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136 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What do you call the 3rd MC or MT bone?
cannon bone
What do you call the 2nd and 4th metacarpal or metatarsal bones?
splint bones
What do you call the proximal phalanx (P1)?
long pastern
What do you call the middle phalanx (P2)?
short pastern
What do you call the distal phalanx (P3)?
coffin bone
What do you cal the carpus?
the knee
What do you call the tarsus?
the hock
What is the metacarpophalangeal or metarsophalangeal joint?
fetlock
What do you call the proximal interphalangeal joint?
pastern joint
What do you call the distal interphalangeal joint?
coffin joint
Give an example of a body part that requires a higher output machine?
stifle

-these can take shorter exposures
What is often the first method of evaluating equine lameness?
radiography
What is the mA and kVP for a portable machine?
10-30 ma
70-90 kVp
Where should you put a marker when performing radiography on horse limbs?
lateral aspect of the limb with labeled limb marker (right or left)

-for lateral, place dorsal
How should a radiographic projection be described?
point of entrance to point of exit
From what point is cranial and caudal changed to dorsal and palmar/plantar?
antebrachiocarpal joint and tarsocrural joint

-term palmar is used on the proximal limb
-plantar is used on the distal limb
When using the following words together, what is their order?

-right
-lateral
-dorsal
Right dorsolateral
What are the two most common views with radiography of the horse limb?
-latero-medial
-dorso-palmar (plantar)
-but only allow evaluation of about 50% of the surfaces

-oblique (with 45 degrees angle to the dorsal aspect of the limb) is also commonly taken
What does DLPMO mean?
what is projected lateral and medial?
-dorso-lateral to plantar medial oblique

DLPMO
-lateral is projected plantar
-medial is projected dorsal
What is another name for dorsoproximal-dorsodistal oblique?
skyline
-portion that is highlighted is determined by the position of the carpus and the angle of teh beam
What view would you use to look at the coronary band and the navicular bone?
-the distal margin of the navicular bone is superimposed with the overlying 2nd phalanx
dorso 65 proximal - palmarodistal oblique
What is the divet on the solar margin of the distal phalanx called?
crena marginalis
What is a mach band?
when one bone edge crosses another, a radiolucent line may appear
What type are most joints in the body?
diarthroidial (moveable)
-move rigid skeleton
-synovial fluid
What is in the intimal layer of the synovial membrane?
synoviocytes
What is part of the subintimal layer of the synovial membrane?
-fibrous, areolar, fatty tissue
-GOOD blood supply and innervation
-where joint gets its nutrition
What are type A synoviocytes?
phagocytic
What are type B synoviocytes secreting?
protein
What are type C synoviocytes?
transition
What do synoviocytes contribute to the synovial fluid?
hyaluron and lubricin
What is synovial fluid?
ultrafiltrate of plasma

-glucose, O2, CO2, small proteins
Where do upper limb joints get their stability?
muscle action
Where do lower limb joints get their stability?
capsule, ligaments, joint congruency - shape of the joint
What happens to subchondral bone with OA?
stiffening
Where does articular cartilage get its nutrition?
synovial fluid - to chondrocytes in cartilage
What is the % of water in the extracellular matrix - by wet weight?

-collagen - dry weight
-proteogylcans
-glycoproteins
water - 70%
collagen - 50%
proteoglycans - 35%
glycoprotein - 10%
What are the four zones of articular cartilage?
-tangential
-transitional
-radiate
-calcified
What is the type of collagen predominantly made by chondrocytes?
type II (90-95%)
What force does cartilage collagens counteract?
tensile stresses
Is turn over fast or slow with cartilage collagens?
slow er than other components of articular cartilage
Aggrecan is resistant to what type of force?
compressive forces
Super physiologic levels or stress on chondrocytes result in what?
catabolism
What is one of the earliest changes of OA?
upregulation of anabolism (aggrecan and collagen) of chondrocytes
What does boundry lubrication decrease friction between?
soft tissue and bone
What does fluid-film lubrication decrease friction between?
between articular cartilage
What is OA?
progressive and permanent deterioration of articular cartilage

-the point at which catabolism > anabolic repair
What are the characteristic changes with OA?
-articular cartilage
-subchondral bone
-supporting soft tissue
What are 3 mechanisms of OA?
1 - defective cartilage
2 - abnormal change in subchondral bone
3 - normal cartilage with abnormal forces
What are four causes of OA?
1 - traumatic
2 - developmental
3 - infectious
4 - degenerative
What is the earliest sign of intra-articular changes of OA?
loss of aggrecan and type II collagen
What do inflammatory cytokines cause the release of that is made by the synoviocytes and chondrocytes and is released intra-articularlly as a result of OA?

