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520 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
lens subluxation associated conditions
marfans
homocystinuria
ehlers danlos
weill marhesani
TRAUMA
most common cause of non-trauma hyphema
NSAID
mucormycosis
life threatening fungal infection in DM or immunocompromised
ankyloblepharon
two outer lids stuck together
seen in pemphigoid
pemphigoif
idiopathic
attacks mucous membranes
mucous membrane damage (3 conditions)
pemphigoid
behcet's
steven johnsons
blepharospasm vs myokymia
both affect orbisularis oculi
bleph is bilateral
myokymia is uni
meiges syndrome
benign blepharospasm with lower facial abnormalities
most common eye lid cancer
basal cell carcinoma
second most common eyelid cancer
squamous cell carcinoma
what layer of skin does squamous cell carcinoma affect and what does it start as
spinosum layer

actinic keratosis
canaliculitis
pouting puncta
actinomyces israeli
jones test 1
use NaFl and wait 5 min to see if drainage is proper
positive results means system is patent
jones test 2
uses saline
only done is jones test 1 is positive
cinjunctival intraepithelial neoplasia
gelatinous mass with nerovasc near limbus
stains with rose bengal
most common precursor to conjunctival squamous cell carcinoma
serotypes causing EKC
8, 19
what is classic sign and symptom of EKC
pain and keratitis with SEIs
molluscum cause?
DNA poxvirus
allergic conjitis signs and sx
ithcing, papillae, chemosis, dennie's line
dennie line indicated what
atopic dermatitis
classic signs of VKC
trantas dots
cobblestone papillae
shield ulcer
when do you see papillae
allergic
bacterial
when do you see follicles
toxic, viral, chlamydia
what do you see with a CL soln toxicivity rxn
SPK, follicles
what CL material causes corneal warpage
PMMA
inclusion conjitis 2^ to chalmydia sx
follicles-inferior!
CHRONIC---red eye longer than 1 month
3 classic signs in trachoma
FOLLICLES-inferior!
Arlt line on superior palp conk
Herbert's pits at limbal conj from resolved follicles
SLK systemic cause
thryoid disease
most common cause of phlycteulosis
bleph
staph causes a Type 4 rxn (delayed hypersensitiviity)

also sometimes Tb, less common
pediculosis
itching
blood colored debris
preauricular lymphadenopathy
3 meds causing subconj heme
NSAID
coumadin
viagra
stockers line
iron deposit at leading edge of pterygium
granulomatous findings in uveitis
mutton fat KP
koeppe nodules
busacca nodules on iris
systemic cuases of gran uveitis
sarcoid
tb
tick bacteria
b.burgdorferi
difference between basal and squamous cell carcinoma
basal has telangectatic surface vasculariszation
controllable risk factor for thryroid eye disaese
smoking
what is the cause of a hordeolum
staph
what is a sterile nonpainful inflamm of MG
chalazion
ferrys line
edge of filtering bleb
kayser fleisher ring
wilsons disease
fleisher ring
keratoconus
huston stahli
elderly
what test measures axial length
a scan
schafers sign
tobacco dust
irvine glass
post cat sx CME
LASIK
laser-assisted in-situ keratomileusis
LASEK
same as lasek, but flap made with ethanol instead of keratome
intralase
same as lasik but flap made with laser
decemet's membrane size and age
increases with age
doubles by age 40
hassal henle bodies
corneal guttata of the periphery
corneal guttata location
central
exopthalmometry norma
12-22 for caucastions
12-24 for africation americans
12-18 for asians

or under 3mm asymmetry
what are KPs?
clusters of macrophages and epithelial cells on corneal endo

indicate GRANULOMATOUS unveitis
congenital syphillis triad + 1 ocular finding
hitchinsons teeth--smwidely spaces
saddle-nose bridge
deafness

