat soluble
found in: liver (beef, pork, chicken, turkey, fish) (6500 μg 722%), including cod liver oil
dandelion greens (5588 IU 112%)[11]
carrot (835 μg 93%)
broccoli leaf (800 μg 89%) – According to USDA database broccoli florets have much less.[12]
sweet potato (709 μg 79%)
butter (684 μg 76%)
kale (681 μg 76%)
spinach (469 μg 52%)
pumpkin (400 μg 41%)
collard greens (333 μg 37%)
Cheddar cheese (265 μg 29%)
cantaloupe melon (169 μg 19%)
egg (140 μg 16%)
phototherapy:
cover baby's eyes (genitals?), turn baby frequently, will poop green stools, urinate green pee
priapsim:
a potentially painful medical condition, in which the erect penis or clitoris[1] does not return to its flaccid state, despite the absence of both physical and psychological stimulation, within four hours
vitamin C:
water soluble, protect cells, increase immune system, antioxidant, prevent bleeding from capillaries: found in:
guava, red pepper, oranges, mangos, strawberry, kale,brocoli
Vitamin D:
(D-deficeincy= rickets)
fat soluble, low d levels can contribute to cancer, and increased depression, provides repro support and PIH, dark skin harder to absorb, can overdose, found in: sun, Fatty fish species, such as:
Catfish, 85 g (3 oz) provides 425 IU (5 IU/g)
Salmon, cooked, 100 g (3.5 oz) provides 360 IU (3.6 IU/g)
Mackerel, cooked, 100 g (3.5 oz), 345 IU (3.45 IU/g)
Sardines, canned in oil, drained, 50 g (1.75 oz), 250 IU (5 IU/g)
Tuna, canned in oil, 100 g (3.5 oz), 235 IU (2.35 IU/g)
Eel, cooked, 100 g (3.5 oz), 200 IU (2.00 IU/g)

A whole egg provides 20 IU if egg weighs 60 g (0.333 IU/g)
Beef liver, cooked, 100 g (3.5 oz), provides 15 IU (0.15 IU/g)
Fish liver oils, such as cod liver oil, 1 Tbs. (15 ml) provides 1360 IU (90.6 IU/ml)
UV-irradiated mushrooms and yeast are the only known vegan significant sources of vitamin D from food sources.[109][110] Exposure of portabella mushrooms to UV provides an increase of vitamin D content in an 100-g portion (grilled) from about 14 IU (0.14 IU/g non-exposed) to about 500 IU (5 IU/g exposed to UV light, milk fortified, cereals fortified
Fat soluble vitamins:
A, D, E, K
Water soluble vitamins:
B, C
Vitamin E:
fat soluble, protects cells, assists in wound healing (cell membranes), found in: vegetable oils, nut and nut oils, avocados
can overdose
Zinc
trace element, Most zinc is in the brain, muscle, bones, kidney, and liver, with the highest concentrations in the prostate and parts of the eye. Semen is particularly rich in zinc, which is a key factor in prostate gland function and reproductive organ growth., increase immune system, nerves, *watch in vegetarians* found in: Oysters, lobster and red meats, especially beef, lamb and liver have some of the highest concentrations of zinc in food, also found in wheat germ, various seeds, sesame, poppy, alfalfa, celery, mustard, beans, nuts, almonds, whole grains, pumpkin seeds, sunflower seeds and blackcurrant.
Vitamin K
fat soluble, blood clotting, bone health, *don't supplement with clotting disorders hx DVT* found in: kale, spinach, collards, chard, mustard greens, brocoli, brussel sprouts, parsley, alfalfa, nettles
platypelloid pelvis:
transverse oval, sacrum flat, sidewalls sl. covergent (\ /), iscial spines wide prominent, pubic arch >90 wide; *tight at inlet, baby doesn't usually engage, 3%rare
Gynecoid pelvis:
round, sacrum- not flat, like a dish, sidewalls straight, ischial spines blunt, pubic arch 2fb w/ space or 90degrees, common
Android pelvis:
heart shaped "heart breakers", sacrum flat, sidewalls covergent (\ /), ischial spines pointy and close, pubic arch <90 very narrow *male pelvis, baby gets down and you can see head but it cannot come out*
Anthropoid pelvis:
anterior posterior oval, sacrum flat, side walls covergent (\ /), ischial spines prominent, pubic arch <90 degrees slightly narrow
*posterior babies, common in women of color*
non breastfeeding women typically resume menstruating in about
8-12 weeks
the pp physical assessment most indicative of a pp infection
foul smelling lochia
Mom has a negative rubella titer: 1:10, mom is vaccinated in the pp period. Is breastfeeding okay? How long should she wait to get pregnant following the vaccination?
