Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
154 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Microbial Growth:
|
Increase in number of DNA, RNA, and protein synthesis
|
|
Binary Fission:
1) definition 2) 2 step process |
Cell division
1) duplicate DNA 2) separate |
|
Bacterial example of Asexual Division, and amount of time required to divide?
|
E. Coli divides every 20 minutes under optium conditions
|
|
Generation time:
|
Amount of time required for a population to double in 1-3 hours
|
|
4 environmental factors that affect growth?
|
Temperature
pH Water availablity oxygen |
|
Optimum temperature for human pathogens?
|
37* C or 98.6* F
|
|
Why is freezing important?
|
inhibts the growth of bacteria, but does not kill bacteria.
(reason you don't refreeze food after allowing to thaw) |
|
Psychrophile:
|
Grows best at 15* C
|
|
What is the average refrigerator temperature?
|
4-10* C
|
|
Mesophile:
|
Grow best from 10-39* C
(almost all human pathogens fall in this category) |
|
Thermophiles:
|
grow from 39-60* C
(found in hot springs, water heater) usually low in number |
|
Hyperthermophile:
|
grow from 60-100* C
|
|
enzymes are usually resistant to high temperatures, what can cause them to be immune?
|
amino acid substitutions
|
|
what temperature does the eukaryotic amoebae grow at?
|
60* C
|
|
What is the pH of the natural environment?
|
5-9
|
|
What is the optimal pH for most bacteria?
|
6.5-7.5
|
|
What form of growth is acid tolerant?
|
Fungi
|
|
what causes fruit spoilage?
|
Fungi
|
|
What bacteria can grow in the stomach, which has an acidity of 4?
|
Helicobactor Pylori
|
|
Where is H. Pylori said to originate from?
|
House cat and well water
|
|
Zoonatic disease?
|
disease humans get from animals
|
|
Hypertonic environment
|
if there is a higher concentration of salts outside of the cell, the water from the bacteria will leave the cell to try to reach equilibrium, thus causing cell death
|
|
what is an example of a bacteria that can grow on human skin because it is resistant to high salt concentrations?
|
Staphylococcus Aureus
|
|
Why is a hypertonic environment important in sterilization and food preservation?
|
Salt can be used to dehydrate meat etc. and cause bacterial cells to die because of dehydration
|
|
what are the three different forms of oxygen requirements?
|
Obligate aerobe
obligate anaerobe faculatative anaerobe |
|
Obligate Aerobe:
|
bacteria that can grow only in the PRESENCE of oxygen
|
|
Obligate Anaerobe:
|
Bacteria that can grow only in the ABSENCE of oxygen
|
|
Facultative Anaerobes:
|
Bacteria that can grow in the absense of oxygen, but will use oxygen if it is present
|
|
What are 3 forms of culture media?
|
Chemically defined media
Complex media Selective media |
|
Chemically defined media:
|
Exact chemical composition is known (every amino acid, vitamin, sugar, etc)
Not used often |
|
Complex Media
|
Exact chemical composition varies from batch to batch
contains complex aditives such as milk, blood, meat digest, etc. |
|
What kind of complex media is commonly used in medical situations to cultivate human pathogens?
|
5% sheep blood agar
|
|
Selective media:
|
Designed to suppress the growth of unwanted bacteria
can contain antibiotics or salts |
|
Microbial Control:
|
not always killing, but sufficiently inhibiting growth (key to regrigerator)
|
|
Sterilization;
|
The process of destroying or removing all forms of microbial life including spores and virus'
|
|
what are the 5 ways to sterilize?
|
Moist heat
dry heat gas ionizing radiation non-ionizing radiation |
|
Most heat sterilization:
|
121* C for 15 minutes under 15 obs of pressure
boiling water will kill most vegetative forms and bacteria (boiled for 10 minutes) |
|
Dry Heat:
|
170* C for 2 hours
important for cooking meat |
|
Gas:
|
4-18 hours exposure inEthalene oxide
important for sterilizing heat sensitive materials |
|
Autoclave:
|
machine that uses moist heat and pressure to sterilize objects
|
|
Ionizing Radiation:
|
Penetrates very well
Gamma rays often used no residual radioactivity |
|
non-ionizing radiation:
|
does not penetrate well
no very effective at killing MO's ex. microwave |
|
Disinfection:
|
Process of destroying vegetative pathogens, but not necessarily sproes or virus'
does not mean sterilized |
|
7 ways to disinfect:
|
PHENOL is a boy who has a HALO(gens) because he doesn't drink ALCOHOL or listen to HEAVY METAL. ALDEHYDE is a girl who OXIDIZES (OXIDIZING AGENT) her brain with QUATERNARY AMMONIA.
|
|
how do most disinfectants function?
|
Denatures proteins and disrupts cell membranes
|
|
Disinfectant:
|
the application of antimicrobial compounds to NON-LIVING objects
|
|
Antiseptic-
|
the application of antimicrobial compounds to LIVING TISSUE
|
|
Phenol:
|
Lysol
hexochlorophene cholohexidine |
|
Halogens:
|
Consist primarily of Iodine and Chlorine
ex. tincture of iodine(dissolved in alcohol) Chlorine Bleach Betadine (sticky antiseptic) |
|
Alcohols:
|
ETOH- ethyl alcohol (result of fermentation)
hospitals don't use because people drink it Isopropyl |
|
Heavy Metals:
|
Gold, copper, silver, mercury
Copper pipes in plumbing copper sulfate in pools |
|
Soaps and Detergents:
|
reffered to as emolsification agents because the coat things.