interstitial keratitis
most common cause amarousis fugax
carotid artery disease
what makes up asteroid hyalosis
calcium phossphate soaps
asymptomitic
stromal hyaline deposits
granular dystrophy
stromal amyloid deposits
lattice dystrophy
stromal dystrophy c hyeprlipidemia
schyders dystrophy
macular dystrophy (cornea)
mucopolysacc deposits
risk factors for CRAO
HTN, DM, carotid occlusion, cardiac valve disease
blue gray stromal opacities
salzmann's nofular degenertion
possible caused by same conidtions that lead to chronic keratitis---DRY EYES in us, trachoma elsewhere
when are haabs striae seen
congentical GL
what causes disciform keratisis?
HSV
interstitial kerattisi
stromal inflammation
most common stromal dystrophy
granulae
AR stromal dystrophy
macular
watzke-allen sign
indicates full thickness macular hole
what is most common cause of macular hole
vitreous traction
acanthomoeba progression
1. sx worse than signs---lots of pain c mild SPK
2. ring ulcer--PK needed
what bacterias invade INTACT corneal epithelium
1. neisseria
2.haemophilus
3. listeria
4. cornebacterium

C-NHL
fungi after trauma (2)
aspergillus
fusarium
high risk characterisitis in DM
NVD of more than 1/4 of the disc
or
preretinal or vitreal heme with ANY NVD or NVE
most common cause of infectious kerattis
bacteria
beaterb bronze macula
stargardts, late stage
early vision in stargards
vision loss with very mild macualr involvement
chronic fungal ulcer common cause
candida in immunocompromised pts
flap in lasik
160-200 um
bateria in endophthalmitis
staph epidermidis
bacterial endopthlamitis signs
severe pain**
AC reaction
conj injection
mucous discharge
2-4 days post op
where do calicific plaques come from
heart valves
where to hollenhort come from
carotids
most common cause of angioid streams
pseudoxanthoma elasticum
ischemic CRVO
10 DD or more of nonperfusion on FA
most common cause of vitritis in US
toxoplasmosis
moorens ulcer
peripheral corneal ulcer with overhanging edge

more common in elderly
so systemic links
corneal rejection signs of stroma and endothelium
stroma - krachmers spot
endo- khodadoust line
most common retinal dystophy
RP
most common macular dystrophy
stargardts
3 causes of pre-senile cataracts
myotonic dystrophy
atopic dermatitics
diabetes
DM and lens changes
inc in G causes myopic shift
dec in G cuases hyperopic shift
synchysis scintillians
golden brown cyrstals (cholesterol) result of previous pathology, usually uveitis, hemorrhage, or trauma
systemic disorder assoc with RP
usher's--also have hearing loss
ave age RP dx
9-10
RP triad
arteriolar attentuation
bone spicule pigment
waxy disc pallor
what meds are impt to note before cataract surgery
orals:

flomax
coumadin

topical: PG
what indicated a fungal ulcer
FEATHERY borders
pseduomonas
oxidase +
gram -
grape odor
blue/green

mucopurlent discharge, pain, hypopyon, ulcer
4 risk factors of ARMD progression
smoking
HTN
SOFT drusen
focal hyperpig
what causes ERM
internal limiting membrane
(caused by compromise of ILM)
most common cause of sudden onset flashes, floaters
PVD
DC CL use for how many days? RGP and soft
RGP-2-3 weeks
SCL: 3-14days
systemic ds assoc with KC (5)
Turner's
Downs
Marfans
Osteogensis imperfecta
Marfans
terriens marginal degernation
bilateral
males
over 50
starts superiorly

diff from moorens, which also starts superiorly but get ULCERATION
most common corneal dystrophy
EBMD
staph marginal keratitis class presentation
peripheral SEIs
bilateral
often hx of bleph
what drops are BAK in
aminoglycosides
tobramycin, gnetamycin
reigers anomly
GL risk
displaced pupil

diff from reigers syn (syn has mental retardatiion assoc)
peters anomoly
CL risk and corneal opacity
elsching pearls
lens epitheliam cells post cat sz
sx similar to catarcts
coats disease
you males
unilateral vessle diease
hard exudates
strac
leudocoria
corneal filaments
epithelial cells and mucous
giemsa stain shows
HSV culture--
multinucleated cells

