• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/127

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

127 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what's the type of chromosomal abnormality
constitutional abnormality
somatic abnormality
when and where does the constitutional abnormality occor?
all cells of the body
early in developement, result of abnormal sperm or egg, or very early embryo.
what is mosaic
somatic abnormality
contains cells with different chromosome constitutions, with cells from the same zygote.
what's the classes of numerical chromosomal abnormality
polyploid: aneuploid
mixoploid
what's the polyploid include
triploid-two sperms fertilize one egg
tetraploid-DNA duplication, no cell division
what's aneuploid ,euploidy
euploidy-all chromosomes
aneu-an extra copy or missing from euploid
what's the mechanism of aneuplod
nondisjuction
anaphase lag分裂后期延滞
nondisjuction in mitosis produce___
mosaic
what's mixoploid
one dividual has 2or more genetically different cell lineages
what dose mixoploid include
mosaicism-from one zygote
chimerism-from different zygotes
whose clinical consequences of numerical abnormality are more serious, sex chromosome or autosome
autosome, lethal
what's the reason of structure chromosormal abnormality
misrepair of chromosome bread
malfunction of recombination system
which structure chromosomal abnormalities are unstable
acentric
dicentric
what's the isochromosome等臂染色体
arise from abnormal U type exchange between sister chromotids just next to the centromere of a chromosome. consists of either two p arms and 2 q arms.
symmetric
which structure chromosomal abnormalities have one break
terminal deletion
which stucture chromosomal abnormalities have 2 breaks
1 chromosome: interstitial del,inv, ring,
2 ch: reciprocal translocation
robertsonian translocation
which have 3breaks
1 ch:inv+del, intrachromosomal insertion
why robertsonian translocation is stable with 2 centromeres presented
they function as one
balanced structure chromosomal abnormality
inversion, balanced translocation(reciprocal and rovertsonian)
unbalanced struccture ab
del,dup,
uniparental diploidy is seen in__
hydatidiform moles葡萄胎
abnormal conceptus with 46,xx karyotype of exclusively(only) paternal origin is __
hydatidiform mole
what's the cause of uniparental disomy(upd)单亲二倍体
trisomy rescue三染色体自救
UPD involves __
isodisomy-identical homologs
heterdisomy-derived from both homologs in one parent.
When two people with AR congenital hearing loss marry, their children most often have normal hearing, that's an example of ___
complementation
what's nonpenetrance
failure of a dominant condition to manifest
a dominant character is manifest in a heterozygous person, so the penetrance is__
100%
a normal person having parents with dominant disease, so does he/she have the risk to have affected child
yes, because nonpenetrance
example of age-related penetrance in late-onset disease
Huntington
what's the reason of late-onset disease
slow accumulation of a noxious substance
slow tissue death
imrepair of some form of enviromental damage
what's the typical problem of doominant diseases
nonpenetrance
variable expression
what's anticipation
describes the tendency of some variable dominant conditions to become more sever in successive generations
examples of anticipation
huntington
fragile X,
myotomic dystrophy
what's the sex bias in x linked dominant
only see affected females
because affected males are dead before birth
mutation in germline can cause ____inherited disease in a child
de novo
bulk of the mitochondrial polypeptides are encoded by ___and are synthesized on ___, before being import to mitochondria
nuclear
cytoplasmic ribosomes
where are pseudogenes and gene fragments from
gene duplication
what's the total number of pseudogenes
20,000
a sizable component is organized in tandem head-to-tail repeats, but the majority consist of interspersed repeats which have originated from RNA transcripts by____
retrotransposition
what's the characteristics of mitochondrial genome's structure
double strand
circle
16,569 bp in length
44% GC
heavy strand-rich in G
light strand-rich in C
a smal section show triple-DNA strand
no introns
overlapping
what's the triple-DNA strand of mitochondrial genome from
repetitive synthesis of a short segment of heavy strand DNA---7S DNA
what's the other name of triple DNA strand
D-loop
where is the transcription promoters of mitochondria
D-loop
what are the direction of transcription of H or L strands
H-clcckwise
L-anticlockwise
the component of mitochondrial genome
22 tRna
2 rRna-23r and 16r
13 encoding
which is the sense strand in mitochondria,H or L
28of 37 are H
other are L
stop codes
uaa,uag
aga, agg
how many mitochondrial sense codes?
60
what's the function of third base wobble
differ only at the third code
% of coding DNA in nulcear and mitochondria,
1.5
93
the gene density of nuclear and mitochondria
1/100
1/0.45
dark G bands are____GC content
low
5-methylation of CpG is deamination to____
T
which rRna are encoded by single transcription unit
28s,5.8sand 18s
where is the single transcription unit
ch13,14,15,21,22
who involved in Rna splicing
snRna
who involved in Rna modification and processing
snoRna
what are the classes of replicative transposition
LINEs
SINEs(Alu)
LTRs
which enzyme the trancription process use
DNA-dependant RNA polymerase
the direction of transcription
5 to 3
the RNA polymerase enzymes classify and fuction
I-most rRna
II-all mRna and most snRna
III-5srRna and tRna
VI-mitochondria
3 levels of gene regulation control
transcriptional control
post-transcriptional control
epigenetic control
what the function of transcriptional control
transcriptional initiation(cis and trans)
promoter selection
what's cis-action elements conclud?
