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266 Cards in this Set
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1.)a short-term infection, usually characterized by dramatic onset 2.)the use of biological agents to incapacitate or kill a military or civilian population in an act of war or terrorism 3.)a subclinically infected individual who may spread a disease 4.)a long term infection 5.)a disease that is constantly present, usually in low numbers, in a population |
acute infection biological warfare carrier chronic infection endemic disease |
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1.)the agency of the US Public health service that tracts disease trends, provides disease information to the public and to healthcare professionals, and forms public policy regarding disease prevention and intervention 2.)an infection (or intoxication) of a large number of people from a contaminated source such as food or water. |
Centers for Disease control and prevention (CDC) common source epidemic |
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1.)an infectious disease whose incidence recently increased or whose incidence threatens to increase in the near future 2.)the occurrence of a disease in unusually high numbers in a localized population 3.)the study of the occurrence distribution, and determinants of health and disease in a population |
emerging disease epidemic epidemiology |
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1.)an inanimate object that when contaminated with a viable pathogen can transfer the pathogen to a host 2.)the resistance of a population to a pathogen as a result of the immunity of a large portion of the population 3.)an epidemic resulting from person-to-person contact, characterized by a gradual rise and fall in number of new cases |
fomite herd immunity host-to-host epidemic |
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1.)the number of new disease cases reported in a population in a given time period 2.)the incidence of disease in a population 3.)the incidence of death in a population 4.)an infection contracted in a healthcare setting 5.)the occurrence of a large number of cases of a disease in a short period of time 6.)a worldwide epidemic |
1.)incidence 2.)morbidity 3.)mortality 4.)nonsocomial infection (health care associated infection) 5.)outbreak 6.)pandemic |
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1.)the total number of new and existing disease cases reported in a population in a given time period 2.)the health of the population as a whole 3.)the separation and restriction of well persons who may have been exposed to an infectious disease to see if they develop the disease 4.)an infectious disease previously under control but that produces a new epidemic |
prevalence public health quarantine reemerging disease
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1.)a source of infectious agents from which susceptible individuals may be infected 2.)the observation, recognition, and reporting of diseases as they occur 3.)a living agent that transfers a pathogen 4.)a nonliving source of pathogens that transmits the pathogens to large numbers of individuals, common ones are food and water |
reservoir surveillance vector vehicle |
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1.)any disease that occurs primarily in animals but can be transmitted to humans 2.)in developed countries __diseases cause fewer deaths than __diseases worldwide 3.)infectious disease accounts for __% of all deaths 4.)in developed countries, are new diseases still emerging? why? 5.)does effective control of infectious disease still remain a challenge |
zoonosis infectious, noninfectious 25 yes, antibiotic resistant pathogens yes |
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1.)a pathogen must do what to cause a disease 2.)a well-adapted pathogen lives in __with its host 3.)explain chronic infections 4.)new pathogens sometimes emerge for which the host has no resistance, what are some factors 5.)__infections show that the pathogen can be a selective force, it is characterized by rapid and dramatic disease onset |
replicate and grow inside a host balance host and pathogen survives poor diet, age, stressors acute |
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1.)an endemic disease implies that the pathogen may not be highly __or that the majority of individuals in the population may be __, resulting in low but persistent number of cases 2.)epidemiologists trace the spread of disease to identify its origin and mode of transmission, this is called the ___ 3.)a __is widespread, usually worldwide
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virulent, immune index case pandemic |
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1.)a disease is an __when it occurs in a large number of people in a population at the same time 2.)an __disease is constantly present in a population, usually at low incidences 3.)the __of a disease is the number of new cases of the disease in a given period of time 4.)the __of a disease is the total number of new and existing cases in a population in a given time |
epidemic endemic incidence prevalence |
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1.)a disease __occurs when a number of cases of a disease are reported in a short period of time 2.)diseased individuals who show no or mild symptoms have __infections 3.)subclinical individuals are called __ 4.)__is the incidence of death in a population 5.)__of a disease refers to the incidence of disease including fatal and nonfatal disease |
outbreak subclinical carriers mortality morbidity |
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1.)5 disease progression steps that occur with a typical acute infection 2.)when the organism invades and colonizes the host 3.)the time b/w infection and onset of symptoms 4.)when the disease is at its height 5.)when disease symptoms are subsiding
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1.)infection, incubation period, acute period, decline period, convalescent period 2.)infection 3.)incubation period 4.)acute period 5.)decline period |
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1.)when the patient regains strength and returns to normal 2.)incubation periods for diseases like influenza are? what? about AIDS? 3.)__are sites in which infectious agents remain viable and from which infection of individuals can occur 4.)a number of infectious diseases are caused by pathogens that propagate in __and __ |
convalescent period very short (days), longer (years) reservoirs humans, animals |
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1.)for other pathogens, ___serves as reservoirs 2.)reservoir for Clostridium tetani? what about rabies? 3.)__is any disease that primarily infects animals, but is occasionally transmitted to humans 4.)what is a classic example of zoonosis 5.)__are pathogen-infected individuals showing no signs of clinical disease |
nonliving matter soil, wild animals zoonosis rabies carriers |
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1.)diseased individuals who show no symptoms or only mild symptoms are said to have __, they are frequently carriers 2.)are carriers potential sources of infections 3.)carriers may be individuals in the __period of the disease 4.)carriers can be identified using diagnostic techniques, including __and __ 5.)who was a carrier of Typhoid Fever |
subclinical infections yes incubation culture, immunoassays Typhoid Mary |
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1.)typhoid fever is caused by what pathogen? 2.)typhoid fever causes what 3.)where can the Salmonella typhi lodge and what can it be shed thru 4.)epidemiologists follow transmission of a disease by correlating __, __, __and __data 5.)the correlations stated above is used to identify possible modes of __ |
salmonella typhi (Gram neg. rod in feces) infection (high fever) gallbladder, feces geographic, climatic, social, demographic transmission |
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1.)a disease limited to a tropical area may suggest something about its __ 2.)encephalitis is spread by what and when is the virus highly active 3.)pathogens can be classified by their mechanism of transmission, but all mechanisms have the following stages in common, what are they |
vector (malaria by mosquitos in the tropics) mosquitos, during the summer escape from host, travel, entry into new host |
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1.)pathogen transmission can be __or __ 2.)__transmission is when an infected individual transmits a disease directly to a susceptible host without the assistance of an intermediary 3.)ringworms, STDs , flu, and common colds are examples of what 4.)how are ringworms spread? flu? |
1.)direct, indirect 2.)direct host-to-host 3.)direct host to host transmission 4.) its a fungus spread by cats to kids. cough, sneeze |
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1.)__transmission occurs when transmission is facilitated by a living or nonliving agent 2.)living agents are called __, while nonliving agents are called __ 3.)major __are usually classified as common-source or host-to-host 4.)a __epidemic usually arises from contamination of water or food
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indirect host-to-host vectors (mosquitos, flees), fomites (toys) epidemics common-source |
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1.)example of a common-source epidemic 2.)in a __epidemic, the disease shows a slow, progressive rise and a gradual decline 3.)example of a host-to-host epidemic 4.)with a host-to-host epidemic, the pathogen is spread person to person and what needs to happen |
cholera at a wedding reception host-to-host influenza and chicken pox need time to let it grow, then transmit, etc. |
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1.)when looking at a chart comparing common source and host-to-host epidemics, which one would have the highest peek of number of cases in a day? which one would be more gradual 2.)__is the resistance of a group to infection due to immunity of a high proportion of the group 3.)if a high proportion of individuals are immune to an infection, will the whole population be protected? |
common source. host-to-host herd immunity yes |
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1.)immunized people protect nonimmunized people from pathogens because why? 2.)diseases such as __tend to occur in cycles 3.)common vehicles for pathogen dispersal include 4.)did food laws lower the incidence of foodborne pathogens 5.)water __reduced incidence of typhoid fever |
1.)pathogen cannot be passed on 2.)influenza 3.)food(cholera-oysters and staph), water (E. coli, salmonella, Shigella), air (colds, flu, pneumonia) 4.)yes 5.)purification |
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1.)what kind of pathogens are difficult to control 2.)if a reservoir is an animal, what can be done 3.)when humans are the reservoir, can eradication be difficult? 4.)humans with disease can be __, __, and ___ 5.)quarantined, immunized, and treatment were used by the __to eradicate __ |
airborne immunized or destroyed yes quarantined, immunized, treated WHO, small pox |
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1.)diseases can be controlled using ___. 2.)give some examples of diseases that have been controlled by immunization 3.)__restricts the movement of an individual with an active infection 4.)is staying home an example of quarantine 5.)__is the observation, recognition, and reporting of diseases |
immunization smallpox, rubella, tetanus quarantine yes surveillance |
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1.)the first identified case in a group of related cases of a particular communicable or heritable disease. 2.)what does MMWR stand for and who puts it out 3.)pathogen __is a goal to remove all of a pathogen from any reservoir (small pox, polio, and potentially rabies, leprosy, and others) |
index cases Morbidity and Mortality weekly report, CDC eradication |
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1.)are there more infectious diseases in the Americas or Africa 2.)most African deaths are due to infectious diseases, ___times as many as in the Americas 3.)travelers traveling to infectious disease countries can be __and should only drink __water 4.)can the worldwide distribution of diseases change rapidly |
Africa 10 immunized, decontaminated yes |
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1.)diseases that suddenly become prevalent are called __ 2.)__diseases are those that have become prevalent after having been under control ****the next are of emerging factors*** 3.)example of human demographics and behavior |
emergent reemerging urbanization