yes to bf
3 months following vaccine
breastmilk from a mother 2 weeks pp looks like:
bluish white and thin
ambulation after birth may cause
hypotensive episodes, faint, decreased blood pressure
If the NARM exam says:
always
all
never
the answer is/is not correct
is NOT
B-1:
Thiamin; whole grains; pr0cesses protein/carbs
B-2:
riboflavin, milk grains, metabolism, new RBC
B-3
Niacin, meat fish, chicken, grains, metabolism, good cholesterol
b-5:
Pantothetic acid: chicken beef, tomatoes, oats, organs, fortafied soy produces, fort. grains, nervous system, morning sickness, and carpal tunnel
B-6:
pyridoxal phosphate (PLP), organs, fort. soy products and grains, nervous system, morning sickness, carpul tunel
B-7:
Biotin, liver meats, fruits, amino acids/fat synthesizers
B-12:
Cobalanin, meat fish, poultry, fort. cereal, produces RBC (anemia!)
esophageal atresia
causes the esophagus to end in a blind-ended pouch rather than connecting normally to the stomach; presence of EA is suspected in an infant with excessive salivation (drooling) and in a newborn with drooling that is frequently accompanied by choking, coughing and sneezing. When fed, these infants swallow normally but begin to cough and struggle as the fluid returns through the nose and mouth.
Bilirubin above the level of ______ is a concern. ______ is dangerous.
12
20
cramp in leg during labor a result of:
to relieve it:
pressure on the lumbosacral nerve plexus
extend leg, dorsiflex foot
colostrum contains _______ than mature breast milk.
less fat and more protein
for cardiac pts. do not breastfeed if on:
warfarin therapy like coumadin
breastmilk is produced in the:
alveoli
which hormones stimulates the let-down reflex:
oxytocin
possible amount of blood with placenta seperation:
1 cup 244cc
with high bp, get in this position:
left lateral
supine:
trundelenberg:
lithotomy:
prone:
semi-fowlers:
supine:flat on back
trundelenberg: on back with legs and butt raised
lithotomy: on back with stirrups
prone: face down, straign
semi-fowlers: leaning back, semi bent
tocolytic agent is:
anything used to stop labor
ritodrine for premature labor adverse effects:
maternal palpitations, fetal hypoglycemia, fetal hypoxia
contraindications for using tocolytic agent to manage preterm labor:
active vaginal bleeding, fetal distress, cervical dilation of 4-5 cm
baseline FHR for a normally developing fetus is typically:
120-160 bpm with variability
decel that begins 30 seconds after UC begins and returns to baseline after contraction ends:
late decelerations: placental insuffieniency
early decelerations:
variable decelerations:
mirrors UC, head compression
random: cord compression
diaphoretic:
sweating
to determine if there was a SROM:
ferm test
nitrazine paper
kegels, lying, then rising with ctx
*if leak during UT then asynclitic?*
SROM for several hours:
take temp every 2-4 hours, vitamin c, increase fluids,
place fetascope or doppler over:
the shoulder of the fetus
-3 station is at the level of:
the pelvic inlet
-3 station, LOA, RHR most audible in which quadrant of the abdomen
LLQ
head compression causes:
fetal vagal nerve stimulation (decreased fhr)
what is the most helpful in assessing the adequacy of the Mother's placental perfusion:
the duration of the rest phases between contractions
tingling and numbness in her hands and feet as she is breathing and 8 cms:
these s/s indicate:
hyperventilating, exhale into cupped hands, then re-inhale
respiratory alkalosis: ncreased respiration (hyperventilation) elevates the blood pH (a condition generally called alkalosis) (carbon dioxide makes more acidic)
Mother's nervous, UC start to slow down, MW should:
suggest to mom that she may need more privacy
episiotomy is performed for:
reducing the time the baby is in distress after reaching the perinuem, or shoulder dystocia for more room
HELLP syndrome s/s
Hemolysis
Ellevated liver enzymes
Low platlete counts
preeclampsia but worse
DIC s/s
bleeding out of unlikely orifices
Old mec looks like:
fresh mec looks like:
peanut butter looking mec:
brown/yellow
term mec: black, green/pea soup
dead baby.....
magnesium:
good for heart, muscles, nerve and bones: dark greens, nuts, soy beans, quinoa, halibut
recemmended pharma treatment for yeast infection during pregnancy?
