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154 Cards in this Set

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Microbial Growth:
Increase in number of DNA, RNA, and protein synthesis
Binary Fission:
1) definition
2) 2 step process
Cell division

1) duplicate DNA
2) separate
Bacterial example of Asexual Division, and amount of time required to divide?
E. Coli divides every 20 minutes under optium conditions
Generation time:
Amount of time required for a population to double in 1-3 hours
4 environmental factors that affect growth?
Temperature
pH
Water availablity
oxygen
Optimum temperature for human pathogens?
37* C or 98.6* F
Why is freezing important?
inhibts the growth of bacteria, but does not kill bacteria.

(reason you don't refreeze food after allowing to thaw)
Psychrophile:
Grows best at 15* C
What is the average refrigerator temperature?
4-10* C
Mesophile:
Grow best from 10-39* C

(almost all human pathogens fall in this category)
Thermophiles:
grow from 39-60* C

(found in hot springs, water heater)
usually low in number
Hyperthermophile:
grow from 60-100* C
enzymes are usually resistant to high temperatures, what can cause them to be immune?
amino acid substitutions
what temperature does the eukaryotic amoebae grow at?
60* C
What is the pH of the natural environment?
5-9
What is the optimal pH for most bacteria?
6.5-7.5
What form of growth is acid tolerant?
Fungi
what causes fruit spoilage?
Fungi
What bacteria can grow in the stomach, which has an acidity of 4?
Helicobactor Pylori
Where is H. Pylori said to originate from?
House cat and well water
Zoonatic disease?
disease humans get from animals
Hypertonic environment
if there is a higher concentration of salts outside of the cell, the water from the bacteria will leave the cell to try to reach equilibrium, thus causing cell death
what is an example of a bacteria that can grow on human skin because it is resistant to high salt concentrations?
Staphylococcus Aureus
Why is a hypertonic environment important in sterilization and food preservation?
Salt can be used to dehydrate meat etc. and cause bacterial cells to die because of dehydration
what are the three different forms of oxygen requirements?
Obligate aerobe
obligate anaerobe
faculatative anaerobe
Obligate Aerobe:
bacteria that can grow only in the PRESENCE of oxygen
Obligate Anaerobe:
Bacteria that can grow only in the ABSENCE of oxygen
Facultative Anaerobes:
Bacteria that can grow in the absense of oxygen, but will use oxygen if it is present
What are 3 forms of culture media?
Chemically defined media
Complex media
Selective media
Chemically defined media:
Exact chemical composition is known (every amino acid, vitamin, sugar, etc)
Not used often
Complex Media
Exact chemical composition varies from batch to batch

contains complex aditives such as milk, blood, meat digest, etc.
What kind of complex media is commonly used in medical situations to cultivate human pathogens?
5% sheep blood agar
Selective media:
Designed to suppress the growth of unwanted bacteria

can contain antibiotics or salts
Microbial Control:
not always killing, but sufficiently inhibiting growth (key to regrigerator)
Sterilization;
The process of destroying or removing all forms of microbial life including spores and virus'
what are the 5 ways to sterilize?
Moist heat
dry heat
gas
ionizing radiation
non-ionizing radiation
Most heat sterilization:
121* C for 15 minutes under 15 obs of pressure

boiling water will kill most vegetative forms and bacteria (boiled for 10 minutes)
Dry Heat:
170* C for 2 hours

important for cooking meat
Gas:
4-18 hours exposure inEthalene oxide

important for sterilizing heat sensitive materials
Autoclave:
machine that uses moist heat and pressure to sterilize objects
Ionizing Radiation:
Penetrates very well
Gamma rays often used
no residual radioactivity
non-ionizing radiation:
does not penetrate well
no very effective at killing MO's
ex. microwave
Disinfection:
Process of destroying vegetative pathogens, but not necessarily sproes or virus'

does not mean sterilized
7 ways to disinfect:
PHENOL is a boy who has a HALO(gens) because he doesn't drink ALCOHOL or listen to HEAVY METAL. ALDEHYDE is a girl who OXIDIZES (OXIDIZING AGENT) her brain with QUATERNARY AMMONIA.
how do most disinfectants function?
Denatures proteins and disrupts cell membranes
Disinfectant:
the application of antimicrobial compounds to NON-LIVING objects
Antiseptic-
the application of antimicrobial compounds to LIVING TISSUE
Phenol:
Lysol
hexochlorophene
cholohexidine
Halogens:
Consist primarily of Iodine and Chlorine

ex. tincture of iodine(dissolved in alcohol)
Chlorine Bleach
Betadine (sticky antiseptic)
Alcohols:
ETOH- ethyl alcohol (result of fermentation)
hospitals don't use because people drink it

Isopropyl
Heavy Metals:
Gold, copper, silver, mercury

Copper pipes in plumbing
copper sulfate in pools
Soaps and Detergents:
reffered to as emolsification agents because the coat things.