Do not kill MO's in and of themselves, must have additives |
|
Aldehydes:
|
Farmaldehyde
Glutaraldehyde (cold sterilization) |
|
Oxidizing Agents:
|
H2O2
benzoyl Peroxide |
|
Quaternary Ammonia
|
Compounds
mouthwash (cepacol) |
|
What specific bacteria are hard to kill with disinfectants?
|
Hepatitis and microbacterium (TB)
|
|
Nucleic Acids:
|
Long polymers of nucleotides that make DNA and RNA
|
|
What cause changes in the information carried and transferred in DNA/RNA?
|
variability in nitrogenous bases
|
|
How many units in RNA?
|
80-200,000 nucleotide units
|
|
How many units in DNA?
|
several million nucleotide units
|
|
Pyrimidines:
|
one ring structures:
Thymine Uracil Cytosine |
|
Purines
|
two ring structures:
Adenine and Guanine |
|
Two DNA strands are said to be:
|
complimentary (A-T, C-G)
and anti-parallel (one strand will be the 5' end while the other is the 3' end) |
|
Each DNA/RNA molecule contains:
|
Phophate group, sugar, nitrogenous base
|
|
A binds to ? in DNA?
|
T
|
|
C binds to what?
|
G
|
|
A binds to what in RNA?
|
U
|
|
T is in what?
|
DNA
|
|
U is in what?
|
RNA
|
|
DNA is ? because each ?? recieves a single strand from the ??
|
semiconservative
daughter chromatids parent cell |
|
What direction does DNA replicate in?
|
5' to 3'
|
|
What are the gaps in the discontinuous strand?
|
Okazaki fragments
|
|
What attaches okazaki fragments?
|
DNA Ligase
|
|
DNA polymerase:
|
Attaches the newly formed DNA strands
|
|
Main enzyme thatuncoiles the super coild in bacterial DNA?
|
DNA gyrase
|
|
Transcription:
|
the synthesis of a complimentary strand of RNA from a DNA template
|
|
What direction is RNA synthesized in?
|
5' --> 3'
|
|
Sense strand:
|
portion of DNA that undergoes transcription
|
|
non-sense strand:
|
portion of DNA that does not undergo transcription
|
|
3 types of RNA:
|
mRNA
tRNA rRNA |
|
messenger RNA
|
bears the message for protein synthesis
|
|
transfer RNA
|
carries the amino acids to the site of protein synthesis
|
|
ribosomal RNA
|
a component of the ribosomes
|
|
Gene:
|
a segment of DNA that codes for polypeptides by a messenger, ribosomal, and transfer RNA
|
|
where are genes located in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?
|
chromosomes
|
|
What is the flow of genetic information?
|
DNA--> RNA (transcription) --> protein(translation)
|
|
amino acid sequence in protein is directly related to the.....
|
nitrogenous base in DNA
|
|
DNA is a template for....
|
amino acid sequence
|
|
at one particular time, only ? strand is synthesized
|
one
|
|
what is the product of transcription?
|
RNA
|
|
RNA polymerase:
|
responsible for RNA synthesis
|
|
once synthesized, where does RNA travel?
|
cytoplasm
|
|
Eucaryotic RNA arises from what process?
|
post transcriptional modification
|
|
Split Genes:
|
different segments within RNA in eukaryotic cells
|
|
what happens in post transcription modification?
|
introns are discarded from the RNA and the only exons remain to make up the final product
|
|
Junk RNA
|
97% of human DNA that appear to be introns
|
|
Terminator region of the DNA:
|
the endpoint for transcription of a gene
|
|
Translation:
|
the process in which the genetic message carried by the mRNA directs the synthesis of polypeptide chains with the aid of ribosomes
|
|
Codon
|
a set of 3 nucleotide bases that code for a single amino acid
|
|
Exons:
|
Regions of DNA that undergo transcription and end up in the final product
|
|
Introns:
|
regions that undergo transcription but are removed from the RNA transcript
|
|
Translation:
|
Copy strand (mRNA goes to a ribosome and the ribosome makes a polypeptide chain using the code the mRNA carries as a template
|
|
Number of Amino acids:
|
21
|
|
how many nitrougenous bases in a codon?
|
3
|
|
how many possible codon's?
|
64
|
|
how many sense codons?
|
61
|
|
how many non-sense codons?