7-day topical azole therapy, no PO,
recommended pharma treatment for bv infection during pregnancy?
metronidazole PO, no clindamycin vaginal cream
recommended pharma treatment for trich infection during pregnancy?
metronidazole PO
recommended pharma treatment for chlamydia infection during pregnancy?
enrythromycin PO, if not tollerated amoxicillin NO doxyclcline or erythromycin estolate, retest 3 weeks after
recommended pharma treatment for gonorrhea infection during pregnancy?
cephalosporin PO, or spectinomycin. ciprofloxacin, ofloxacin, and levofloxacin contraindicated
recommended pharma treatment for PID infection during pregnancy?
hospitalize for parenternal antibiotics, contraindicated ofloxacin, levofloxacin, doxyclcline
recommended pharma treatment for HSV infection during pregnancy?
aciyclovir, famciclovir for suppressive crosses placenta
recommended pharma treatment for HPV infection during pregnancy?
cryotherapy with liquid nitrogen, or trichloroacetic acid. podofilox, imiquimod, and podphyllin contraindicated
recommended pharma treatment for syphilis infection during pregnancy?
benzathine penicillin IM + second IM dose one week later. doxyclcline and tetracylcine contraindicated. penicillin allergic hospitilized and desensitized
hormonal contraceptive suppress the production of:
FSH and LH
Suzie misses one day of COC pills. Instruct her to:
she probably wont' become prego, but use a backup method for the next 7 days. take the forgotten pill as soon as you remember, then the next one at the regular time
Suzie missed two days of COC pills. Instruct her to:
take 2 pills the day you remember, and 2 pills the next day. use back up method for the next 7 days. don't be surprised if you have midcycle spotting
Suzie missed three days of COC pills. Instruct her to:
She is at risk for pregnancy and will likely start bleeding. Use back up for next 7 days. throw away remainder of pill package, start a new package. if you have a sunday start pill type, continue taking an active pill every day in your old package until sunday, then start a new one
Suze missed two pills during the third week of her pill-taking cycle. Instruct her to:
She is at risk for pregnancy and will likely start bleeding. Use back up for next 7 days. throw away remainder of pill package, start a new package. if you have a sunday start pill type, continue taking an active pill every day in your old package until sunday, then start a new one
primary follicles:
At the start of the menstrual cycle, some 12-20 primary follicles begin to develop under the influence of elevated FSH to form secondary follicles. primary follicles developed from primordial follicles in early fetal life
primordial follicles
developed in the ovary at around 10–30 weeks after conception.
primary follicles form from primordial follicles
secondary follicle
also called the dominant follicle By around day 9 of the cycle, only one healthy secondary follicle remains, with the rest having undergone cellular atresia. The remaining follicle is responsible for producing large amounts of oestradiol during the late follicular phase.
tertiary follicle
also called a mature follicle On day 14 of the cycle, an LH surge occurs, which itself is triggered by the positive feedback of oestradiol. This causes the secondary follicle to develop into a tertiary follicle, which then ovulates some 24–36 hours later. An important event in the development of the tertiary follicle occurs when the primary oocyte completes the first meiotic division, resulting in the formation of a polar body and a secondary oocyte. The empty follicle then forms a corpus luteum which later releases progesterone hormone
Oogenesis
Oogonium --(Oocytogenesis)--> Primary Oocyte --(Meiosis I)-->First Polar Body (Discarded afterward) + Secondary oocyte --(Meiosis II)--> Secondary Polar Body (Discarded afterward) + Ovum

the creation of an ovum (egg cell). It is the female form of gametogenesis. The male equivalent is spermatogenesis. It involves the development of the various stages of the immature ovum.Folliculogenesis is a separate sub-process that accompanies and supports all three oogenetic sub-processes.Synchronously with ootidogenesis, the ovarian follicle surrounding the ootid has developed from a primordial follicle to a preovulatory one.
the cervical cap reduces the risk of STIs but does/does not protect against HIV.