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1.)example of technology and industry 2.)example of economic development and land use 3.)example of international travel and commerce 4.)example of pathogen adaptation and change 5.)example of breakdown of public health measures |
healthcare-associated infections building a Dam and mosquitos coming shipment of infected animals RNA virus mutation inadequate immunizations
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1.)example of unusual events that upset the usual host-pathogen balance 2.)when addressing the emerging disease, the key elements are __of the disease and __to prevent the pathogen transmission 3.)preventing spread of emerging infections must be a public health response employing various methods, these methods include? |
mild climate allowing rodents to come in recognition, intervention quarantine, immunization, drug treatment |
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1.)biological weapons weapons are organisms or toxins that are easy to __and deliver, __ for use by the offensive soldiers, and able to incapacitate or kill individuals under attack in a __and reproducible manner 2.)are virtually all pathogenic bacteria or viruses potentially useful for biological warfare |
produce, safe, consistent yes |
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1.)are bacterial toxins such as Botulinum toxin from Clostridium botulinum also potential biological weapons? 2.)smallpox virus has intimidating potential as a biological warfare agent because it can easily be spread by contact or aerosol spray and it has a mortality rate of __% or more 3.)__is a preferred agent for biological warfare and biological terrorism |
yes 30 Bacillus anthracis |
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1.)with Bacillus anthracis, __enhance the ability to disseminate B. anthracis in aerosols 2.)3 forms of anthrax 3.)__anthrax is contracted when abraded skin is contaminated by B. anthracis endospores produced by a toxigenic poly-D-glutamic acid-encapsulated strain |
endospores cutaneous, gastrointestinal, pulmonary cutaneous |
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1.)__anthrax is contracted from consumption of endospore contaminated plants or meat from animals infected with anthrax 2.)__anthrax is contracted when the endospores are inhaled 3.)is inhalation anthrax rare? 4.)__anthrax strains are usually endospore preparations that have properties that enhance dissemination(act of spreading) |
gastrointestinal inhalation/pulmonary yes but it was the one found in the US in 2001 weaponized |
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1.)the physical characteristics of weaponized anthrax preparations typically include a small particle size interspersed with a very fine particulate agent such as ___ 2.)is vaccination for anthrax only done to people with risk? 3.)treatment drug of anthrax is with __ 4.)what anthrax was found in the US in 2001 |
talc yes ciprofloxacin cutaneous and inhalation |
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1.)__is a viral disease that attacks the immune system 2.)first reported cases of AIDS were in the US in __ 3.)at least __people have been infected worldwide with HIV 4.)more than __people have died from AIDS 5.)studies in the US suggested that HIV was transmitted through __or __ |
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) 1981 70 million 25 million sexual contact, blood |
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1.)highest cause of AIDS in men? women? 2.)__causes severe diarrhea and is typically transmitted through ingestion of contaminated water containing Vibrio cholerae 3.)is cholera largely restricted to developing countries 4.)cholera is an endemic in what countries 5.)cholera can be controlled by application of __treatment |
1.)gay men, heterosexual contact 2.)cholera 3.)yes 4.)Africa, southeast Asia, Indian subcontinent, central and south America water |
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1.)epidemic cholera occurs where __treatment is inadequate or absent 2.)cholera may develop into a pandemic if travelers carry pathogen to a new __ 3.)influenza pandemics occur every __to __years 4.)influenza is caused by a major change in the influenza __ 5.)__is a minor change in influenza virus antigens due to gene mutation |
sewage location 10-40 genome antigenic drift
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1.)__is a major change in influenza virus antigens due to gene reassortment 2.)name a recent influenza pandemic 3.)was the swine in Mexico simultaneously infected with swine influenza, bird influenza, and human influenza 4.)influenza is a __virus an how many strands
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antigenic shift 2009 Swine Flu (H1N1 influenza) yes RNA, multiple
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1.)__is the best guess of which strains are in the environment this year 2.)during viral maturation, viral genomic RNA segments, in this case from 3 sources, are mixed together and packaged to form genetically unique viruses, a process called __ 3.)what ultimately changes when the influenza virus mutates and changes its RNA |
vaccine reassortment protein (antigen) |
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1.)so basically, you make an ___against the antigen(protein) 2.)breakdown of normal liver architecture, resulting in fibrosis 3.)syphilis contracted by an infant from its mother during pregnancy 4.)a synthetic polypeptide that binds to viral glycoproteins, inhibiting fusion of viral and host cell membranes |
antibody (it is specific) cirrhosis congenital syphilis fusion inhibitor |
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1.)liver inflammation, commonly caused by an infectious agent 2.)a sexually transmitted virus that causes genital warts, cervical neoplasia, and cancer 3.)inflammation of the meninges (brain tissue), sometimes caused by Neisseria meningitides and characterized by sudden onset of headache, vomiting, and stiff neck, often progressing to coma within hours |
hepatitis human papillomavirus (HPV) meningitis
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1.)a fulminant disease caused by Neisseria meningitides characterized by septicemia, intravascular coagulation, and shock 2.)an infection usually observed only in an individual with a dysfunctional immune system 3.)a disease caused by an upper respiratory tract infection with Bordetella pertussis, characterized by a deep persistent cough |
meningococcemia opportunistic infection Pertussis (whooping cough) |
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1.)in influenza virus, major changes in viral proteins (antigens) due to gene reassortment 2.)an inflammatory autoimmune disease triggered by an immune response to infection by Streptococcus pyogenes 3.)a disease characterized by high fever and a reddish skin rash resulting from an endotoxin produced by cells of Streptococcus pyogenes |
antigenic shift rheumatic fever scarlet fever |
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1.)an infection that is usually transmitted by sexual contact 2.)the acute systemic shock resulting from host response to an exotoxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus 3.)a skin test for previous infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
sexually transmitted infection toxic shock syndrome tuberculin test |
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1.)the number of viral genome copies in the tissue of an infected host, providing a quantitative assessment of the amount of virus in the host 2.)in influenza virus, minor changes in viral proteins (antigens) due to gene mutation 3.)__are important for person-to-person transmission of many infectious diseases |
viral load antigenic drift aerosols |
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1.)most pathogens survive poorly in air, thus, are effectively transmitted only over __distances 2.)do different pathogens characteristically colonize the respiratory tract at different levels 3.)do the upper and lower respiratory tracts offer different environments and favor different microbes |
short yes yes |
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1.)name the 6 upper respiratory pathogens 2.)influenza virus, M. tuberculosis, C. immitis, B. pertussis, S. pneumonia, Pneumonia viruses, Coxiella burnetii, and chlamydophila psittaci are all infections where 3.)virulence factor of S. pneumonia 4.)streptococcus morphology and gram stain |
1.)streptococcus pyogenes, staphylococcus aureus, Neisseria meningitis, Corynebacteria diphtheria, Haemophilus influenza, common cold virus 2.)lower respiratory tract 3.)avoids phagocytosis 4.)gram positive in chains |
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1.)what is GAS 2.)is S. pyogenes found in the upper respiratory tract of healthy individuals 3.)what is S. pyogenes the causative agent of 4.)streptococcus pyogenes is also called what 5.)where can GAS bacteria normally live in a healthy individual |
Group A Streptococcus (S. pyogenes) yes strep throat group A streptococci nose throat |
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1.)where else can S. pyogenes cause infections? 2.)__is an acute streptococcal skin infection 3.)virulent strains of Streptococcus can form vicious __forming wounds 4.)medical name for a sore throat 5.)although numbers are typically low for S. pyogenes in the upper respiratory tract, if host defenses are weakened or a new highly virulent strain is introduced, what may occur |
inner ear, mammary glands, and skin erysipelas pus streptococcal pharyngitis serious infection |
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1.)certain GAS strains carry a lysogenic bacteriophage that encodes what? 2.)the exotoxins are responsible for symptoms of __and __ 3.)the exotoxin lyses RBCs in culture media, a condition called ___ 4.)untreated or insufficiently treated infections of S. pyogens can lead to other diseases such as |
exotoxin toxic shock syndrome, scarlet fever B-hemolysis rheumatic fever |
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1.)S. pyogenes can causes infections of the middle ear (__), and of the mammary glands (__), infections of the superficial layers of the skilled called __, and __ which is an acute streptococcal skin infection 2.)about half of the clinical cases of severe sore throat are due to S. pyogenes, most others are from? |
otitis media, mastitis, impetigo, erysipelas viral infections |
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1.)if a sore throat is due to a virus, what will antibiotics do? 2.)streptococcus pyogens occasionally cause sudden and severe systemic infections such as? 3.)__is a subcutaneous skin infection 4.)__is a flesh eating bacteria 5.)the exotoxins of S. pyogenes are superantigens that do what |
be useless, promote drug resistance cellulitis and necrotizing fasciitis cellulitis necrotizing fasciitis recruit a lot of T cells to infected tissue |
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1.)__results when the activated T cells secrete cytokines, which in turn activate large numbers of macrophages and neutrophils, causing sever inflammation and tissue destruction 2.)__, signaled by a severe sore throat, fever and characteristic rash, is readily treatable with antibiotics or may be self limiting |
toxic shock Scarlet Fever |
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1.)is it true that untreated S. pyogenes can produce antibodies that cross react with host tissue antigens of the heart, joints, and kidneys, resulting in damage to these tissues 2.)the most serious of the symptoms above is __caused by rheumatogenic strains of S. pyogenes, these strains contain cell surface antigens that are similar in structure to heart vale and joint proteins |
yes rheumatic fever |
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1.)rheumatic fever is an __disease because antibodies directed against streptococcal antigens cross react with heart valve and joint antigens, causing host inflammation and tissue destruction 2.)S. pneumonia is the causative agent of? 3.)is pneumonia typically a secondary infection to other respiratory disorders |
autoimmune pneumonia (invasive lung infection) yes |
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1.)definitive diagnosis of Streptococcus strains is by __ 2.)are GAS and S. pyogenes treatable by antimicrobial agents 3.)are drug resistant strains of S. pneumonia common 4.)virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumonia |
culture yes yes capsule |
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1.)so S. pneumonias capsules resist phagocytosis, yet still generate what? 2.)so S. pyogenes is __hemolytic and what kind of zone would appear 3.)S. pneumonia is __hemolytic and a __zone would appear around the bacterial colony on blood agar 4.)diphtheria usually effects what age group |