cacterial infection--PMN cells
where is aqeous humor made
non pig cili epi of PARS PLICATA
does stargardts affect bruchs memb
NO
weakest bone in orbit
maxillary
commotioe retinae
photoR outer seg disruption
CN palsy most common with papilledema
VI
tight bend over petrous ridge, IOP pinches down on ridge
what layer do you test for evaporative DES?
lipid
what tests the lipid layer
TBUT
MG expression
staining in anterior basement mebrane dystrophy
none or negative
leading infectious cause of corneal blindness in US
herpes simplex
when does irvine glass present
4-12 wks post op
irvine glass incidence
common on FA, 1.5% clinical signs
UGH syndrome
uveitis
GL
hyphema

often due to poor fiitting IOL in AC
rubbing causes hyphema and uveitis, which in turn can raise IOP
gray green membrane
blood below RPE
often seen in wet ARMD
rodent ulcer assoc
basal cell carcinoma
why might FEMALES get central serous?
pregnancy
risk of macular hole after PVD
none, traction relieved
gyrate atrophy
causes night blindness
choroideremia
causes night blindness
photopsia
flashes
orbital speudotumor vs psudotumor cerbri
cerebir usually asymptomatic
most common VF defect in papilledema
restriction of peripheral field
enlarged BS
when is thryoid eye disease most common
4th to 5th decade
thryoid eye disease and myasthenia?
1%
gonococcal conjuntivitis signs
unusual for bacteria

enlarged preauricaular nodes
pseudomembranes
does ANA test syphilis?
NO
what type of cataract is RP assoc with
PSC
crocodile shagreen
gray white polygonal opacities in bowmans
where is band keratopathy
bowmans
what layer do pterygia afect
bowmans is destroyed as corneal becomes affected
what layer does KC start in?
bowmans
common causes of hypopyon
severe uveitis
endophthalmitis
infectious corneal ulcers
cocaine MOA
block norepinephicne reuptake at postganglionic nerves
blocks Na channels (anesthetic property)
vasocontrictor
hydroxyamphetamine MOA
and Horners testing
increase release of norepi from postgang nerve terminals

will dilate 1st and 2nd order horners, NOT postgang lesion Horners
lesion in adie?
ciliary ganglion
para receptors at gang and at site
ganglionic junctions--nicotinic
at site--muscarinic
neostigmine
promotes parasympathetic actions
edrophonium
dx MG
blocks AchE
on what receptor do epi and norepi differ
B2 is epi only
resp receptor--think epi pen!
where are B1 and B2 located
B2--lungs and eyes
B1--heart

two eyes, two lungs, one heart
what is the inhibitory symp receptor
alpha 2
which GL drug decreases aq prod AND inc uveoscleral outflow
alpha agonists
which beta blocker has intrisic simaptheomimetic properties (ISA)
carteolol
what are intrinsic sympathomimetic properties in a beta blocker
reduced potential for side effects

less stinging, less bradycardia, lowers cholesterol
drug of choice for epithelial keratitis in HSV
trifluridine
corticosteroid MOA
inhibit phospholipas A2
what melts cornea
topical anesthetics
NSAIDs
mast cell stabilizers
crolomyn
ala- and alo- prefixes
alomide, alocril, alamast--only4 on the NBEO outline
which of the 4 classes of CNS drugs DOES NOT have a GLC use
cholinergic antagonists
when is atropine contradinicated (systemic)
down syndrome
what class of CNS drug is visine
adrenergic agonist
what glaucoma drugs may have neuroprotective effects
brimonidine
betaxolol
PG contraind
actie inflamm
hx HSV
CME risk
PG with most hyperemia
lumigan/bimatoprost
best PG for african americans
travatan/travoprost
PG MOA
inc uveoslceral outflow via the PGFalpha receptors on the cilciar muscle, ultimately causing ar eduction in neighboring collagen
what enzyme is responsbile for lash growth in PGs
phospholipase C
LAST RESORT GL med in infants
alpha agonists
meds that cause blue sclera
steroids, minocycline
ketorolac dose
QID
bromfenac dose
BID
voltaren dose
QID
nevanec dose
TID
ocufen dose
(NSAID)
q2h before surgery to inhibit intraop miosis
botox MOA
NOT an autonomic drug
prevents Ach release at NMJ
combo mast/anti hist drugs
EZPOP + B