does not
primary instructions/characteristics of cervical cap:
insert 30-3 hours before intercourse
insert spermicide in cap, not on rim
no additional spermicide with more sex
check position after each sex
leave cap in for 6-8 hours after se
leave cap in for up to 48 hours
cervical cap associations/complaints/failure rate
cap odor, fewer UTI, no cap with menstruation, failure rate in nulliparous: 9-20%; mulliparous 20-40%
developing and the graafian (antral) follicle are found in the:
cortex of the ovaries
describe the femcap
nonallergenic silicone rubber cervical cap. wide brim that creates a groove between the dome and the brim. brim seals against the vaginal walls and directs semen into grove. fewer UTIs that diaphragm, greater difficulty of inserting and removing
describe Lea's shield:
one size made of silicone rubber, no need to fit, compares well with other barrier methods
the rim of the diaphragm fits:
behind the cervix into the posterior vaginal fornix; anteriorly, against the soft tissues posterior to the pubic bone
a woman should be rechecked for fit with the diaphragm after:
a few weeks after her first sexual experiences; after each pregnancy (regardless of gestational age or abortion); as part of her anual health care exam; if she has lost or gained more than 10lbs (though one study found that this was unnecessary)
describe the characteristics for diaphragm use:
insert prior to arousal, leave in at least 6-8 hours after sex, up to 24 hours, no bowel movement with in, if more than 2 hours between sex or with each sex, more spermicide, can be used while menstruating
by the _____ week LMP the fetal intestines are back inside the abdomen.
12th (called omphalocele when they are out) move out at the 9th week LMP)
flat spring diaphragm:
normal size vagina, strong vaginal support, shallow pubic arch
coil spring diaphragm:
strong vaginal support, average or deep arch pubic, normal or unusul vaginal size
arching spring:
unsual vaginal size, poor vaginal support, women who have at least one vaginal delivery
vaginal foam tablets:
irratation, burning sensation and foaming practice, 6-26% failure rate
vaginal contraceptive film:
cover cervical os at least 15 minutes prior, remains effective 1 hour 6-26%
contraceptive sponge
polyurethane foam that contains 1000mg spermicide for continuous release into vagina. wet with tap water. may be inserted for 24 hours prior to intercourse, left in place at least 6, no more than 30, never reused 6-26% (newer versions boast 99% perfect use)
contraceptive suppositories:
insert at least 15 minute before sex, messy, least effective
in which portion of the fallopian tube does the site of sterilization occur?
ampulla
in which portion of the fallopian tube does sterilization occur?
isthmus
the largest portion of the uterus is the:
myometrium
the vas diferens is a :
condiuit for spermatozoa
the male hormone testosterone, which maintains spermatogenesis, is shythesized and released by:
Leydig's cells
progesterone is the " " hormone
calming
lie=
longitudinal, oblique, transverse
position versus presentation:
position: ROA, RSA, etc presentation: cephalic, breech, ect
the physiologic effects of estrogen do include:
development of secondary sex characteristics, mymetrial thickening, maturation of the ovarian follicles
the physiologic effects of progesterone include:
increased basal metabolism, placental growth, development of acini cells in the breasts
Oogonium
(plural oogonia) may refer to either a primordial oocyte in a female fetus some of them become primary oocytes, which begin meiosis which is halted in prophase I. diploid
primary Oocyte
When they have entered Prophase I of meiosis they become primary oocytes;Primary oocytes are present from week 10 until menopause at ~53 years in human females. diploid
secondary Oocyte
Immediately after meiosis I, the haploid secondary oocyte initiates meiosis II. However, this process is also halted at the metaphase II stage until fertilization, if such should ever occur. When meiosis II has completed, an ootid and another polar body have now been created.
ovum
An ovum (plural ova, from the Latin word ovum meaning egg or egg cell) is a haploid female reproductive cell or gamete.
edometriosis
a gynecological medical condition in which cells from the lining of the uterus (endometrium) appear and flourish outside the uterine cavity, most commonly on the ovaries.Complications of endometriosis include:

Internal scarring
Adhesions[14]
Pelvic cysts
Chocolate cyst of ovaries
Ruptured cyst
Bowel obstruction
which is the most important factor affecting amniocentesis:
needle insertion site
which criteria are used for confirming a diagnosis of endometriosis:
laparoscopy and biopsy
tobacco smokers have _______ estrogens and a ________ luteal phase
Smoking causes decreased estrogens with increased breakthrough bleeding and shortened luteal phases.