|
3
|
|
Sense Codon:
|
code for insertion of amino acids into a polypeptide chain
|
|
Non-sense codon:
|
UGA, UAG, UAA
will cause the ribosome to disassociate from the mRNA and stop translation |
|
A change in the DNA base sequence will cause....
|
a change in the amino acid sequence
|
|
Point Mutation:
|
A single base at one point in the DNA is replaced with a different base
|
|
Frame shift mutation:
|
when one or more nucleotide base pairs are deleted or inserted into DNA
|
|
What does frame shift mutation lead to?
|
a shift in the reading frame of the mRNA
|
|
Chemical mutagens:
|
a chemical that causes a mutation
(main cause of mutation) |
|
Almost all chemical mutagens are:
|
base analogs
|
|
Base Analog:
|
chemicals that are similar to nitrogenous bases and get incorporated into DNA
|
|
Example of base analog:
|
2-amino purine
incorporated in place of adenine but pairs with cytosine causes incorrect RNA and therefore incorrect proteins |
|
What is the easiest way to tell if a chemical can be incorporated to cells?
|
use bacteria because all DNA is the same, and they reproduce and divide so quickly.
|
|
Ames Test:
|
a test that uses a strain of alminella to test chemicals for their mutagenicity and thus their potential carcinogenicity
|
|
What does UV light do to thymine?
|
causes thymine dimmers
|
|
Thymine dymmer:
|
if uv light hits a segmant of DNA that has two thymins, (TT), the UV ray can cause them to fuse together, causing it to be read as 1 thymine instead of two
|
|
what is the general spontaneous mutation rate?
|
1 per 10^9 replicated base pairs
|
|
How many base pairs is the average gene?
|
10^3
|
|
what is the average mutation rate?
|
1 to 1,000,000
|
|
vast majority of ? are ? in nature and are often ?
|
mutations, harmful, carcinogenic
|
|
how do you block the transfer of antibiotic resistance?
|
block the transfer of DNA between bacteria
|
|
what are the 3 types of bacterial DNA transfer?
|
Transformation
Conjugation Transduction |
|
Transformation:
|
the transfer of asked pieces of DNA from one bacteria to another
|
|
what is the term for DNA picked up by a bacterial cell in transformation?
|
recombinant DNA
|
|
Conjugation:
|
DNA is passed as plasmids are transferred from one bacteria to another
|
|
Plasmid:
|
small, circular, extrachromosomal DNA
|
|
Transduction:
|
genetic transfer mediated by virus' called bacteriophages
|
|
Bacteriophage:
|
a virus that afects only bacteria
(looks like a spaceship) |
|
Genetic Engineering:
|
the deliberate modification of an organisms genetic information by directly changing its uceotide sequence
|
|
Recombanant DNA technology:
|
the collection of methods used in genetic engineering
|
|
? plays a constant and important role in biotechnology
|
bacteria
|
|
how is diabetes an example of biotechnology?
|
scientists found through studies on insulin that we can let bacteria make a desired product and then give that product to a definicient individual
|
|
Gene Therapy:
|
concept of recoding a defective DNA sequence
not yet effective |
|
Why is it difficult to use eukaryotic cells in genetic ingineering?
|
DNA must cross a large area to get to the nucleus
|
|
RFLP
|
Restriction Fragment Length polymorphism
requires about a quarter size amount of sample |
|
PCR (what does the acronym stand for)
|
Polymerase chain reaction
|
|
rDNA
|
recombanant DNA products
|
|
examples of rDNA:
|
hepatitis vaccine, HCG
|
|
purpose of genetic probes
|
helpful in identifying a bacterium or a genetic disease
|
|
Probe:
|
a DNA or RNA molecule which is used to locate a complimentary RNA or DNA by hybridizing with it
|
|
Hybrid:
|
double stranded nucleic acid in which the two strands differ in origin
|
|
Aligonucleotide synthesis:
|
production of short pieces of DNA 2-3 base pairs long
|
|
Primers are used for?
|
PCR -->manufacture copies of a segment of DNA
|
|
In a stain or culture media you can:
|
extract DNA, and then heat to see if it will bind to identify bacteria
|
|
Who developed the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?
|
Kery Mulis
|
|
Polymerase chain reaction:
|
an in vitro reaction in which a specific region of DNA is amplified many times by repeated synthesis of DNA using DNA polymerase and specific primers to define the ends of the amplified region
|
|
what is the application of PCR?
|
makes large quantities of a particular DNA sequence
|
|
PCR process:
|
1) synthesize graments with sequences identical to those flanking the targeted sequence
2) heat denature dsDNA to separate complementary strands 3) add primers in excess and lwer temp to allow primers to anneal to DNA 4) add nucleoside triphosphates and DNA polymerase 5) DNA polymerase extends the primers and synthesizes copies of target DNA sequence 6)repeat heating and cooling 7) use heat stable polymerase from a thermophilic bacteria |
|
what are 4 aspects of recombanant DNA technology?
|
restriction in endonucleases
DNA ligases join ends of DNA plasmids gram negative bacteria |