-What does it have that degrades the cartilage?
MMP - matrix metalloprotinase

-collegenase
What do the anabolic cytokines (IGF, TGF) do?
-promote cartilage metabolism
-production of proteoglycans and type II collagen
What do the catabolic cytokines do (IL-1, TNF-alpha)?
upregulated in OA
-promote MMP, NO, and PGE2
-inhibits aggrecan and type II collagen synthesis
What are the types of lesions seen with OA?
-discoloration
-fibrillation
-erosion
-wear lines
-eburnation
-cysts
Is there a coorelation between clinical signs and severity?
no - poor
What are sources of pain with OA?
capsule, synovium, tendons, ligaments, periosteum, bone
Is there a capacity of regeneration of healing with articular cartilage?
limited
How are large cartilage repairs done in the body?
extrinsic - derives cells from surrounding tissue
-fibrocartilage
What is the goal of treating joint disease?
slow progression
Degenerative changes ________ clinical signs
preceed
-therefore early prevention and treatment
What is the treatment for generalized OA?
medical treatment and exercise
What is the treatment for full-thickness cartilage lesions?
surgical
What are the goals of treating OA?
-decrease inflammation
***decrease pain (MAIN)
***slow progression of OA (MAIN)
-lubricate
-regain function and restore joint environment
What are the main functions of COX-1 and COX-2?
COX-1 --normal function of GI and kidney
COX-2 -- associated with inflammatory events
Which NSAID has good efficacy, is cheep, but is the most toxic?
phenylbutazone (Bute)
What is the name for banamine?
flunixin meglumine
What part of the inflammatory cascade does ketoprofen inhibit?
both sides
-COX and lipoxygenase
Which NSAID is least toxic for horses?
ketoprofen
Which NSAID is topical?
Diclofenac
Which enzyme does corticosteroids inhibit?
phospholipase
What effect does corticosteroids have on:

normal cartilage
abnormal cartilage
normal - detrimental effects
abnormal - protective effects
What are disadvantages to using corticosteroids?
-chondronecrosis
-decreased matrix production
-pain relief
-laminitis
-steroid arthropathy
-remote joints affected
What is the half life of triamcinolone acetonide?
-methylprednisolone acetate?
1-5 days

1 month
What are SE to corticosteroids?
-laminitis
-post-injection flare (heat, pain, swelling, lameness)
-joint infection (b/c suppress inflammatory response)
What type of activity does hyaluronan have?
anti-inflammatory
What type of hyaluronan is good for acute synovitis?
sodium hyaluronan
What is the MOA of Adequan, a polysulfated GAG?
synoviocytes - stimulates production of HA
chondrocytes - increase synthesis of PG and collagen
What do oral joint supplements contain that are the building blocks of articular cartilage and joint fluid?
-chondroitin sulfate
-glucosamine
-hyaluronan
When do you apply cold therapy and how long do you keep it on?
-first 24-48 hours
-10-30 minutes
-use a dry cold
What does ESWT stand for and what does it do?
extracorporeal shock wave therapy
-significant improvement in lameness and decreases synovial fluid protein
What does abrasion arthroplasty involve?
debriding to SCB
What does osteostixis involve?
focal drilling to cancellous bone
Lesions greater than what don't heal on their own?
5 mm
With a bone lesion, what do you debride to and what do you remove?
-debride to SCB plate and remove calcified cartilage
What are the goals of arthrodesis?
alleviate pain
salvage

-high motion joints - fixation
-low motion - surgical, chemical, laser
What are the 3 main causes of lameness?
-pain anywhere
-mechanical (ankylosis, fibrosis, contracture)
-neurologic disorders (EPM)
Where should the coronary band be in relation to the ground?
parallel to the ground
What should you palpate for on the foot?
heat and digital pulse
Head goes down on which limb?
sound limb
With a pelvic hike, which side is lame?
side with more movement is lame leg

- vertical movement of hind quarters
Will you always see a head bob or pelvic hike?
no - esp if bilateral lameness
What type of manipulative tests could you use to localize lameness?
-flexion - but impossible to flex one joint at a time therefore not specific
-digital pressure -- churchill test - distal hock pain - checking for spavin
What type of diagnostic analgesis would you use to localize lameness?
-perinerual
-intra-synovial
Where do flexural deformities occur?
in the sagital plane
What are the types of flexural deformities?
1 - hyperextension
2 - flexural
What are hyperextension deformities caused by and where are they most common?
-lack of flexor tone