effect of smoking on menopause and follicles:
Smokers have an earlier than normal (by about 1.5–3 years) menopause which suggests that there is some toxic effect of smoking on the follicles directly. Chemically, nicotine has been shown to concentrate in cervical mucous and metabolites have been found in follicular fluid and been associated with delayed follicular growth and maturation. Finally, there is some effect on tubal motility because smoking is associated with an increased incidence of ectopic pregnancy as well as an increased spontaneous abortion rate.
amnio performed:
14-16 weeks
CVS performed:
10-12 weeks
edema in some COC women's hands and feet is probably caused by sodium retention resulting from:
an increased estrogen level
calcium foods
milk, cheese, yogurt, corn, tortillas, calcium-set tofu, kale, broccoli
Iron foods
fortified dairy products and cereals, fish liver, oils, egg yolks
Vitamin A foods
liver, dairy products, egg yolks, fish, carrots, carrots, green leafy vegetables, pumpkins, sweat potatoes
Vita D foods:
Fortified diary products, fish liver, oils, egg yolks
Vit. E foods
vegetable oils, unprocessed cereals grains, nuts, fruits, vegetables, meats, wheat germ
Vitamin K foods:
green leafy vegetables, brussel spouts, cabbage, spinach
Vit C foods:
citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, broccoli, brussel sproats, spinach
B6 foods
fortified cereals, whole grain breads, organ meats, meat poultry legumes
B12 foods:
fortified cereals, meat, fish, shellfish, poultry, dairy products
Folic acid foods:
enriche cereals, green leafy vegentables, enriched whole grain bread
Zinc foods
fortified cereals, red meats, certain seafoods
uterine souffle=
maternal heart
funic souffle=
cord tones
AFP increases/decreases in fetal demise?
increases
magnesium sulfate primary:
decreases neuromuscular irritability
respiratory alkaosis
increased respiration (hyperventilation) elevates the blood pH (a condition generally called alkalosis)
Potter's Syndrome
(also known as Potter's syndrome, Potter's sequence or Oligohydramnios sequence) is the atypical physical appearance of a fetus or neonate due to oligohydramnios experienced in the womb.clubbed feet, pulmonary hypoplasia and cranial anomalies related to the oligohydramnios.
Colostrum vs. mature breast milk
colostrum has higher levels of protein and lower levels of fat and carbs than mature
Lack of Moro reflex may indicate:
brachial plexus injuries, fractured clavical, disorders of the motor system
cephalhematoma:
a hemorrhage of blood between the skull and the periosteum of a newborn baby secondary to rupture of blood vessels crossing the periosteum. Because the swelling is subperiosteal its boundaries are limited by the individual bones, in contrast to a chignon.
caput succedaneum
Caput succedaneum presents as a scalp swelling that extends across the midline and over suture lines and is associated with head moulding. Caput succedaneum does not usually cause complications and usually resolves over the first few days.
organism typically responsible for mastitis
S. aureus
mastitis symptoms:
Breast tenderness or warmth to the touch
General malaise or feeling ill
Swelling of the breast
Pain or a burning sensation continuously or while breast-feeding
Skin redness, often in a wedge-shaped pattern
Fever of 101 F (38.3 C) or greater [4]
The affected breast can then start to appear lumpy and red.

Some women may also experience flu-like symptoms such as:

Aches
Shivering and chills
Feeling anxious or stressed
Fatigue [5]
Ortolani's sign:
physical examination for developmental dysplasia of the hipA positive sign is a distinctive 'clunk' which can be heard and felt as the femoral head relocates anteriorly into the acetabulum:
Kernicterus:
chronic bilirubin encephalopathy is damage to the brain centers of infants caused by increased levels of unconjugated bilirubin.
Hydrops fetalis
condition in the fetus characterized by an accumulation of fluid, or edema, in at least two fetal compartments.
likely cause of hyrdrops fetalis
Hydrops fetalis usually stems from fetal anemia, when the heart needs to pump a much greater volume of blood to deliver the same amount of oxygen. This anemia can have either an immune or non-immune cause. Non-immune hydrops can also be unrelated to anemia, for example if a tumor or congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation increases the demand for blood flow. The increased demand for cardiac output leads to heart failure, and corresponding edema.
Athetosis
symptom characterized by involuntary convoluted, writhing movements of the fingers, arms, legs, and neck.This symptom does not occur alone and is often accompanied by the symptoms of cerebral palsy, as it is often a result of this disease.