tata box
gc box
caat box
cAmp response element
hormone response element
extended promoter include
enhance
silencer-inhibit the transcription
proximal and core promoter's location
-50~-200
-45~45
tRna promoter is bipartite promoter that consist of _
two well conserved sequences:A box and B box
% of human promoter are bidirectional
10
the characteristics of bidirection promoter
lack tata box
most coregulate expression of 2 genes
single Rna polymerase site
example of bidirection promoter
Factor VIII gene
F8A and F8B
what's the trans-actiong element
factors which associate genes that are different from the ones they originate from
examples of trans-acting elements
transcription factor
coactivators
corepressors
how the trans-actiong elements works
bink the first intron of gene
the function of trans
modify the rate of transcription
modify the pattern of expression
transcription factors are divided into two groups, they are_
general transcription group
sequence-specific
what's general transcription group fuction
bind core promotor
control the expression of base
example of general transcription group
tata box binding protein(TBP)
TBP associated factor
what's the function of sequence-special transcription group
bind Dna regulator elements
modulate basal expression
example of sstg
c-Jun, c-Myc,stat,pax,creb
most tfs bind to Dna as__, which dimerize via trancactivation domain
homodimers
what's the structure motifs found in Dna binding domain
leucine zipper
zinc finger
helix loop helix
helix turn helix
alpha helix and beta sheet bind to ___of Dna
major groove
amino acid of alpha helix and beta sheet indicate___
Dna-binding specificity
why other protein which play an important role in the regulation of transcription can't be classified to tf?
because they lack Dna binding domain
other modulators of transcription include_
co-activator
co-repressor
histone modification
chromotin remodelers
Dna methylation
why histone modification can regulate transcription
transcriptionally inactived Dna is organized in condensed chromotin, which tightly associated with histone
histone modification includes___
acetylation
methylation
what's histone acetyltransferase
add acetyl to histone
active transcriptiong
through reducing affinity of Dna and histone
what's histone deacetylase
remove acetyl from histone
repress transcription
the difference between Dna and histone methylation is
histone depend on residues methylated
in histone, methyltransferase target______
argine-activne trans
lysine-repressive trans
what's chromotin remodeling complex
with ATPase activity
interact with methylated or acetylate lysine residues in histone
result in repositioning of nucleosomes
making Dna accessible to trans-acting protein
what are the mutation of trans
me-rett syd
mll-all
fox-dysphaxia
tel-aml---leuk
tfih-xeo
tp53--li fa
sry-pitu
wti--wilm
plm--apl
von--retina
cbfbeta-aml
ig--lymphoma
ews--ewing
promoter selection in transcription control is
UDP-glucuronosyltransferase1A
what's the primary products of mRna transcription
hnRna
or
primary transcript
where is the primary products in
nucleus
the nuclear processing of hnRna
add 5' G cap
methylation of 7' of G cap
cleavage of 3'
add poly A
splicing to remove introns
Rna edit
what's the fucntion of 7' methyl G cap
protects transcription degradation
facilitates transport to cytoplasm
facilitates Rna splicing
coordination attachment of ribosome
what's the function of poly A tail
protects 5'-3' exonuclase activity
facility transportion to cytoplasm
stabilize mRna molecular
facilitate translation
what happened when poly A signal mutate
reduce globin expression in beta-thalassemias海洋性贫血
mRna stability may alter
example of mutation of poly A tail
Burkitt's lyphoma
t(8;14)translocates MYC gene to Ig gene promoter
what' s the 5' splicing site and 3' splicing site in Rna splicing
gu
ag
what's Rna editing
the mRna sequence changed when post-transcription control, so the amino acid sequence of the encoded is changed.
what's the substitution editing
deamination of C to U
A to I
the substitution mRna editing in human is
APOB gene transcript
Glutamate receptor B-subunit A transcript
mutation in deamninases will cause___
AID gene(actived-induced cytidine deaminase)
high Ig M, low other Igs
epigenetic control includes ___
Dna methylation
histone modification
what epigenetic methylation cause?
monoallelic expression or imprinting
cell memory
what assist the binding of ribosome in the translation
5'and 3' UTR, 5' cap, 3' poly A tail
what's the function of 5' and 3' UTR in translation
5' regulate rate of translation
3' controling the stability of mRna
the machanism of microRna interfere with mRna translation
miRna binds 3' UTR
inhibation translation
degradation of mRna
miRna can be used to diagnose because
its expression pattern differs
what's the function of Dna polymorphisms
identify individuals
identify and track individual chromosomal loci
examples of allelic heterogeneity
CFTR
cystic fibrosis transduction receptor
examples of locus heterogenety
skeletal dysplasias--collagenII and XI
tuberous sclerosis--TSC1and2
family brease cancer--BRCA1and2
spinocerebellar ataxias--SCA1,2,3,6,8,7,12
examples of clinical heterogeneity
beta-globin--sickle cell
beta thalassemia
PMP22--
collagen II--stickler
kniest
mitochondrial disorder is
pleiotrophic
mechanism for imprinting
differential methylation of chromosomal regions and regulatory elements
examples of genomic imprinting
prader-willi---15q11-13from paternal
angelman----same from maternal
examples of AD
Mafan, NF1, achondroplasia, myotonic dystrophy, family amyloidosis
what's compound heterozygotes,
same location, different allele
AR occure in
examples of AR
CF, Tay-Sachs, AR deafness, galactosemia, phenylketonuria
example of XLD
Rett syndrom---Mecp2
examples of XLR
G6PD deficiency
hemophilla A
Turner syndrom
skewed X-inactivation
genes on ch Y
azoospermia factor
sex determing-region Y factor
smallest structural abnormalities visible by standard cytogeneticsis__
4mb
example of chromosomal deletion
Cri-du-chat syndrom
del(5p)
Gilomas
del(1p,19q)