inflammation beta (complete lysis of RBC) clear Alpha(partial lysis of RBC) green young children |
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1.)Corynebacteria is gram __and explain its morphology 2.)why does Corynebacteria look like Chinese letters 3.)what is Streptococcus in reference to oxygen? Corynebacteria? 4.)how is diphtheria preventable 5.)how does C. diphtheria spread |
positive, rods, no spores, Chinese letters doesn't separate completely after dividing aerotolerant, aerobic DPT vaccine airborne droplets, enters via respiratory route |
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1.)__or __provides resistance to C. diptheria 2.)throat tissues respond to diphtheria infection by forming a lesion called a __ 3.)pathogenic strains of C. diphtheria carry a lysogenic bacteriophage whose genome encodes a powerful exotoxin called __ 4.)pathogenic strains lysogenized by bacteriophage B produce powerful exotoxins that cause __and __ |
1.)previous infection, immunization 2.)pseudomembrane 3.)diphtheria toxin 4.)tissue death, appearance of the pseudomemebrane in the throat |
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1.)the toxin basically inhibits __synthesis in the host leading to cell death 2.)for diagnosis of Diphtheria you have to do what 3.)what kind of media is the C. diphtheria placed on 4.)so prevention of diphtheria is what |
protein isolate C. diphtheria from the throat blood agar, a selective medium vaccine |
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1.)treatment of diphtheria is __and __ 2.)what does the antitoxin do 3.)so diphtheria can be classified as a __and __ 4.)another name for pertussis 5.)what bacteria is pertussis caused by 6.)morphology and gram stain of pertussis 7.)Bordetella pertussis in reference to oxygen |
antibiotics, antitoxin for acute cases neutralizes the toxin (its an antibody) infection and intoxication whooping cough Bordetella pertussis gram negative rod (coccobacillus) aerobic |
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1.)pertussis is an __, highly infectious respiratory disease 2.)what age group is pertussis observed in 3.)pertussis is characterized by a recurrent, violent __ 4.)has there been a consistent upward trend of infections of pertussis since the 1980s |
acute school-aged children cough yes |
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1.)inadequately __children, adolescents, and adults are at high risk for acquiring and spreading pertussis 2.)Pertussis excretes an exotoxin that induces synthesis of __which partially responsible for the events that lead to host tissue damage 3.)does pertussis also produce an endotoxin that is partially responsible for the whooping cough |
immunized cyclic AMP yes |
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1.)the diagnosis of pertussis is made by __antibody staining of a nasopharyngeal swab specimen 2.)if it fluoresces, it means what 3.)another possible way diagnose pertussis is by actual culture of the organism or __ 4.)prevention of pertussis |
fluorescent the bacteria is there because antibody binds to it cough plate vaccine soon after birth |
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1.)treatment for pertussis is __ ,but __ 2.)tuberculosis is caused by __ and is found where on the body 3.)another name for leprosy 4.)hansens disease (leprosy) is caused by ___and it is found where on the body 5.)Mycobacteria are acid fast due to the waxy __content on their cell walls |
1.)antibodies, but elimination is helped by the immune response 2.)Mycobacterium tuberculosis, lungs 3.)Hansen's disease 4.)Mycobacterium Leprae, skin 5.)mycolic acid |
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1.)morphology and gram stain of Mycobacteria 2.)does acid fast bacteria holds on to the primary stain after rinsing with alcohol? what color? 3.)what color do non acid fast stain and why 4.)what is the counter stain 5.)what kind of sample do you need for Mycobacteria |
gram positive acid fast yes, red dye carbol-fuchsin blue because they lose primary stain methelyn blue sputum sample(lower respiratory tract) |
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1.)how do Mycobacteria grow 2.)virulence factors of mycobacteria 3.)is tuberculosis a worldwide infectious disease in humans 4.)is the incidence of tuberculosis increasing 5.)how is M. tuberculosis transmitted 6.)__immunity plays a critical role in the prevention of active disease after infection
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1.)slow 2.)they live inside machrophages and neutrophils so they are not killed, also their waxy cell wall 3.)yes 4.)yes 5.)airborne droplets 6.)cell-mediated |
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1.)TB can be __infection (initial infection) or __infection (reinfection) 2.)primary infection of TB typically results from? 3.)is tuberculosis acute 4.)primary infection with tuberculosis is when it ___ the patient to the bacteria and alters the individuals response to subsequent exposures |
1.)primary, post-primary 2.)inhalation of droplets leading to growing in lungs 3.)no, it hypersensitizes the individual to protect against post-primary infection 4.)hypersensitizes |
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1.)hypersensitivity measured by a diagnostic __test 2.)many adults are tuberculin-__as a result of previous or current inapparent infections 3.)so is a tuberculin-positive test and cell-mediated immunity kind of working together |
skin (tuberculin test) positive yes
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1.)some tuberculin-positive patients develop post-primary tuberculosis through reinfection from bacteria that have remained __in lung machrophages for years 2.)with post-primary infection, chronic tuberculosis often results in a gradual spread of tubercular __in the lungs |
dormant lesions |
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1.)spread of tuberculosis is prevented by hospitalization of patients in __pressure rooms and use of __for healthcare workers 2.)treatment for tuberculosis includes antimicrobial therapy with __ 3.)isoniazid is a __ 4.)what does isoniazid do? 5.)treatment for tuberculosis usually requires a __regimen |
negative, face masks isoniazid growth analog inhibits mycolic acid synthesis (cell wall integrity) 9 month
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1.)causative agent of Hansen's disease 2.)the __is the only experimental animal that has been successfully used to grow M. leprae 3.)the most serious form of leprosy, ___,is characterized by folded, bulb-like lesions on the body 4.)can leprosy also be caused by respiratory problems
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Mycobacteria Leprae armadillo lepromatous yes |
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1.)pathogenicity of Hansen's disease is due to a combination of __and the highly invasive activities of M. Leprae which can grow within __and lead to the characteristic lesions 2.)leprosy is transmitted by both __contact and __routes 3.)do incubation times of Leprosy vary from several weeks to years |
delayed-type hypersensitivity, machrophages direct, respiratory yes |
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1.)the incidence of leprosy worldwide is __ 2.)3 layers of meninges 3.)where is CSF found 4.)__is inflammation of the meninges 5.)__are membranes that line the CNS, especially the spinal cord and brain 6.)what can meningitis be caused by |
low pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater subarachnoid space meningitis meninges viral, bacterial, fungal, or protest infections |
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1.)describe the dura mater. arachnoid mater? 2.)causative agent of meningitis 3.)gram stain and morphology of Neisseria 4.)does Neisseria have a capsule 5.)in reference to oxygen, what is Neisseria 6.)what else does Neisseria cause besides meningitis |
tough. spider webs (microvilli) Neisseria meningidis gram negative diplococcic, no spores yes obligately aerobic meningococcemia |
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1.)__pathogenic strains of Neisseria meningitis are recognized based on antigenic differences in their __ 2.)with viral meningitis, protein levels would be high why? 3.)what kind of media to use with Neisseria 4.)treats for viral meningitis? what about fungal and bacterial? |
13, capsular polysaccharides because of the capsule chocolate agar just have to wait and see. antibiotics |
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1.)would it be better to have viral or bacterial meningitis? 2.)how is N. meningitis transmitted 3.)a condition characterized by intravascular coagulation and tissue distruction, shock, and death in over 10% of cases 4.)does meningococcal meningitis often occur in epidemics, usually in closed populations? |
1.)viral because bacterial makes toxins(cell death) 2.)airborne, then attaches to cells in nasopharynx, then goes into blood (bacteremia) and also causes upper respiratory symptoms 3.)meningococcemia 4.)yes |
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1.)what age group does meningitis affect the most 2.)treatment for meningitis 3.)why has incidence decreased in recent years for meningitis 4.)acute means? 5.)self limiting means? 6.)are viruses less easily controlled by chemotherapeutic methods |
school-aged children, young adults penicillin G vaccinations in susceptible populations rapid onset no treatment, body fights it off yes |
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1.)the most prevalent human infections are caused by __ 2.)are most viruses acute, self-limiting infections 3.)have a few serious viral diseases been effectively controlled by vaccination? name some 4.)vaccines are good because viruses have to have a __, if not they die 5.)another name for rubeola |
viruses yes yes, small pox and rabies host measles or 7-day measles |
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1.)measles often affects susceptible children as an __, high infectious, often __disease 2.)the measles is caused by __ 3.)paramyxovirus is a __strand __virus 4.)how does the virus enter the body 5.)the measles used to be a common childhood illness, now only occurs in rather isolated outbreaks due to widespread immunization programs that began in the mid __ |
acute, epidemic paramyxovirus negative, RNA through the nose and mouth via airborne trans. 1960s |
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1.)the measles accounts for over __deaths per year worldwide 2.)is there proof of immunization for measles required for enrollment in U.S. public schools 3.)another name for rubella 4.)rubella is caused by a __strand __virus of the __group |
600,000 yes German measles or 3-day measles positive, RNA, togavirus |
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1.)the disease symptoms resemble measles but what is different 2.)is routine childhood immunization practiced in the U.S. for rubella 3.)mumps is caused by the ___ 4.)is the mumps highly infectious 5.)how is mumps spread 6.)mumps is characterized by what |
they are milder and less contagious yes paramyxovirus yes airborne droplets inflammation of the salivary glands |
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1.)in the U.S., the incidence of measles, mumps, and rubella, has decreased significantly since the implementation of the __vaccine 2.)another name for varicella 3.)chicken pox is a common childhood disease characterized by a systemic __rash 4.)chicken pox is caused by ___ |
MMR chicken pox papular varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
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1.)varicella-zoster virus is a __virus 2.)VZV is highly contagious and transmitted by? 3.)is a chicken pox vaccine presently used in the US? what is it 4.)VZV virus establishes a lifelong latent infection in __cells |
herpesvirus infectious droplets yes, Varivax nerve |
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1.)the VZV virus occasionally migrates to the skin surface, causing a painful skin eruption called __ 2.)what is the most common infectious disease 3.)viral infections (colds) are transmitted via? 4.)are cold infections usually of short duration 5.)are symptoms of colds usually milder than other respiratory diseases |
shingles colds airborne droplets yes yes
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1.)symptoms of colds include __, nasal __, watery __discharge, and __(discomfort) 2.)__are the most common cause of colds 3.)rhinoviruses are __stranded of the __sense, __viruses of the picornavirus group 4.)nearly __different strains of RNA viruses have been identified |