Esophageal atresia
It causes the esophagus to end in a blind-ended pouch rather than connecting normally to the stomach
VACTERL syndrome
Vertebral column, Anorectal, Cardiac, Tracheal, Esophageal, Renal, and Limbs. It is associated with polyhydramnios in the third trimester.
symptoms of esophageal atresia
drool excessively. Although the infant may swallow normally, a rattling sound may be heard in the chest along with coughing and choking , especially when the infant tries to nurse. Some infants, depending on the severity of the defect, may appear blue (cyanosis), a sign of insufficient oxygen in the circulatory system. The infant' s abdomen may be swollen and firm (distended) because the abnormal trachea allows air to build up in the stomach, filling the abdominal space that holds the surrounding organs.
Homans' sign
sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). A positive sign is present when there is pain in the calf or popliteal region with examiner's abrupt dorsiflexion of the patient's foot at the ankle while the knee is flexed to 90 degrees
Avoid ______ consumption when taking Iron supplements
calcium
Take _________ with Iron supplementation.
vitamin c
Folic acid foods
enriched cereals, green leafy vegetables, enriched whole grain bread, fortified foods, liver, meat, orange juice, asparagus, navy beans, brewer's yeast
calcium foods
cheese, sardines, yogurt, collard greens, milk, blackstrap molasses, spincach, tofu (with calcium)
Bishop's Score
Dilation (Dilate)
Effacement (Every)
Station (Single)
Cervix (Cervix)
Postion (Please)
BPP
HR (Hot)
Breathing (Babies)
AVF (Act)
Movement (Move)
Extention & Flexion (Ex & Flex)
chlamydia s/s closely resemble what other STI:
gonorrhea
normal weight gain in a newborn
one ounce per day/ 4-6 ounces per week
SIMS position
lie on their left side, left hip and lower extremity straight, and right hip and knee bent.
a presumptive sign of pregnancy:
Signs that the mother experiences (nausea, vomiting, amenorhea, frequent urination, breast tenderness)
a probable sign of pregnancy:
any sign that the practitioner can identify (goodalls, hegars, chadwicks, pikaskis, enlarged abdomen)
a positive sign of pregnancy
any sign that can be directly related to the fetus (doppler FHT, ultrasound, or movement of the fetus felt by midwife)
the vegan mother should be sure to get adequate intake of:
B-12 (found in fortified soy products, fresh juice) sublingual vitamins (cyanocobalamin or hydroxocobalamin)
aproximate risk of down's syndrome at 35, 40 and 45 years
35=1/250 or .4%
40= 1/75 1.3%
45= 1/20 5%
Which women are most likely to suffer from mastitis?
a breast feeding woman more than a week pp (as opposed to less than a week or a non bf woman)
Normocytic anemia
anemia caused by blood loss
Normal MCV in pregnancy
>90 um (fL)
Normal MCH
>32 pg
Microcytic-hypochromic anemia:
Low MCV and MCHC= Iron deficiency, thalassemias, sideroblastic
What is thalassemia and who is at risk for it?
reduced rate of synthesis or no synthesis of one of the globin chains that make up hemoglobin. This can cause the formation of abnormal hemoglobin molecules, thus causing anemia, the characteristic presenting symptom of the thalassemias.

Mediterranean peoples,West Asia and North Africa, South Asians
Macrocytic-megaloblastic anemia:
large-abnormal RBCs, B12 deficiency, folate deficiency, chemotherapy; Increased MCV
Oral contraception can be started __________ after a first or second trimester abortion.
immediately
COC can be started in the ________ week for women who are not breastfeeding.
third
marked bradycardia=
bradycardia
tachycardia
marked tachycardia
100
120
160
180
At which point in pregnancy/postpartum is cardiac output the highest
immediately pp (biggest dose of oxytocin)
If engagement occurs in the LOP position and birth occurs in the OP postion, external rotation will bring the fetal head into which of the pelvic positions
LOT
absence of moro or grasping reflex during newborn exam (that was present at birth). what do you do?
have newborn see pediatrician immediately
The uterine fundus normally palpated in the immediate pp is:
approximately 2/3 the way between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus
Gastroschisis
congenital defect characterized by a defect in the anterior abdominal wall through which the abdominal contents freely protrude.