E = ELESTAT
(dont confuse with Emadine, which is an H1 block ONLY)
nictonic receptor locations
symp and para ganglia
NMJ
muscarinic receptor locations
sites of para innervation
effects of MG drugs
both somatic and para effects--cholinergic muscarinic
are there nicotinic receptors in the sympathetic system
YES, at the sympathetic ganglia
which receptor does hydroxyamphetamine stimulate infdirectely
beta1
where are alpha1 receptors in the eye
radial muscle of the iris
PE acts here
drugs that increase norepi affect which adrenergic receptor
alpha1
form betaxolol is dispensed in
suspension
guanethidine MOA
ultimately increases NE reuptake
contraind to PE 10%
MAOI, TCA, Graves
what drug causes dry mouth/fatigue
==topical
alphagan (brimonidine)
what topical worsens MG
beta blockers
what topical should be used cautiously in DM and hyperthryoid and why
b-blocker
will mask sx of hypoglycemia, hyperthryoidism
stinging
restasis
cosopt
acular
digxin
ethambutol
isoniazid
optic neuritis
diphenhydramine
chlropromaizne
scopolamine
anti-SLUD
morphine
neostigmine
echthiophate
miosis
thioradine
certizine
oculogyric crisis
accutane and digoxine
color visionchanges
diamox
digoxin
lower IOP via dec aq
thioridazine
indomethacin
pigmentary retinopathy
echothiphate MOA
AchE inhibitor--irreversible
ind for GL and acc ET
NOT MG drug

pro-SLUD if used systemically
embryonic source of lens
surgace ectoderm
pars iridica retina
form sphincter and dilator
worth 4 dot
OD sees 2 dots
OS sees 3 dots
4 BO test used for detecting
microtropes, no tropia seen on CT but has dec VA in one eye
how do RG glasses affect NPC
will be recededwith NPC/convergence issues because they are dissociating
calculated AC/A
AC/A = PD + h(D-N)
PD in cm
h in m
eso is +
exo is -
duanes type 1
no ABDUCTION of affected eye
Brown's syndrome vertical deficit--elevation or depression?
problem with elevation
SO is too short, therefore cannot RELAX
subjective CT
with = exo
against = eso
what type of vergence do plus lenses test
positive fusional vergence

+ relaxes acc, relaxes acc verg, which inc vergence disparity, and therefore increases positive fusional vergence

exos will have trouble with NRA
accomdotaive insufficiency vergence findings
receded NPC
low + fusional vesgence range
how does FCC work
creates interval of sturm
when can an HARC patient percieve depth
wirt circles
direction pt should look to isolate SR
up and out
23 deg?
perfusion pressure
pressure difference between A's and V's of the same tissue
how does sympathetic stimulation affect IOP
alph2 decreases via decreasing aq and inc US outflow

beta1 and 2 increase via increasing aq production at the ciliary body
which CN for relfex blinking
V
which CN for reflex tearing
VII
forced lid closure
oribital portion of orbicularis
nutirent supply for cornea
aqeuous
oxygen supply cor cornea
tears
bells phenomenon--forced or reflex blink?
forced
where does reflex tearing come from
VII via pterygopalatine ganglion
how is lipid secreted? mucous?
lipid--blink

mucous-para innervation
what provides correct collagen spacing in cornea
proteoglycan

proteoglycan = GAG + protein
how do the endothelium and epithelium fix corneal edema
endo--Na/K pump--primary source for dec corneal thickness

epi--pumps Cl into tears
isosorbide MOA
increase plasma osmolarity
where does near pupil response begin?
FEF, then to EW and ciliary ganglion
role of alpha crysallin
molecular chaperone
protects against cataract
crystallins
soluble proteins
lens aging
increase Ca--leads to cataracts
decrese ATP
decrease crystallins
decrease GSH
where is collagen most concentrated in the vitreous?
at the base
convert snellen to high SF cutoff
snellen * 30 = cpd
devries rose law
JND scales with sq root of background
on log-log graph, slope will be 1/2
lambert surface
luminace independent of viewing angle