rhinitis, obstruction, nasal, malaise rhinoviruses single, plus, RNA 115
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1.)approximately __% of colds are due to cornaviruses 2.)approximately __% of colds are due to other viruses 3.)most antiviral drugs are ineffective against the common cold, but ___derivatives and rhinovirus ___drugs have shown promise |
15 10 pyrazidine, receptor-blocking |
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1.)is it true that each cold infection induces a specific, protective immunity, but the large number of viral cold pathogens precludes complete protective immunity or vaccines 2.)in reference to the chicken pox virus which is a herpes virus, what is special about this virus 3.)latent means in the __ |
yes they are latent chromosome
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1.)first a child has the chicken pox, then it goes through the lytic phase, then they have pox, then the body fights it off and it goes in the latent stage and lives in __ 2.)if the chicken pox is reactivated, it comes back as __(painful) and they follow the nerve to the end pain receptors, causing __ |
nerves shingles, blisters |
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1.)we said the coronavirus causes 15% of colds, but what else does it cause? 2.)main symptom of SARS 3.)influenza is caused by an __virus of the __group 4.)how many types of influenza viruses are there 5.)influenza __is the most important human pathogen |
Sudden Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) fever RNA, orthomyxovirus 3 (A, B, C) A |
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1.)Influenza is a __stranded, __sense RNA virus 2.)influenza outbreaks occur annually due to the __of the influenza genome 3.)two types of glycoproteins in influenza viruses 4.)the __antigen is important in attaching the influenza virus to host cells while the __antigen is instrumental in releasing the virus from the host cells |
single, negative plasticity hemagglutinin, neuraminidase hemagglutinin, neuraminidase |
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1.)__is major change in the influenza virus antigen due to gene reassortment 2.)__is minor change in the influenza virus antigens due to gene mutation 3.)do influenza epidemics and pandemics occur periodically 4.)in the year __was the outbreak of the Asian flu and in the year __was the outbreak of the avian influenza |
antigenic shift antigenic drift yes 1957, 1997 |
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1.)when was the swine flue pandemic 2.)prevention of influenza is by __or careful worldwide __ 3.)what drug should be avoided when you have the flu 4.)most drugs are most effective when administered __for influenza |
2009 immunization, surveillance aspirin early |
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1.)the first set of drugs to treat influenza are __and __and they are synthetic amines that inhibit viral replication 2.)the next drug __is a neuraminidase inhibitor 3.)the last drug __blocks the release of newly replicated human influenza virions 4.)staphylococcus, helicobacter pylori & gastric ulcers, and hepatitis viruses have what in common |
adamantanes (amantadine, rimantadine) oseltamivir zanamivir they are due to direct contact
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1.)staphylococcus is a gram __cocci that does what 2.)does staphylococcus sporulate? 3.)__causes diseases including acne, boils, pimples, impetigo, pneumonia, osteomyelitis, carditis, meningitis, and arthritis 4.)many diseases result from __infection or from the actions of staphylococcal superantigen __ |
1.)positive, divides into several planes to form irregular clumps 2.)no 3.)staphylococci 4.)pyogenic (pus), exotoxins |
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1.)Staphylococcus __is commonly found on the skin and S. ___is more commonly associated with human disease 2.)a hemolysin is basically a __that lyses RBCs 3.)virulence factors of S. aureus 4.)__is an enzyme that converts fibrin to fibrinogen, forming a localized clot which makes it difficult for host immune cells to contact the bacteria and phagocytize |
epidermis, aureus protein leukocidin, coagulase coagulase |
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1.)__is a protein that destroys WBCs 2.)S. aureus can also cause what disease also caused by S. pneumonia 3.)what does S. aureus do on MSA 4.)since S. aureus ferments mannitol, it generates __and changes the medium form red to __ 5.)historically, S. aureus has been treated with __and __ |
leukocidin toxic shock syndrome (superantigens) grow acidity, yellow penicillin, cephalosporin |
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1.)has extensive use of penicillin and cephalosporin for many years made the bacteria resistant? 2.)the antibiotics __and various __drugs are currently used to treat methicillin-resistant S. aureus 3.)helicobacter pylori is a gram __, highly __, and __shaped bacteria |
yes clindamycin, tetracycline negative, motile, spiral |
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1.)helicobacter pylori is associated with __, __and __cancers 2.)H. pylori colonizes the __secreting mucosa of the stomach and the __tract 3.)H. pylori is transmitted via __contact or ingestion of __ 4.)__is liver inflammation caused by viruses or bacteria |
gastritis, ulcers, gastric non-acid, upper intestinal person-to-person, contaminated food or water hepatitis |
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1.)hepatitis sometimes results in acute illness followed by destruction of liver anatomy and cells, a condition known as __ 2.)is a restricted group of viruses associated with liver diseases 3.)are hepatitis viruses diverse? 4.)hepatitis __virus is also called infectious hepatitis |
cirrhosis yes yes A |
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1.)hepatitis __virus is also called serum hepatitis 2.)although these viruses are occasionally transmitted person to person, hepatitis __is more commonly transmitted by food and hepatitis __by water 3.)most common types of Hepatitis 4.)hepatitis __virus causes mild, or rarely severe cases of liver disease |
B A, E A & B A |
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1.)hepatitis __virus causes acute, often severe disease that can lead to liver failure and death 2.)Hepatitis B is transmitted in __or __in contact with blood 3.)hepatitis B virus (HBV) is what kind of virus 4.)what kind of virus is hepadnavirus 5.)hepatitis __virus is a defective virus that cant replicate and express a complete virus unless the cell is also infected with hepatitis B |
B blood, body fluids hepadnavirus partially double-stranded DNA virus D |
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1.)hepatitis D lacks genes encoding its own __ so it relies on HBV to produce capsid proteins 2.)hepatitis __is a mild disease initially, but most individuals develop chronic hepatitis that can lead to chronic liver failure 3.)hepatitis __virus causes acute, self-limiting hepatitis that varies in severity |
capsid C E |
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1.)the liver plays a vital role in metabolic processes, including __, __, and __synthesis as well as detoxification 2.)other symptoms of hepatitis 3.)incidence of hepatitis decreased significantly in the US in the last __years 4.)is viral hepatitis still a major public health problem
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carb, protein, lipid jaundice (yellow skin), cirrhosis, liver enlargem. 20 yes |
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1.)why is viral hepatitis still a major public health problem 2.)vaccines are available for hepatitis __and __viruses 3.)is HBV vaccines required for most school kids 4.)sexually transmitted infections are also called 5.)STIs are caused by a variety of __, __, __and even __ |
high infectivity of viruses & lack of eff. treatment A & B yes STDs or venereal diseases bacteria, viruses, protists, fungi
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1.)pathogens of STIs are generally only found in body fluids from the __tract that are exchanged during sexual activity 2.)__and __are preventable, treatable bacterial STIs 3.)gonorrhea is prevalent and often asymptomatic in __ 4.)__has low prevalence and exhibits very obvious symptoms |
genitourinary gonorrhea, syphilis women syphilis |
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1.)gonorrhea is caused by __ 2.)N. gonorrhea is a gram __, and what is its reference to oxygen 3.)symptoms of gonorrhea in females are characterized by a mild __that often goes unnoticed and untreated gonorrhea can lead to __ 4.)gonorrhea in males is characterized by what |
Neisseria gonorrhoeae negative, diplococcus, obligately aerobic vaginitis, pelvic inflammatory disease painful infection of the urethral canal |
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1.)Drugs that were used to treat gonorrhea 2.)resistance to the above drugs can lead doctors to prescribing what 3.)syphilis is caused by? 4.)T. pallidum is gram __and what is its morphology 5.)syphilis is often transmitted at the same time as __ |
penicillin, ciprofloxacin (quinolones) B-lactam cefixime or ceftriaxone Trepomena Pallidum neative, spirochete gonorrhea |
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1.)what is congenital syphilis 2.)how many stages of syphilis 3.)__syphilis is a localized infection, and chancre forms 4.)__syphilis is when a hypersensitivity to Treponemes occur, causing a skin rash |
infected woman transmits it to the fetus 3 primary secondary |
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1.)__syphilis includes the symptoms ranging from mild infections of the skin and bone to serious and even fatal infections of the cardiovascular system or CNS 2.)primary and secondary syphilis can typically be cured by a single injection of __ 3.)Chlamydia are gram __ |
tertiary benzathine penicillin G negative |
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1.)__is the number 1 STD 2.)does Chlamydia trachomatis cause a number of sexually transmitted diseases 3.)__is due to C. trachomatis and is one of the most frequently observed sexually transmitted diseases in males and females, but the infections are often inapparent 4.)__is frequently observed as a secondary infection following gonorrhea |
Chlamydia trachomatis yes Nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) Chlamydial NGU
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1.)__is a sexually transmitted disease caused by distinct strains of C. trachomatis and this disease occurs most frequently in males and is characterized by infection and swelling of lymph nodes in and about the groin 2.)Chlamydia lives where 3.)diagnosis for Chlamydia, you need what? |
Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) inside epithelial cells antibody |
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1.)Herpes are a large group of __stranded __viruses 2.)the Herpes simplex 1 virus (HSV-1) infects the __cells around the mouth and lips 3.)HSV-1 causes __ 4.)can HSV-1 occasionally affect other parts of the body 5.)how does HSV-1 spread |
double, DNA epithelial cold sores (fever blisters) yes saliva and direct contact |
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1.)with the HSV-1, lesions heal in how many weeks and does it need treatment 2.)__are infections associated primarily with the anogenital region 3.)does HSV-2 cause painful blisters on the penis of the male and cervix, vulva, or vagina of females |
2-3 weeks, no HSV-2 yes |
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1.)HSV-2 are typically transmitted through __contact and most easily transmitted when __are present 2.)are genital herpes presently incurable however a limited number of drugs are successful in controlling the infectious blister stage 3.)drug to help with HSV-2 |
sexual, active blisters yes guanine analog acyclovir |
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1.)human papillomavirus comprise a family of __stranded __viruses 2.)HPV causes many infections and most are asymptomatic, but some progress to ___ 3.)HPV can also cause ___(abnormalities in cells of the cervix) and a few progress to cervical cancer 4.)is there an effective HPV vaccine |
double, DNA genital warts cervical neoplasia yes
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1.)__was recognized as a distinct disease in 1981 2.)causative agent of AIDS 3.)as many as __people worldwide may be infected with HIV 4.)normal T cell count? what T cell count indicates AIDS 5.)what kind of virus is HIV |
AIDS HIV 1.4 600-1000, 200 retrovirus that affects T-helpers |