Do not kill MO's in and of themselves, must have additives
Aldehydes:
Farmaldehyde
Glutaraldehyde (cold sterilization)
Oxidizing Agents:
H2O2
benzoyl Peroxide
Quaternary Ammonia
Compounds
mouthwash (cepacol)
What specific bacteria are hard to kill with disinfectants?
Hepatitis and microbacterium (TB)
Nucleic Acids:
Long polymers of nucleotides that make DNA and RNA
What cause changes in the information carried and transferred in DNA/RNA?
variability in nitrogenous bases
How many units in RNA?
80-200,000 nucleotide units
How many units in DNA?
several million nucleotide units
Pyrimidines:
one ring structures:
Thymine
Uracil
Cytosine
Purines
two ring structures:
Adenine and Guanine
Two DNA strands are said to be:
complimentary (A-T, C-G)
and
anti-parallel (one strand will be the 5' end while the other is the 3' end)
Each DNA/RNA molecule contains:
Phophate group, sugar, nitrogenous base
A binds to ? in DNA?
T
C binds to what?
G
A binds to what in RNA?
U
T is in what?
DNA
U is in what?
RNA
DNA is ? because each ?? recieves a single strand from the ??
semiconservative
daughter chromatids
parent cell
What direction does DNA replicate in?
5' to 3'
What are the gaps in the discontinuous strand?
Okazaki fragments
What attaches okazaki fragments?
DNA Ligase
DNA polymerase:
Attaches the newly formed DNA strands
Main enzyme thatuncoiles the super coild in bacterial DNA?
DNA gyrase
Transcription:
the synthesis of a complimentary strand of RNA from a DNA template
What direction is RNA synthesized in?
5' --> 3'
Sense strand:
portion of DNA that undergoes transcription
non-sense strand:
portion of DNA that does not undergo transcription
3 types of RNA:
mRNA
tRNA
rRNA
messenger RNA
bears the message for protein synthesis
transfer RNA
carries the amino acids to the site of protein synthesis
ribosomal RNA
a component of the ribosomes
Gene:
a segment of DNA that codes for polypeptides by a messenger, ribosomal, and transfer RNA
where are genes located in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?
chromosomes
What is the flow of genetic information?
DNA--> RNA (transcription) --> protein(translation)
amino acid sequence in protein is directly related to the.....
nitrogenous base in DNA
DNA is a template for....
amino acid sequence
at one particular time, only ? strand is synthesized
one
what is the product of transcription?
RNA
RNA polymerase:
responsible for RNA synthesis
once synthesized, where does RNA travel?
cytoplasm
Eucaryotic RNA arises from what process?
post transcriptional modification
Split Genes:
different segments within RNA in eukaryotic cells
what happens in post transcription modification?
introns are discarded from the RNA and the only exons remain to make up the final product
Junk RNA
97% of human DNA that appear to be introns
Terminator region of the DNA:
the endpoint for transcription of a gene
Translation:
the process in which the genetic message carried by the mRNA directs the synthesis of polypeptide chains with the aid of ribosomes
Codon
a set of 3 nucleotide bases that code for a single amino acid
Exons:
Regions of DNA that undergo transcription and end up in the final product
Introns:
regions that undergo transcription but are removed from the RNA transcript
Translation:
Copy strand (mRNA goes to a ribosome and the ribosome makes a polypeptide chain using the code the mRNA carries as a template
Number of Amino acids:
21
how many nitrougenous bases in a codon?
3
how many possible codon's?
64
how many sense codons?
61
how many non-sense codons?
3
Sense Codon:
code for insertion of amino acids into a polypeptide chain
Non-sense codon:
UGA, UAG, UAA
will cause the ribosome to disassociate from the mRNA and stop translation
A change in the DNA base sequence will cause....
a change in the amino acid sequence
Point Mutation:
A single base at one point in the DNA is replaced with a different base
Frame shift mutation:
when one or more nucleotide base pairs are deleted or inserted into DNA
What does frame shift mutation lead to?
a shift in the reading frame of the mRNA
Chemical mutagens:
a chemical that causes a mutation
(main cause of mutation)
Almost all chemical mutagens are:
base analogs
Base Analog:
chemicals that are similar to nitrogenous bases and get incorporated into DNA
Example of base analog:
2-amino purine
incorporated in place of adenine but pairs with cytosine
causes incorrect RNA and therefore incorrect proteins
What is the easiest way to tell if a chemical can be incorporated to cells?
use bacteria because all DNA is the same, and they reproduce and divide so quickly.
Ames Test:
a test that uses a strain of alminella to test chemicals for their mutagenicity and thus their potential carcinogenicity
What does UV light do to thymine?
causes thymine dimmers
Thymine dymmer:
if uv light hits a segmant of DNA that has two thymins, (TT), the UV ray can cause them to fuse together, causing it to be read as 1 thymine instead of two
what is the general spontaneous mutation rate?
1 per 10^9 replicated base pairs
How many base pairs is the average gene?
10^3
what is the average mutation rate?
1 to 1,000,000
vast majority of ? are ? in nature and are often ?
mutations, harmful, carcinogenic
how do you block the transfer of antibiotic resistance?
block the transfer of DNA between bacteria
what are the 3 types of bacterial DNA transfer?
Transformation
Conjugation
Transduction
Transformation:
the transfer of asked pieces of DNA from one bacteria to another
what is the term for DNA picked up by a bacterial cell in transformation?
recombinant DNA
Conjugation:
DNA is passed as plasmids are transferred from one bacteria to another
Plasmid:
small, circular, extrachromosomal DNA
Transduction:
genetic transfer mediated by virus' called bacteriophages
Bacteriophage:
a virus that afects only bacteria
(looks like a spaceship)
Genetic Engineering:
the deliberate modification of an organisms genetic information by directly changing its uceotide sequence
Recombanant DNA technology:
the collection of methods used in genetic engineering
? plays a constant and important role in biotechnology
bacteria
how is diabetes an example of biotechnology?
scientists found through studies on insulin that we can let bacteria make a desired product and then give that product to a definicient individual
Gene Therapy:
concept of recoding a defective DNA sequence
not yet effective
Why is it difficult to use eukaryotic cells in genetic ingineering?
DNA must cross a large area to get to the nucleus
RFLP
Restriction Fragment Length polymorphism