luminance is proportional to illumination
what is an example of a lambert surface
dull paper
inner retinal disease color defect
red green
what is physiologically responsible for the troxler effect
lateral inhibition
what contributes to high frequency cutoff
optical aberrations
density of photoRs on the retina
what contributes to low freq cutoff
lateral inhibition
center-surroud RFs in ganglion cells
broca sulzer
50-100 msec flashes appear brighter than other durations
what wavelength has worst color disrim for a tritanope
495
what is timescale for cone dark adaptation
10 minutes
timescale for dark adaptation in rods
30-40 minutes
normal vernier acuity
5-10 arc seconds or 20/2 snellen
arcsec in degrees
1/3600 degereses = 1 arc sec
dowling rushton equation
describes dark adaption and tells us photopigment regeneration is NOT the sole factor
ferryporter law
critical flicker fusion frequency scales linearly with the log of retinal illumination
granit harper law
CFF icnreases as stimulus size increases
sensitivity
prob aof a positive test given that a pt has condition X
sensitivity
true negatives/number of people who do not have X
at what age should stereo be developed
6 months
what age should a child know their name and age
3 years
what develos first? fxn, sacc or pursuit
fixation
at what age should a child copy a circle? a cross?
circle- 3 yrs, cross 4 yrs
what age should a hcild execute a palmar grasp
6months
what type of acuity takes the longest to develope
vernier
oscope mag
emmetrop is 15xs, less for hyperope, more for amyope
sph for obliquely crossed cyl
sph = 0.5(F1 + F2 - C) + SOS
keratometry equation
r = -2mb
m = mag
b = distance between obj and image
cross nott ret
target stable, you move
shearts dynamic ret
use a lens
where is eye formed
wall of the diencephalon
what does a high Km say about reaction speed
slow
which way will compettitive injibotor shift curve
right
which way will noncompettive nhibotrs shift curve
down
relation between aprasa nd insulin
paras promote insulin
why is NADPH impt
fatty acid steroid synthesis
restrictive lung disease
Tb, histo, sarcoid
what is first heart sound
tricuspid closing and mitral and trycuspid valve
what is second hart sound
aorita
what is the QRS wave
ventricular depolarixzation/contraction
what is the P wave
atrial depol
which atria does blood enter first
comes in both at the same time
wat is the most potent vasoconstrictor in the body
antigotensin II
what does the PCT do
abosrbs all glucose and aa, most bicarbonate , Na and water
where does the glucose exit inthe kidney
ALL in the PCT
does smooth muscle require ATP
no, it udnergoes crosslatchich bridge formation
what type of gland is MG
holocrine
what type of gland is goblet cell
apocrine
keratoconjucntivitis sicca
DES caused by quous deficiency
normal osmotic pressure of tears
315
what is promary oxygen source to eye in open eye and closed eye
open--tears
closed--eyelid and limbal netorws anterior, aq posterior
what time of day is IOP highest
AM
pretectal nucleus lesion
light-near dissocaition
pupils during sleep
miotic, symps are at rest
metab in lens
anerobic glycolysis
light absoption and reitnal
photon abs changes 11cis to alltrans
when should MS be suspected with a VER
over 110msec
what are normal VER snellen correlations
2020 even for babies
organize anterior to posterior: malleus, oval window, incus, stapes, tympanic membrane
tymapnic memb, malleus, incu, stapes, oval window
what do ascening paths carry
sensory info
where is defcicit if lesion is above crossover pt
contra
where does pyramidal pathway cross
medulla
qhere does medial lemniscus cross
medulla
qhere does trigeminothlamaic path cross
medulla
where does spinothalamaic pathway cross
spinal cord
which pathways carry [aon and temp
spinothalalmic and trigeminothalamic (tirgem is face info only)
flurophtometry
measure rate of aq formation
replacement rate of aq
every 10 minutes
when will you see a cloverleaf defect on VF
when pt stops responding
VF defects in normal tension GL
central and centrosecal
para nerves and ganglia to the eye
III via ciliary
VII via pterygopalatine to lacrimal gland
bells palsy vs stroke
stroke involes whole face, bells is just lower, and is ipsi, stroke is contra
location of krause and wolfring
fornices
where is brightest purkinje image
anterior cornea
primary gag in cornea
keratin sulfate
cortical cataracts and rx change
hyperopic shift
NS cataract and rx change
myopic shift
what begins in inner nuclear layer in devel
hor, bip,amaacrine
where do amarcrine detite do to
axons up , dendrties down
what synapse occurs in OPL
rod spherules connect with bip adn horizonatal cells
where do norizontal cells go
down toward RPE to synapse in OPL
where is the first synapose itn the visual pathwway
OPL
where ar emacular fibers on disc
tmporal
lesion of cuneus grys
inferior VF defect
what does OKN test
pursuits
limbal blanching
chemical burn
berlins edema
commortio retina in macula 2^ to trauma
PT?PTT
teting for bleeding disorder
pulsatile proptosis
cav sinus fistula
painful proptosis
orbital pseudotumor
rhinophyma
ocular rosacea
actinomyces israeli
canaliculitis
s-shaped ptosis
dacryoadenitis
PAM
concern about conj melanoma
CIN
concern about conj squamous cell carcinoma
gram neg diplococci
gonhorrhea
swimming pool conjuncitivits
pharyngoconjunctival fever
catch scratch fever
parinauds oculogalndular syndrome
mouth and genital ulcers
behcet's disease
maculopapular rash
synhilis
candle wax and cotton ball opacities
sarcoid
blue bulbar conj
scleririts
night sweats
Tb
salt and pp fundus
congetial syphilis
snow banking
pars planitis
feathery edges
fungal
dsicform kerattis
herpes simplex
diffuse lamellar kerattis
LASIK
krachmer spot
graft rejectionstroma
khofdoust line
endothelial graft rejection
vossius ring
trauma
patons folds
papilledeme
INO
MS
disc at risk
NAION
vermiform pupil
adies
descending loop abs
only water is reabsorbed into veinous syste
PCT dsecretion
H+
what drug works on PCT
diamox, inhibits the resoption of water, Na, and bicarb back inot the body
what diuretics work at descening loop
NONE
what is reaspborng in asceling loop
Na, Cl, Mg, Ca, also K and Cl via the Na, K, Cl pump, also an Na/K pump which created a gradient, end up with lots of K inside cell
K at ascending loop
part of Na/K and Na/K/Cl which cause buildip of K inside the cell
has channels for reabosption to either benous and lumen(urine)