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1.)HIV is divided into how many types 2.)HIV __ is the more virulent type while HIV __is a less virulent type and causes a milder, AIDS-like disease 3.)what kind of infections are common in AIDS patients 4.)the most common type of opportunistic infection with AIDS |
2 1, 2 opportunistic pneumonia |
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1.)the pneumonia is caused by what? 2.)a frequent non-microbial disease in AIDS patients is __, an atypical cancer 3.)HIV infects cells that contain what 4.)the most commonly infected cells by HIV are 5.)HIV also interacts with __on target cells 6.)is it true that in some HIV/AIDS patients HIV infection does not progress immediately to killing host immune cells |
protest Pneumocystis jiroveci Kaposi's sarcoma CD4 cell surface proteins macrophages and T-helper cells coreceptors yes |
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1.)HIV can exist in a dormant state as a __ 2.)when its a provirus, the __transcribed HIV genome, now in the form of DNA, is integrated into host chromosomal DNA, however sooner or later it will replicate 3.)HIV gp120/gp41 protein binds CD4 receptor and __receptor |
provirus reverse-transcribed CCR5 |
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1.)next the interaction of the virus with a receptor-coreceptor pair on the __cell 2.)next the viral __and host membrane coalesce 3.)lastly, the __is inserted into the host cell, beginning the viral infection 4.)does HIV infection immediately kill the host cell |
host envelope nucleocapsid no |
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1.)HIV infection results in a progressive decline in __cells 2.)as the number of CD4 cells declines, __production falls, leading to reduction of the immune response 3.)HIV infection can be diagnosed with an HIV __, HIV ___, or __tests 4.)a positive HIV EIA must be confirmed by an HIV __ |
CD4 cytokine EIA, immunoblot, rapid immunoblot(western blot), immunofluorescence |
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1.)the EIA, immunoblot, and rapid test fail to detect infection in individuals who recently acquired HIV and have not made a detectable __ 2.)___can detect HIV RNA directly from blood and estimate the number of viruses present 3.)what is RT-PCR useful for 4.)how many classes of drugs delay the symptoms of AIDS and prolong the life of the patient |
antibody RT-PCR early detection and monitoring the progression 4
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1.)name the 4 classes of drugs 2.)RT-PCR estimates the number of HIV virions present in the blood, the so called __ 3.)HIV is a __stranded __virus 4.)__is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor |
1.)nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, fusion inhibitors 2.)viral load 3.)single, RNA 4.)Azidothymidine |
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1.)__is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor 2.)__inhibitors are peptide analogs that inhibit processing of retroviral polypeptides 3.)__is a protease inhibitor 4.)__inhibitors stop fusion of the viral envelope and the CD4 cell cytoplasmic membrane 5.)__is a fusion inhibitor |
nevirapine protease saquinavir fusion enfuviritide |
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1.)__is a typical treatment and the protocol for treatment of an established HIV infection includes at least one protease or nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor plus a combination of two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors 2.)is there an effective vaccine for HIV |
HAART(highly active antiretroviral therapy) no |
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1.)prevention for the spread of HIV infection requires __and avoidance of __ 2.)nongonoccal urethritis may also be caused by infections with the protists __ 3.)trichomoniasis is generally transmitted via __contact, but can also transmit via contaminated __or __ |
education, high risk behavior Trichomonas vaginalis sexual, toilet seats, paper towels |
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1.)trichomoniasis is typically asymptomatic in what gender 2.)for females, trichomoniasis infections are characterized by __, vaginitis, and painful __ 3.)an endemic disease present in an animal population 4.)an epidemic disease present in an animal population |
males vaginal discharge, urination enzootic epizootic
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1.)an emerging, acute disease characterized by pneumonia, caused by rodent hantavirus 2.)an emerging acute disease characterized by shock and kidney failure, caused by rodent hantavirus 3.)a tick-transmitted disease caused by spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi |
Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome (HPS) Hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome Lyme disease |
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1.)an insect transmitted disease characterized by recurrent episodes of fever and anemia; caused by the protest Plasmodium spp., usually transmitted b/w mammals through the bite of the Anopheles mosquito 2.)any infection caused by a fungus 3.)an enzootic disease in rodents caused by Yersinia pestis that can be transferred to humans through the bite of a flea |
malaria mycosis plaque |
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1.)a usually fatal neurological disease caused by the rabies virus, which is usually transmitted by the bit or saliva of an infected animal 2.)obligate intracellular bacteria of the genus Rickettsia responsible for diseases including typhus, spotted fever rickettsiosis, and ehrlichiosis |
rabies Rickettsia |
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1.)a tick-transmitted disease caused by Rickettsia rickettsia, characterized by fever, headache, rash, and gastrointestinal symptoms 2.) a condition in which there aren't enough healthy red blood cells to carry adequate oxygen throughout your body, it is inherited 3.)a disease involving rigid paralysis of the voluntary muscles caused by an exotoxin produced by Clostridium |
1.)spotted fever rickettsiosis or rocky mountain spotted fever 2.)sickle cell anemia 3.)tetanus |
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1.)a louse transmitted disease caused by Rickettsia prowazeki, causing fever, headache, weakness, rash, and damage to the central nervous system and internal organs 2.)a neurological disease caused by West Nile virus, a virus transmitted by mosquitos from birds to humans 3.)any disease primarily of animals that is occasionally transmitted to humans |
typhus West Nile Fever zoonosis
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1.)__is an animal disease transmissible to humans 2.)zoonosis is generally transmitted via __contact, __or bites 3.)animal diseases may be either __, which is present endemically in certain populations, and ___ which is when incidences reach epidemic proportions |
zoonosis direct, aerosols enzootic, epizootic |
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1.)rabies occurs primarily as an __disease in animals but can be spread as a __disease to humans 2.)reservoirs for rabies in the US 3.)over __people die annually from rabies, primarily in what kind of countries 4.)over __people receive post exposure prophylactic care each year |
epizootic, zoonotic raccoons, skunks, coyotes, foxes, bats 50,000 1,000,000
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1.)rabies is caused by what virus 2.)Rhabdovirus is a __strand __virus that causes rabies 3.)does rabies lead to death if not treated 4.)the virus enters the body through __or __ 5.)in humans, __months may pass before onset of symptoms |
rhabdovirus negative, RNA yes wound, bite 9 |
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1.)the rhabdovirus proliferates in the brain and leads to __ ,excitation, __of pupils, excessive salivation, __, and fear of swallowing 2.)rabies is diagnosed using __ 3.)__antibodies that bind to rabies virus in brain tissues are uses to confirm a case of rabies in a postmortem examination |
fever, dilation, anxiety tissue samples fluorescent
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1.)viral inclusions called __are seen in the cytoplasm of nerve cells stain for light microscopy and these characteristic structures confirm rabies virus infection as well 2.)a victim can be __immunized with rabies immune globulin 3.)a victim can also be __immunized by using a rabies virus vaccine |
Negri bodies passively actively |
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1.)rabies spread is prevented largely through immunization of what? 2.)has the rabies treatment strategy been extremely successful in the US 3.)less than __cases a year of rabies are reported in humans 4.)Hantavirus is a __stranded __sense __virus |
domestic animals yes 3 single, minus, RNA
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1.)hantavirus can cause several diseases, what are they 2.)both diseases named above are caused by hantavirus-infected __ 3.)the hantavirus was named for __, which is where the virus was first recognized as a human pathogen 4.)where did significant outbreaks of the hanta virus occur in the US in 1993 |
1.)hantavirus pulmonary syndrome, hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome 2.)rodents 3.)Hantann, Korea 4.)Arizona, Colorado, New Mexico |
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1.)is the Hantavirus segmented and enveloped 2.)Hanta virus is a member of the ___ 3.)Hantavirus is related to hemorrhagic fever viruses such as __and __ 4.)Hantavirus infections are handled with BSL ___safety precautions 5.)what is the reservoirs for hantavirus 6.)up to __cases of hantavirus are recognized annually |
yes Bunyaviridae Lassa fever, Ebola 4 rodents (mice, rats, voles, and lemmings) 200,000 |
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1.)hantavirus is transmitted how? 2.)__is characterized by a sudden onset of fever, myalgia, thrombocytopenia, leukocytosis, and pulmonary capillary leakage 3.)death occurs within several days in __% of cases of people who have hantavirus pulmonary syndrome 4.)what is the treatment for people infected with hantavirus
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inhalation of virus contaminated rodent excreta hantavirus pulmonary syndrome (HPS) 35 no treatment or vaccine
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1.)__are small bacteria that have strict intracellular existence in vertebrates 2.)rickettsias is associated with bloodsucking __ 3.)3 groups of rickettsias 4.)rickettsias is named for __ 5.)rickettsias is closely related to human __ 6.)is it true that rickettsias contain minimal sets of genes required or intracellular dependency |
rickettsias arthropods Typus group, spotted fever, ehrlichiosis group Howard Ricketts mitochondria yes |
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1.)__is transmitted by the body or head louse bite that gets contaminated with louse feces 2.)typhus group is caused by? 3.)__is transmitted by dog and wood ticks 4.)over __people acquire spotted fever group every year 5.)another name for spotted fever rickettsiosis |
typhus group Rickettsia prowazeki spotted fever group 2,000 rocky mountain spotted fever
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1.)what causes spotted fever group 2.)symptoms of rocky mountain spotted fever include __, fever, and __ 3.)the __group consist of emerging diseases like human granulocytic anaplasmosis and human monocytic ehrlichiosis, which are spread by tick bites |
rickettsia rickettsii headache, rash ehrlichiosis |
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1.)the pathogens Ehrlichia chaffeensis and rickettsia sennetsu cause what 2.)the pathogens ehrlichia ewingii and Anaplasma phagocytophilum cause what 3.)for HME and HGA, __-like symptoms appear such as fever, headache, malaise, and leukopenia or thrombocytopenia 4.)is prompt recognition of these diseases essential, but remains difficult |
human monocytic ehrlichiosis (HME) human granulocytic anaplasmosis (HGA) flue yes
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1.)is antibiotic treatment for HGA and HME usually successful 2.)avoiding hosts and using insect __are your best bets for reducing your chances of exposure to HGA and HME 3.)__is a tickborne disease that affects humans and other animals 4.)where was Lyme disease first reported |
yes repellants Lyme disease Old Lyme, Connecticut |
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1.)what is the most prevalent tickborne disease in the US 2.)Lyme disease is caused by ___ 3.)Borrelia burgdorferi is a __shaped bacteria 4.)Lyme disease is spread primarily by the __tick 5.)basically, for Lyme disease, the reservoir is the __ and the __is the vector |
Lyme disease Borrelia burgdorferi spirochete deer deer, tick |