requires about a quarter size amount of sample
PCR (what does the acronym stand for)
Polymerase chain reaction
rDNA
recombanant DNA products
examples of rDNA:
hepatitis vaccine, HCG
purpose of genetic probes
helpful in identifying a bacterium or a genetic disease
Probe:
a DNA or RNA molecule which is used to locate a complimentary RNA or DNA by hybridizing with it
Hybrid:
double stranded nucleic acid in which the two strands differ in origin
Aligonucleotide synthesis:
production of short pieces of DNA 2-3 base pairs long
Primers are used for?
PCR -->manufacture copies of a segment of DNA
In a stain or culture media you can:
extract DNA, and then heat to see if it will bind to identify bacteria
Who developed the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?
Kery Mulis
Polymerase chain reaction:
an in vitro reaction in which a specific region of DNA is amplified many times by repeated synthesis of DNA using DNA polymerase and specific primers to define the ends of the amplified region
what is the application of PCR?
makes large quantities of a particular DNA sequence
PCR process:
1) synthesize graments with sequences identical to those flanking the targeted sequence
2) heat denature dsDNA to separate complementary strands
3) add primers in excess and lwer temp to allow primers to anneal to DNA
4) add nucleoside triphosphates and DNA polymerase
5) DNA polymerase extends the primers and synthesizes copies of target DNA sequence
6)repeat heating and cooling
7) use heat stable polymerase from a thermophilic bacteria
what are 4 aspects of recombanant DNA technology?
restriction in endonucleases
DNA ligases join ends of DNA
plasmids
gram negative bacteria