when K is pushed into urine, Ca and Mg are abs back into body, this is enhanced by durosemide
what does furosemide act on
asc loop, causes K loss into urine

also causes loss of Na, CL, CL, Ca, MG
what is absorlbed at ascending loop
Na, Cl, Ca
what is abs in DCT
Na, CL in small amounts, Ca
is water abs in DCT
NO, unless ADH is present
where does PTH work
DCT
who does PTH work
increases Ca absorption into blood
where do thiazide diuretics work
DCT--dec absorption of Na and CLinto the blood
qhere occurs at the collecting duct
sm reabos of Na and Cl
what is unique about the K channge in the collecting duct
leads to severehypokalemia when aldosterone is present
aldosterones actions
increases BP while causing hypokalemia, acts at collecting duct
how to K sparing diuretics work
inhibit aldosterones action, lower BP, save K from being lost
where does ADH work
DCT and CD to incteseae presence of water channels, causing more water to be abs and icnreasing the blood pressure
what organelle is responsible for acculuation of pigment in macrophages
lysosome
where are dorsal column nuclei located
medulla
what is the anterior boundary of the limbus
the line from scwalbe line to the termination of bowmans
schwalbes line
termination of decemet's
with adaptation, the CFF level will..
increase
what kind of reflexes are seen in upper motor neuron synfrom
increased reflexes
the tenon capusle is adjacent and outer to
the episclera
what does the fsiculis gracilis carry info about
legs, not the arms
free energy of a reaction is the direct measure of
the work that can be performed
what do the middle scleral aperturs carry
vortex veins
when does band pass spatial filtering appear developmentally
2-3 months
which matures first, spatial or temporal CSF
temporal, then spatial
grating acuity in infants
equals age in months up to 6 months
why is color vision immature in infants
post-receptor limitations
when is trichromatic vision present
3 months
what is color vision like at 9-10 weeks
tritan like color defect
what explains the difference between adult and infant luminous efficiency curves
macular pigment
sensitive period
when effects of monocular deprivation are seen