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1.)besides deer, __are also the prime mammalian reservoirs for Lyme disease 2.)was Lyme disease also identified in Europe and Asia 3.)in the US, most cases of Lyme disease were reported where 4.)is the number of Lyme disease cases rising yearly |
white-food field mouse yes Northeast and upper midwest yes |
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1.)in about 75% of Lyme cases, a concentric circular __rash forms within a week at the site of the tick bite 2.)if a disease is in its tertiary stage, this means what kind of damage 3.)symptoms of Lyme disease include __, backache, __, and fatigue 4.)during the initial stages of Lyme disease, it can be treated with __ |
bulls eye neurological headache, chills antibiotics |
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1.)chronic stages of Lyme disease develops when 2.)is Lyme disease spread person to person 3.)__%-__% of people in the chronic stage of Lyme disease develop __ 4.)other people in the chronic stage of Lyme disease develop __damage or __damage 5.)for Lyme disease, has toxins or virulence factors been identified |
weeks to months no 40-60, arthritis neurological, heart no |
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1.)malaria is a __disease caused by the organism __ 2.)malaria has a complex life cycle that includes __as vectors 3.)estimates of __people infected with malaria worldwide 4.)each year over __people die from malaria 5.)where is malaria generally found |
protest, Plasmodium spp. Anopheles mosquitos 350,000,000 1,000,000 tropical and subtropical regions |
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1.)diagnosis for malaria requires identification of plasmodium infected __in blood smears 2.)__(action to prevent disease) for travel to endemic areas is recommended 3.)are drugs used to prevent and treat malaria infections 4.)can malaria recur years after the primary infections |
erythrocytes prophylaxis yes yes |
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1.)there are about __cases of malaria in the US annually 2.)are several vaccines currently in development for malaria 3.)some individuals in regions where malaria is an endemic have ___and other __ that make them resistant to malaria 4.)west nile fever is caused by __ |
1,500 yes sickle cell trait, thalassemia west nile virus |
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1.)West Nile virus is a __virus 2.)transmission of West nile is by __ 3.)is transmission of WNV seasonal 4.)at least 130 species of __are reservoirs for WNV 5.)humans and other animals are classified as __host to the WNV |
flavivirus like yellow fever and dengue virus mosquito bites yes bird dead-end |
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1.)Are there any antival drugs effective in vivo against WNV 2.)__has caused more human deaths than any other infectious disease except for malaria and tuberculosis 3.)plaque is caused by __ 4.)Yersinia pestis is a gram __, __aerobic, __shaped bacteria |
no plague Yersinia pestis negative, facultatively, rod |
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1.)plague is also called __because of the development of __in the infected individuals 2.)plague is a disease of domestic and wild __ 3.)with the plague, humans are __host 4.)__are intermediate hosts and vectors that spread plague b/w mammalian hosts 5.)Y.pestis produces virulence factors such as __that contribute to the disease process |
bubonic plague, buboes rodents accidental fleas endotoxins |
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1.)can plague be treated if its rapidly diagnosed? 2.)treatment for plague is with __or __ 3.)if plague is treat properly, mortality is only __%-__% of those infected 4.)plague can exist in several forms, the first is __plague and is enzootic among rodents |
yes gentamycin, streptomycin 1-5 sylvatic |
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1.)the most common form of plague is bubonic plague, so called because of the __that develop in the infected individual 2.)Most US cases of the plague occur in what region 3.)__plague is another form that occurs when Y. pestis reaches the lungs 4.)__plague is another form that is the rapid spread of Y. pestis throughout the body |
buboes southwest pneumonic septicemic |
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1.)only about __fungal species cause disease 2.)fungi can be __or a __ 3.)fungi cause disease through 3 major mechanisms, what are they 4.)an example of mycotoxins 5.)an infection of a fungus is called __ 6.)__is the growth of a fungus on or in the body
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50 yeast or mold allergic response to fungi, mycotoxins, infections alflatoxins (peanuts) mycoses mycoses |
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1.)all mycotoxins must be injected to cause damage usually, only exception is by __ such as mowing 2.)__toxin is said to be like LSD and it is a mycotoxin that is to blame for the Salem witch trials 3.)mycoses fall into 3 categories, what are they |
arosal Ergot superficial, subcutaneous, systemic |
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1.)__mycoses is when fungi colonize the hair, skin, or nails and infect only the surface layers 2.)__mycoses is when fungi colonize deeper layers of skin, they are a different group of fungi 3.)__mycoses is fungal growth in internal organs of the body, they are subclassified as primary or secondary infections |
superficial subcutaneous systemic |
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1.)as stated, fungi can be a yeast or mold, how do yeast reproduce? how do mold reproduce 2.)what else does mold have besides spores 3.)an example of a mold that produces potent allergens triggering asthma attacks or other hypersensitivity reactions 4.)the pathogens that cause superficial mycoses are called __ |
budding (Canida albicans), spores hyphae Aspergillus dermatophytes |
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1.)an example of superficial mycoses 2.)the genus name of a ringworm is __ 3.)to diagnose superficial mycoses you use a skin scraping technique and you look at it under a 40X microscope with __on the media and this dissolves the skin and you see the fungus 4.)rose handlers disease is caused by a __ 5.)what else is rose handlers disease called |
ringworm Microsporum KOH yeast sporotrichosis |
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1.)sporotrichosis is a __mycoses 2.)with sporotrichosis, thorns break the skin and yeast goes in and causes __ 3.)systemic basically means what 4.)Canida and Histopladmosis are diamorphic fungi, they have two shapes or forms, they are a __at body temperature and are in __form at room temperature |
subcutaneous infection throughout the body yeast, mold |
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1.)fungal infections can be especially serious in individuals with an impaired __system (AIDS patients) or those taking __drugs 2.)chemotherapy against systemic fungal infections is difficult because antibiotics that inhibit fungi also tend to inhibit __ 3.)what is the cause of anthrax 4.)bacillus is gram __ and __shaped |
immune, immunosuppressive hosts Bacillus anthracis positive, rod |
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1.)the __of bacillus is used to enhance the ability to disseminate B. anthracis 2.)the natural reservoir for B. anthracis is __and is primarily associated with __animals 3.)3 forms of human anthrax 4.)is anthrax treatable with antibiotics if done early 5.)is a vaccine available for high risk anthrax individuals |
endospores soil, farm cutaneous, gastrointestinal, pulmonary yes yes |
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1.)__anthrax are virtually all cases of human anthrax, it is where spores of B.anthracis have entered through a skin lesion, germinate, and form a painless, black and swollen pustule 2.)__anthrax is very uncommon and is triggered by the ingestion of spores of B. anthracis in undercooked meat from diseased animals |
cutaneous intestinal |
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1.)__anthrax is the most severe form of the disease and is fatal in almost every case 2.)__is a serious, often life threatening disease caused by an exotoxin produced by C. tetani 3.)natural reservoir of tetanus 4.)C. tetani gain access to the body through __contaminated wounds 5.)result of C. tetani on people is __ |
inhalation (pulmonary) tetanus soils soil lockjaw |
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1.)tetanus is preventable, the existing vaccine is completely effective, but inadequately __individuals are at risk 2.)Clostridium is gram __ and what else is special about it 3.)__is tissue destruction due to proteolysis and gas-producing clostridia 4.)with gas gangrene, how does clostridia enter tissue |
immunized positive, endospore forming rod gas gangrene trauma
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1.)gas gangrene is mainly caused by __ 2.)C. perfringens are found in __and __of animals 3.)treatment for gas gangrene is with __and __ 4.)what does hyperbaric oxygen do to the bacteria 5.)__of dead tissue for people with gas gangrene may be necessary |
C. perfringens soil, intestinal tract antibodies, hyperbaric oxygen inhibits growth of obligately anaerobic clostridia amputation |
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1.)__Is associated with antibiotic induced diarrhea 2.)digestive reactions carried out by microorganisms under aerobic conditions to treat wastewater containing low levels of organic materials 3.)digestive and fermentative reactions carried out by microorganisms under anoxic conditions to treat wastewater containing high levels of insoluble organic materials |
Clostridium difficile aerobic secondary wastewater treatment anoxic secondary wastewater treatment |
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1.)the amount of dissolved oxygen consumed by microorganisms for complete oxidation of organic and inorganic material in a water sample 2.)a chemical used in its gaseous state to disinfect water, a residual level is maintained throughout the distribution 3.)a reservoir In which suspended solids of raw water are coagulated and removed |
biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) chlorine clarifier (coagulation basin) |
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1.)the formation of large insoluble particles from much smaller, colloidal particles by the addition of aluminum sulfate and anionic polymers 2.)gram negative, nonsporulating, facultatively aerobic rob that ferments lactose with gas formation within 48 hours at 35 degrees C |
coagulation coliform |
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1.)a resting stage formed by some bacteria and protists in which the whole cell is surrounded by a thick walled, chemically and physically resistant coating, not the same as a spore or endospore 2.)water pipes, storage reservoirs, tanks, and other means used to deliver drinking water to consumers or store it before delivery 3.)treated wastewater discharged from a wastewater treatment facility |
cyst distribution system effluent water |
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1.)the removal of suspended particles from water by passing it through one or more permeable membranes or media (sand, anthracite, or diatomaceous earth) 2.)water delivered to the distribution system after treatment 3.)the invasion, inflammation, and destruction of brain tissue by the amoeba Naegleria fowleri or a variety of other pathogens |
filtration finished water meningoencephalitis |
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1.)the water treatment process after coagulation that uses gentle stirring to cause suspended particles to form larger, aggregated masses (flocs) 2.)in water purification, drinkable; safe for human consumption 3.)the physical separation of wastewater contaminants, usually by separation and settling |
flocculation potable primary wastewater treatment |
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1.)surface water or groundwater that has not been treated in any way (also called untreated water) 2.)in water purification, the soil, sand, minerals, and other large particles found in raw water 3.)liquid effluents contaminated with human or animal fecal material 4.)a small particle of solid pollutant that resists separation by ordinary physical means |
raw water sediment sewage suspended solid |
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1.)the physicochemical or biological processing of wastewater to reduce levels of inorganic nutrients 2.)a measure of suspended solids in water 3.)the liquid derived from domestic sewage or industrial sources, which cannot be discarded in untreated form into lakes or streams 4.)water is a potential __of infectious disease |