According to the Bishops Scoring System, what number is favorable and likely to result in a sucessful labor induction
a score of at least 6
Your pregnant client in rubella non-immune and has been exposed recently. What do you do?
Obtain IgG and IgM antibodies; no vaccine during pregnancy because the vaccine is an attenuated live virus that could theoretically cause malformations. Immunize her immediately pp. breastfeeding is not an contraindication.
If not pp, women should be asked if they are pregnant, informed of potential risk, and advised to avoid pregnancy for _______ after receiving the vaccine.
1 month
What are the four leopold's maneuver's:
start at the funds and end at the pelvic brim:
1. What's in the fundus
2. Where's the back
3. What's in the pelvis (Pawlik's grip)
4. Where's the cephalic prominence
4.
According to Freidman's curve: what is the average length of normal active labor for nulliparas and the upper limit.
average: 4.9, upper limit 11.7
According to Friedman's curve what is the average and upper limit length of normal active labor for multiparas
average=2.2 upper=5.5
According to Friedman, the average and minimum rate of dilation in nulliparas women is:
3 cm per hour/no less than 1.2cm/hour
According to Friedman, the minimum rate of dilation and maximum slope in multiparas women is:
5.7 cm/hour and no less than 1.5 cm/hour
According to Friedman, the average and minimum rate of descent in nulliparas women is:
1.6cm/hour and no less than 1.0 cm/hour
According to Friedman, the average and minimum rate of descent in multipars women is:
5.4cm/hour and no less than 2.1 cm/hour
In which days surrounding childbirth is it most likely that maternal varicella infection will be passed on to the newborn?
Day 6 before birth and day 2 following birth
What are the effects of cold stress on the newborn?
metabolic acidosis
pulmonary vasocontriction
hypoglycemia
Name the three fetal shunts:
ductus arteriosus
foramen ovale
ductus venosus
what is the ductus arteriosus?
also called the ductus Botalli, is a blood vessel connecting the pulmonary artery to the aortic arch. It allows most of the blood from the right ventricle to bypass the fetus's fluid-filled non-functioning lungs.
what is the most directly responsible for closure of the ductus arteriosus?
increased oxygen levels in the blood
What causes the foramen ovale to shut?
pressure from increased blood flow in the left side of the fetal heart (pressure from right atrium decreased in comparison to the left)
what is the largest diameter of the fetal scull?
occipitomental
What is the most frequent reason for seizures in the neonatal period?
hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy
how long after birth does complete regeneration of the endometrium at the placental site take?
4 weeks
what does the placenta of a woman with severe chronic hypertension typically look like?
extensive infarction of entire cotyledons
Describe the platypoid pelvis:
transverse oval, short hollow flat sacrum,posteriorly inclined slightly convergent side walls, ischial spines may be prominent, not encroaching, pubic arch greater than 90
Describe the anthropoid pelvis:
anterior-posterior pelvis, flat anteriorly inclined sacrum, convergent side walls, prominent but not encroaching ischial spines, pubic arch just slightly less than 90
Describe the gynecoid pelvis
Round, dished sacrum, straight sidewalls, blunt ischial spines, pubic arch of 90
Describe the android:
heart shape, flat, slightly anteriorly inclined, convergent sidewalls, sharp prominent encroaching ischial spines, pubic arch <90
another name for uterine fibroid:
myoma, plural myomata
ecchymosis
bruise
According to Friedman, what is the average length of 2nd stage for multiparas?
15 minutes (whatever)
COC should be stopped 3-6 months prior to conception in order to:
replenish the body's stores of copper, zinc and other microminerals
How high can a mother's temperature rise to when her milk comes in and still be considered normal?
101
At what age is fhr reactivity typically reached
28-32 weeks
The blood flow through the placenta is:
500-800ml/minute
What is the first sign of a newborn cord infection?
newborn stopped feeding
What are the lactiferous ducts?
tree branched system connecting the lobules of the mammary gland to the tip of the nipple. They are also referred to as galactophores, galactophorous ducts, mammary ducts, mamillary ducts and milk ducts. They are structures which carry milk toward the nipple in a lactating female.
ectopic pregnancy has slow ________ HcG because of:
rising, the implantation site
Describe the fetal circulatory system:
Right atrium
foramen ovale
left atrium
left ventricle
aorta
systemic circulation
umbillical arteries
placenta
umbillical vein
ductus venosus
inferior venal cava
right atrium