-in immature foals and hindlimbs
What are causes of hyperextension deformities?
-idiopathic
-bandaging/casting
-lack of exercise
-overgrown hooves
What is the general time for correction of hyperextension in the foal?
2-6 weeks
What is the primary lesion for flexural deformities or contracted tendons?
length disparity between tendons and bones
What is the medical treatment for a ruptured common digital extendor tendon?
-oxytetracycline
-NSAIDS
-Gastroprotectant
What is the first choice of surgical treatments for a flexural deformity of the DIP joint?
-for the fetlock?
inferior check ligament desmotomy

superior check ligament desmotomy
What is a conservative treatment for club foot?
-eliminate pain
-correct diet
-farrier - lower heal and longer toe (protect)
What are the 2 surgeries available for club foot and what is their prognosis?
-ICL desmotomy - 85% return to normal function -

-DDF tenotomy - SALVAGE ONLY
In what age of horses does acquired flexural deformity of the fetlock occur in?
1-2
What is aquired flexural deformity of the fetlock due to?
shortening of the SDF musculotendinous unit
What are the surgical procedures for an acquired flexural deformity of the fetlock?
-superior check ligament desmotomy
-SDF tenotomy
-SL desmotomy
What plane to angular limb deformities occur in?
frontal plane
What is the most common cause of angular limb deformities?
-disproportionate growth of metaphyseal growth plate
What are the most common angular limb deformities?
-carpal valgus
-fetlock varus
-tarsal valgus
What are 3 results of Angular limb deformities?
1 - laxity of periarticular structures
2 - incomplete ossification of carpal/tarsal bones
3 - asymmetric growth of metaphysis or epiphysis
How do you differentitate between a angular limb deformity due to laxity of the periarticular supporting structures and a bony change?
-ALD can b manually corrected

-there will be medial to lateral instability
For carpal valgus, if toe points in the same direction as the carpus you do what?

-if toes points forward and carpus outward, you do what?
-may correct

-surgery
What is treatment based on for treating asymmetric growth of metaphysis and epiphysis?

-HOW is it modifies?
treatment based on modifying chondral growth

-exercise control, farriery, surgery
What 2 main principles are used for the treatment of asymetric growth of metaphysis and epiphysis?
1 - physeal growth rate determines rate of correction

2 - growth remaining determines amount of correction
How do you determine whether to do surgery or treat asymmetric growth of metaphysis and epiphysis?
young foal - stall rest for 2-6 weeks and it should autocorrect

older foal or severe - surgery
Where would you perform a periosteal transection and why?
on the short (concave side) to increase growth at the physis
-works during rapid growth phase only
Why would you use a transphyseal bridge?
-to slow growth on longer side
-BUT can overcorrect
Which pivot point has a worse prognosis?
distal
Which of the P3 fractures are non-articular?
I and VI
Which P3 fracture is a fracture of the extensor process?
IV
Which is the worst P3 fracture?
multifragment fracture is the worst
What confirmation is predisposed to ringbone?
short, upright pasterns
-quick stops, hard turns, rapid twists
What is the cause of proximal sesamoid fractures?
increased tension on suspensory apparatus
What is the prefered tretment for annular ligament desmitis?
desmoplasty
Where do lateral condylar fractures normally propagate to?
-lateral cortex
Where do medial condylar fractures propagate?
in spiral plane or course centrally through diaphysis
How many bones are there is the carpus and what are they?
radial, intermediate, ulnar, accessory, C2, C3, C4

-7
How many joints are there in the carpus?
3
-radiocarpal
-middle carpal
-carpometacarpal
Where is the most common site for a osteochondral fracture - chip fracture?
distal radial carpal bone
Where is a carpal slab fracture located?
frontal plane radial facet of C3
What is the treatment for a carpal slab fracture?
-remove --> if less than 10mm and increased cartilage loss

-repair --> greater than 10mm and decreased cartilage loss
How is an olecranon fracture diagnosed?
dropped elbow
Which type of olecranon fractures are articular?
II and IV
Which olecranon fracture has the best prognosis?
V
What is the number one cause of subsolar absecess?
migration of dirt/bacteria up the white line
What is the definition of a subsolar abcess?
superficial infection of the corium of the sole