tertiary wastewater treatment turbidity wastewater common source |
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1.)water can also be a source for chemically induced __ 2.)ensuring water __is essential for public health 3.)treatment and purification schemes use __to identify, remove, and degrade pollutants 4.)common sources of waterborne disease transmission include? |
intoxications purity microorganisms potable water and recreational water |
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1.)__water is used for drinking and cooking 2.)potable water undergoes extensive treatment, including __and __ 3.)although filtration removes __and many microorganisms, it is __that makes drinking water safe 4.)chlorine gas is a strong __and oxidizes both organic matter dissolved in the water and microbial cells themselves |
potable filtration, chlorination turbidity, chlorination oxidant |
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1.)__waters include public ponds, lakes, and swimming pools. 2.)is it practical to screen water for every pathogenic organism? 3.)potable and recreational water are routinely tested for specific __organisms, the presence of which signals potential for waterborne diseases 4.)__are an indicator organisms |
recreational no indicator coliforms |
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1.)are all coliforms fecal 2.)coliforms are useful because many of them inhabit the __of humans 3.)does the presence of coliforms in water indicate likely fecal contamination 4.)__coliforms are used in water safety testing 5.)__is a key fecal coliform |
no intestinal tract yes fecal E. coli |
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1.)coliforms are __aerobic, gram __, __shaped, ___(sporelating or non-sporelating) bacteria that ferment __with the production of gas with 48 hr at 35 degrees celcius 2.)does the absence of E. coli in water ensure that a water source is potable 3.)do all test assay the growth of organisms recovered from the water samples |
1.)facultatively, negative, rod, non-sporelating, lactose 2.)not necessarily 3.)yes |
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1.)2 common methods for testing for coliforms 2.)one of the common methods is the __procedure where at least 100 ml of freshly collected water is passes through a sterile membrane filter, trapping any bacteria on the filter surface 3.)the filter is placed on a plate of EMB medium, which is selective for gram __, __utilizing bacteria |
1.)membrane filter (MF), most-probable number (MPN) 2.)membrane filter 3.)negative, lactose |
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1.)EMB is also differential, allowing strongly fermentative species such as __ to be distinguished from weakly fermentative species such as Proteus 2.)selective media are also available that not only detect total coliforms but also specifically identify E. coli simultaneously, these __tests are typically faster and more accurate than EMB based assays |
E. coli defined substrate |
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1.)one popular plate based test is based on the ability of E. coli but not other enteric bacteria to metabolize a combination of two specific chemicals to form a __blue compound (Eg. MUG and IBDG) 2.)E. coli can be distinguished from total coliforms with __ 3.)in properly regulated drinking water supply systems, total coliform and E. coli fecal coliform test should be __ |
fluorescent define substrates negative |
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1.)a positive coliform test indicates a breakdown has occurred in either the __or __system or both 2.)a commonly used method for performing coliform counts is the __test system 3.)the IDEXX Colilert test utilizes __(ownership) substances 3.)with the IDEXX, sample with no coliforms remains __, while presence of coliforms turn media __ |
purification, distribution IDEXX Colilert proprietary clear, yellow |
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1.)E. coli turns media what color 2.)effective water treatment practices that reduced the incidence of waterborne disease were not in place until the __century 3.)coliforms counting methods were developed and adapted around __ 4.)water purification started with __ 5.)about __, chlorine came into play |
fluorescent blue 20th 1906 filtration 1913 |
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1.)chlorine came into use as a __for large water supplies 2.)__is domestic sewage or liquid industrial waste 3.)__treatment relies on industrial-scale use of microbes for bioconversion 4.)following treatment, the discharged treated wastewater (__water) is suitable for release into surface waters or release to drinking water __facilities |
disinfectant wastewater wastewater effluent, purification |
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1.)the goal of this is to reduce organic and inorganic materials in wastewater to a level that no longer supports microbial growth and to eliminate other potentially toxic materials 2.)the efficiency of treatment is expressed in terms of a reduction in the ___ 3.)__is the amount of dissolved oxygen consumed by microbes to completely oxidize all organic and inorganic matter in a water sample |
wastewater treatment facility biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) |
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1.)high levels of organic and inorganic materials in the wastewater result in a __BOD 2.)wastewater treatment is a multistep operation employing both __and __processes 3.)__, __, and __are employed to reduce biological and chemical contamination in the wastewater, each higher level of treatment employs more complex technologies |
high physical, biological primary, secondary, tertiary |
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1.)__treatment uses physical separation methods to separate solid and particulate organic and inorganic materials from wastewater 2.)with primary treatment, wastewater entering the treatment plant is passes through a series of __and __that remove large objects 3.)with primary, is the effluent allowed to settle for a few hours |
primary grates, screens yes |
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1.)what does a high BOD indicate 2.)do high levels of soluble suspended organic matter and other nutrients remain in water following primary treatment 3.)__treatment involves a series of digestive and fermentative reactions carried out by various microbes under anoxic conditions |
1.)high amounts of organic material therefore a lot of microorganisms 2.)yes 3.)anoxic secondary treatment |
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1.)anaerobic treatment is typically used to treat wastewater containing large quantities of insoluble organic matter such as fiber and cellulose waste from food and __plants 2.)the anaerobic degradation process is carried out in large, enclosed tanks called __or __, this process requires the collective activities of many different types of prokaryotes |
dairy sludge digesters, bioreactors |
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1.)__treatment uses digestive reactions carried out by microbes under aerobic conditions to treat wastewater with low levels of organic materials 2.)in general, wastewaters that originate from __sources can be treated efficiently using only aerobic treatment |
secondary aerobic wastewater residential |
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1.)several aerobic degradative processes can be used for wastewater treatment, __methods are the most common and here, wastewater is continuously mixed and aerated in large tanks 2.)The __method is also commonly used for secondary aerobic treatment, it is a bed of crusted rocks and wastewater is sprayed on top of the rocks and slowly passes through the bed, the organic material in the wastewater absorbs to the rocks, and the bacteria grow |
activated sludge trickling filter |
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1.)in the __process, wastewater is mixed and aerated in large tanks and slime forming bacteria (Zoogloea ramigera) grow and form flocs 2.)most treatment plants __the effluent after secondary treatment to further reduce the possibility of biological contamination |
activated sludge chlorinate |
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1.)__treatment is any physiochemical or biological process employing bioreactors, precipitation, filtration, or chlorination procedures similar to those used for purification of drinking water 2.)__treatment is defined as any treatment process in which unit operations are added for the further processing of the secondary treatment effluent |
tertiary tertiary |
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1.)tertiary treatment reduces the levels of __nutrients (phosphate, nitrate, nitrite) 2.)what is the most complete method of treating sewage and why is it not widely adopted 3.)wastewater treated by secondary methods is not yet __, or safe for human consumption 4.)it requires further treatment to remove pathogens, eliminate taste and order, reduce __(iron, magnesium), and decrease __ |
inorganic tertiary, cost too much potable chemicals, turbidity |
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1.)__is a measure of suspended solids 2.)__are small particles of solid pollutants that resist separation by ordinary physical means 3.)a typical drinking water treatment installation purifies raw (__) water 4.)__means to remove particles 5.)__and __form additional aggregates, which settle out |
turbidity suspended solids untreated sedimentation coagulation and flocculation |
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1.)raw water is first pumped from a source, to a __basin where anionic polymers alum, and chlorine are added 2.)__, including soil, sand, mineral particles, and other large particles settle out 3.)the sediment free water is then pumped to a __or coagulation basin, which is a large holding tank where __takes places |
sedimentation sediment clarifier, coagulation |
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1.)after mixing, the particles continue to interact, forming large aggregated masses, a process called __ 2.0the large aggregated particles (floc) settle out by __, trapping microorganisms and absorbing suspended organic matter and sediment |
flocculation gravity |
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1.)after coagulation, flocculation, and sedimentation, the clarified water undergoes __through a series of filters designed to remove organic and inorganic solutes, as well as remaining suspended particles and organisms 2.)clarified, filtered water must be ___ before it is released to the supply system as pure, potable finished water |
filtration disinfected |
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1.)disinfection is typically with __gas or __radiation 2.)microorganisms transmitted in water generally grow in the __and leave the body in __ 3.)does feces then pollute water? 4.)numerous __and __pathogens can be transmitted in drinking water |
chlorine, UV intestines, feces yes bacterial, protozoan |
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1.)in the US, the number of disease outbreaks due to drinking or recreational water contamination is __ 2.)lack of adequate __treatment facilities and access to clean __contribute to the spread of infectious diseases 3.)Vibrio cholera is gram __, motile __shaped species of proteobacteria |
low water, water negative, curved |
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1.)cholera causes severe __ 2.)cholera is typically transmitted through ingestion of ___ 3.)is cholera largely restricted to developing countries such as endemics in Africa, Southeast Asia, the Indian subcontinent, and Central and South America 4.)can cholera be controlled |
diarrhea contaminated water yes yes by application of water treatment |
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1.)what does cholera basically do 2.)V. cholera attaches to __cells in the small intestines, where it grows and releases __ 3.)the endotoxin causes severe __ 4.)what causes death by cholera 5.)the presence of V. cholera __of patients is a typical diagnosis |
blocks sodium absorption epithelial, cholera toxin diarrhea dehydration unless treated bacilli in the rice water stools |
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1.)is immunization recommended for cholera 2.)are public health measure very important for cholera 3.)treatment for cholera includes oral __and __replacement therapy 4.)Giardia intestinalis gram stain and morphology |
no yes rehydration, electrolyte gram negative in structure, curved rod |