9 years
adult stereo present at
6 months
when does absolute sens of scoptopic system mature
6 months
how is motion sensitivity affected by age
decreases
increased absorption of shrot wavelengths by eye prodcues what kind of deect
tritan
confuse both BY and RG
higher absolute threshold in elderly is due to
rod loss
a change in adaption rate would be due to
photopigment regeneration kinetics
are rods or cones more affected by aging
rods
how does VF decline with age
linearly (ie constant rate)
which leukocyte is likely to arrive early and predominate at the site of a bacterial infection
PMN neutrophil
what type of inflammation is leprosy
granulomatous
which parts of the complement system trigger anaphylactic shock
C3a and C5a
how are the inflmation and clortting systems related
Hageman factor activates complement, kinin, clotting, and fibrinolytic systems
hyperplasia
increase in number of cells
do skeletal muscles undergo hyperplasia
no, they do not divide, therefore they undergo hypertrophy
metaplasia is usually caused by
chronic irritation
metaplasia
reversible change
type III hypersens
immune complexes acivate neutrophils and macrophages
what type of hypersens reaction are MG and Graves
Type II-antibpody related
what does the antibody in graves do?
stimulates hormone release
what does ANA test for
Lupus
chronic interstitial lung disease are mediated by
macrophages
marfans
AD
fibrillin defect
r/o aortic dissection
lymphogranuloma venereum
caused by c.trachomatis, chronic disease
congenital malformation inheritance, ie cleft lip
multifacotiral, not due to just one gene, environmental factors also play a role
freckles
come and go with sun exposure
melasma
facial hyperpig due to pregancy
when would you see a petechial heme
overwhelming bacterial infection
what does silica do to the lungs
causes fibrotic response over long period of exposure
what occurs in both restrictive and obstructive lungdisease
pumlanry artery thickening
most common result of pulmonary thromboembolis
nothing--most are asymptomatic
most likely food contaminants
salmonella
cambylobacter
osteum secundum
most common septo atrial defect
results in left-to -right shunting
congenital hypothyroidism
short, coarse features, proturding tongue
what tumors typically arise from VIII
shwannomas
red cast cells
form when proteinuria is present
most common cause of UTI
e.coli
which cancers are alcoholics at greater risk of
mouth, pharynx, esophagous
a deficiency in which vitamin can lead to increased respiratory infections
vitamin A
most common location for neuroblastoma
adrenal glands
all T cells express
CD3
do T cells have MHCII
not usually, only when expression is induced by a viral infection
is the classic/complement pathway innate
no, it is triggered by antibodies
what is most impt in tissue compatability in transplantation
MHCII
in complement...which pathway does C1 activate
classic
organ most difficult to transplant due to compatibility
bone marrow
is IgA specific
yes
mechanism for B cell afinnity maturaiton
somatic hypermutation
what does CD8 bind
MHCI
what does CD4 bind
MHCII
what is necessary for the complement membrane attack complex
C3
j chain
only in IgM and IgA
cytotoxic T cells kill pathogens by
inducing apoptosis
allotransplantation
recipeint and donor are same species
hyperacute graft rejection
occurs within hours
mediated by preformed antibody and complement
superantigen
activated many clones of T cells
which antibody is most effective at acivaing complement
IgM
which antibodies can activate complement
IgM and IgG
collagen in basement membrane
type IV
merocrine gland
exocytosis
apocrine gland
secretes membrane bound droplets
brush border of epithelial cell is made of
microvilli
what layer of skin is thickened most on palms
stratum corneum
kupffer cells
macrophages
where does vasa recta arise form the kidney
efferent arterioles of juxtaglom
what tissue does the nasolacrimal system develop from
surface ectoderm
which neuroblasitc layer are amacrine cells in
inner
first region of the choroid to develop
choriocapillaris
neuroglial tissue of the optic nerve is derived from
neural ectoderm
where are MG derived from
surface ectoderm of the eyelid
outer neuroblastic layer
photoRs, bipolar, horizontal
inner neuroblastic layer
amacrine, ganglion, muller
where is schlemms canal derived from
deep scleral plexus
orbital bones are derived from
mesenchyme
which layer of the retina recieves both reitnal and choroidal blood supply
OPL
what blocks fluorescein from leaving choroid during FA
RPE tight junctions
which CN is closest to the internal carotid as it enters the cavernous sinus
VI
location of bulbar conj cells
limbus
location of palpebral conj stem cells
mucocutaneous junction
horners muscle
surrounds lacrimal caniliculi
part of orbicularis oculi
whixh tear gland produces protein and lactoferrin
lacrimal
how does corneal hypoxua affect pH
will lower intracellular pH
what does the NaK pump on the endothelium of the cornea do
pumps Na out of the cornea
what do epithelial NaKCl cotransporters do
move Cl into cornea
wht does the CL channl on the corneal epithelium do
moves Cl out
where do pregang paras carrying accomodation info originate
EW nucleus
which has more protein--older or younger lens fibers
older--more protein deeper in lens
what does bulk flow move
high MW substances
why does the percentage of liquid vitreous increase with age
increase of soluble protein and hyaluronic acid
granulomatous inflammation
collections of large activated macrophages with squamous-like appearance
fungal granulomatous infections
histo
blastomycosis
foreign body granuloma causes
suture
vascular graft
bacterial granuloma cause
Tb
leprosy
hypersensitivity reaction in rheumatic fever
Type II
what type of reaction is Rh disease
Type II
what occurs in Rh disease
Mom's antigens cross placenta and attack fetal erythrocyte antigens
what mediates Type II reactions
IgM or IgG
what are examples of Type III reactions
immune complex glomerulonephritis
SLE
RA
what mediates a Type IV reaction
sensitized T cells encounter antigen and release leukokinin, Macrophages are activated
what is seen in SLE
butterfly rash*
joint pain*
+ ANA*
photosens
arthritis
various systemic disordfers
most common immundef
IgA def--seen with recurrign URT infections and corneal keratinization
cause of kaposis sarcoma
herpes virus HHV-8
progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
demyelinating disorder affecting 1% of AIDS patients
klinefelter
XXY
most common cause primary male hypogonadism
turners
XO
most common cause primary amehorrhea
edwards ocular manifestation
microopthalmos
chromosomein huntingtons
4, AD
gardners syndrome
variant of FAP with multifocal CHRPEs in the fundus
what percent of african americans are SC carriers
8%
anemia from chronic kidney disease
decreased EPO made in kidney
when might leukocytosis occur
infection, stress, pregnancy
neutrophilia
stress, pain, fear, exercise, infection
thrombocytosis
inc platelemts, due to inflamm, kidney disease, spleen removal
causes of otitis media
strep pneumoniae
h. influnenzae
how to distinguish true vertigo
presents with nystagmus
cause of acute bacterial sialadenitis
s. aureus

infection of parotid or submandibular gland
what gland do salivary tumors affect most
parotid, mostly benign
internal carotid stroke sx
ipsilateral blindness and contralateral hemiparesis
subarachnoid stroke
sudden severe HA, CN III palsy, cahnge in consciousness
often due to rupture of intracranial aneyrysm
5-10% all strokes
intracrneail aneurysm
at bifurcations, ie circle of willis
spntanteous intracerebral hemorrhage
basal gang, pons, thalamsu
risk: HTN, bleeding disorder
status epilepticus
seizure lasting more than 5 minutes
glioblastoma multiforme prognosis
less than 1 year
most common benign brain tumor
meningioma
uhtoff's phenomenon
decreased acuity after increase in body temp
often seen in MS optic neuritis patients
leukodystrophy
inherited
kids
improper myelin formation and maintenance
athersclerosis lab results
inc total cholesterol
dec HDL
inc LDL
inc CRP
when might a pt have a bruit
carotid artery disease
braciocephalic artery disease
which side CHF results in pulm edema?
lower extremeity edema?
ascites?
L
R
R
post-strep glomerulonephritis
group A beta hemolytic streptococci
more common in kids
prostate cancer lab result
elevated PSA
gonorrhea tx
ceftriaxone 125mg IM
doxy 100 mg po BID x 7 days (chlamydia cover)
preeclampsia sign
BP > 140
proteinuria
swelling in lower extremities
eclampsia
preeclampsia + seizures
bronchiectasis
chronic bronchiole infection

dilated airway
purulent sputum
recurrent infection
assoc with broncial obstruction, cystic fibrosis, poor ciliary motility
cause of walking pneumonia
mycoplasma pneumoniae
incidence major depression
30%