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1.)Giardia intestinalis causes __, an acute gastroenteritis 2.)Cryptosporidium pavum causes __, which is a gastrointestinal illness 3.)G. intestinalis and Cryptosporidium are what? 4.)Giardia and Cryptosporidium are highly resistant to __ 5.)why are they highly resistant to chlorine |
giardiasis cryptosporidiosis protists chlorine cyst |
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1.)G. intestinalis is a __protest that is usually transmitted to humans in fecally contaminated water 2.)the protest cells produce a resting stage (__) that is resistant to desiccation and chemical disinfection 3.)following infection, cysts __and attach to the intestinal wall, causing symptoms of infection |
flagellated cyst germinate |
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1.)do many individuals infected with Giardia intestinalis exhibit symptoms and can they act as carriers 2.)one indication of G. intestinalis 3.)C. parvum is a protest that lives as a __in warm blooded animals 4.)C. parvum produces thick walled cells (__) that are shed in the feces of infected animals |
yes foul smelling watery diarrhea parasite oocysts |
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1.)are the oocysts transmitted in fecally contaminated water 2.)oocysts are highly resistant to __and __radiation, thus __and __methods are most effective at removal 3.)__, caused by C. parvum, is usually a self limiting diarrhea, but can lead to more serious disease in compromised individuals |
yes chlorine, UV, sedimentation, filtration cryptosporidiosis |
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1.)gram stain of Legionella pneumophila 2.)L. pneumophila causes __ 3.)Legionellosis is normally transmitted in __ 4.)does L. pneumophila have complex nutritional requirements 5.)is L. pneumophila common in terrestrial and aquatic habitats |
gram negative Legionellosis aerosols yes yes |
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1.)L. pneumophila is relatively resistant to __ and __ 2.)L. pneumophila is common is __and __of large air conditioning systems 3.)L. pneumophila grows in the water and is disseminated in humidified __ 4.)is infection with L. pneumophila spread from person to person |
heating, chlorination cooling towers, evaporative condensers aerosols no |
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1.)is the prevalence of legionellosis increasing and infections are often underreported 2.)treatment for Legionellosis is with __ 3.)what is another name for Legionellosis 4.)prevention of Legionnaires Disease can be accomplished by improving maintenance and design of water dependent __and __systems and water delivery systems |
yes antibiotics Legionnaire's Disease cooling, heating |
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1.)worldwide, the most important pathogenic bacteria transmitted by water are __and __ 2.)S. enterica ser.Typhi causes __and has been virtually eliminated in developed counties due to water treatment 3.)can viruses also be transmitted in water and cause human disease |
Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi & V. Cholera Typhoid Fever yes |
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1.)__viruses such as poliovirus, norovirus, and hepatitis A are shed into water from feces 2.)viruses can survive in water for relatively long periods of time but are inactivated by disinfection with __ 3.)S. enterica serovar Typhi is gram __ and flagellated |
enteroviruses chlorine negative |
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1.)__is a pathogenic protest transmitted to humans primarily through contaminated water and sometimes food 2.)Entamoeba histolytica is __and produces __ 3.)E. histolytica infection can be asymptomatic or can lead to __or __ 4.)if E. histolytica is untreated, invasive cells can invade the __and occasionally the __and __ |
Entamoeba histolytica anaerobic, cysts diarrhea, dysentery liver, lungs, brain
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1.)are amoebicidal drugs universally effective 2.)___is a free living amoeba found in soil and water runoff that can cause amebiasis 3.)infections with Naegleria fowleri usually result from __in warm, soil-contaminated water sources (hot springs or lakes) |
no Naegleria fowleri swimming |
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1.)N. fowleri enters the body through the __and burrows directly into the __, causing extensive hemorrhage and brain damage 2.)the extensive hemorrhage and brain damage is called __ 3.)is drug treatment for N. fowleri effective if infections are identified early |
nose, brain meningoencephalitis yes |
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1.)food poisoning due to ingestion of food containing botulinum toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum 2.)the process of sealing food in a closed container and heating to destroy living organisms and endospores |
botulism canning |
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1.)the anaerobic catabolism of an organic compound in which the compound serves as both an electron donor and an electron acceptor and in which ATP is usually produced by substrate level phosphorylation 2.)a microbial infection resulting from the ingestion of pathogen contaminated food followed by growth of the pathogen in the host |
fermentation food infection |
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1.)a disease caused by the ingestion of food that contains preformed microbial toxins 2.)any chance in a food product that makes it unacceptable to the consumer 3.)in food microbiology, the exposure of food to ionizing radiation to inhibit microorganisms and insect pests or to retard growth or ripenind |
food poisoning (food intoxication) food spoilage irradiation |
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1.)a gastrointestinal food infection caused by Listeria monocytogenes that may lead to bacteremia and meningitis 2.)the process of removing all water from frozen food under vacuum 3.)food of low water activity that have an extended shelf life and are resistant to spoilage by microorganisms |
Listeriosis Lyophilization (freeze drying) nonperishable (stable) food |
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1.)fresh food generally of high water activity that has a very short shelf life due to potential for spoilage by growth of microorganisms 2.)the process of acidifying food, typically with acetic acid, to prevent microbial growth and spoilage 3.)Enterocolitis or other gastrointestinal disease caused by any of several species of the bacterium Salmonella |
perishable food pickling salmonellosis |
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1.)food of intermediate water activity that has a limited shelf life due to potential for spoilage by growth of microorganisms 2.)an expression of the relative availability of water in a substance 3.)pure water has a water activity of __ 4.)any change in appearance, smell, or taste of a food product that makes it unpalatable to the consumer |
semiperishable food water activity 1.000 spoilage |
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1.)can food still be safe to eat, but is considered unacceptable when you have food spoilage 2.)the __of food determines its susceptibility to microbial spoilage 3.)__foods include many fresh food items such as meats and many veggies 4.)__foods include foods such as potatoes, some apples, and nuts |
yes chemical composition perishable semi-perishable |
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1.)__are foods such as sugar and flour 2.)susceptibility to food spoilage is based in large part on __content 3.)__foods have higher moisture content than __foods 4.)fresh foods are spoiled by both __and __ 5.)spoilage organisms are those that can gain access to the food and use the available __ |
nonperishable foods moisture perishable, nonperishable bacteria, fungi nutrients
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1.)E. coli frequently contaminates meat products because it is found in animals __ 2.)does microbial growth follow the normal pattern for bacterial growth 3.)only during the last few population __ is food spoilage actually observed 4.)methods for slowing spoilage and foodborne disease |
1.)digestive tracts 2.)yes 3.)doublings 4.)aseptic food processing, cold, chemical preservation, drying and dehydration, heating, irradiation, pickling and acidity |
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1.)__slows microbial growth rate and delays spoilage 2.)__bacteria can grow at refrigerator temperatures 3.)freezing allows for longer __, but isn't suitable for all foods 4.)__is an important factor in microbial growth |
cold psychrotolerant storage pH
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1.)with pH, most foods are __or __ 2.)at pH less than __, most spoilage organisms are inhibited 3.)during the pickling process, __is added to a solution with __and __ 4.)pickled foods include pickles, __, peppers, and __ 5.)moisture content (___) is critical for microbial metabolic processes |
neutral, acidic 5 acetic acid, sugar, salt fish, fruits water activity |
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1.)__and __reduce the availability of water for microbial growth (in affect __the food) 2.)dehydrated foods include jams, __, meats, and __ 3.)__is the physical removal of frozen water under vacuum, it is very expensive but effective 4.)___ is used to reduce the bacterial load (__) of a product or to actually sterile it (___) |
sugar, salt, dehydrating jellies, fish lyophilization (freeze-drying) heating, pasteurization, canning |
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1.)is canning always 100% affective 2.)with canning, failure results in __can, which is an indicator not to eat that food 3.)with heating, the limited heat treatment of __ does not sterilize liquids but reduces microbial numbers and eliminates pathogens 4.)are some foods now processed and packed aseptically (free from contamination) |
no swollen pasteurization yes |
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1.)can aseptically packaged foods be stored on shelves for months or longer 2.)aseptic packaging involves __heating and packing in __containers 3.)examples of aseptic food processing 4.)over __compounds are used as food additives |
yes flash, sterile juice boxes, milk substitutes 3,000
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1.)are a small number of food additives used to control microbial growth 2.)name some of the chemicals used to control microbial growth 3.)some food additives, such as __, are controversial because studies show they may be harmful to human health 4.)does chemical preservation extend shelf life of finished foods |
yes sodium propionate, sodium benzoate, nitrites nitrates yes |
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1.)__is used to kill pathogens and spoilage organisms, it works on fruits, veggies, ready-to-eat meals and juices 2.)food can be __with ionizing radiation to reduce bacterial, fungal, and insect contamination 3.)irradiation uses __or __ radiation or __ 4.)is it true that irradiated foods must be labeled |
high pressure processing (HPP) irradiated gamma, beta, X-rays yes |
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1.)are many common foods preserved, produced or enhanced by the actions of microbes 2.)__is the anaerobic catabolism of organic compounds (generally __) 3.)important bacteria in the fermented food industry are __bacteria, __bacteria, and __bacteria 4.)products of fermentation include __, cheese, __, buttermilk, sausage, sauerkraut, and __ |
yes fermentation, carbohydrates lactic acid, propionic acid, acetic acid yeast bread, yogurt, soy sauce |
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1.)dairy products include cheese, __, __, and sour cream 2.)__bacteria are added to milk and the fermentation proceeds for a certain time period 3.)do some products require a second fermentation 4.)sausages are made from __, beef, and __ |
yogurt, buttermilk lactic acid yes pork, poultry |
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1.)__bacteria are added to the mixture when making sausage and after fermentation, sausages are __and __ 2.)fish are often mixed with __, shrimp, and __ 3.)__is fermented cabbage 4.)__is fermented cucumbers 5.)are olives, onions, tomatoes, peppers, and many fruits also fermented |
lactic acid, smokes, dried rice, spices Sauerkraut pickles yes |
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1.)vegetables are often fermented in __solutions 2.)__is a complex fermentation product of soybeans and wheat 3.)soy sauce ferments for __to __months in large vats 4.)vinegar is basically conversion of __to __ 5.)acidic acid bacteria include __and __ |
salt soy sauce 2, 4 ethyl alcohol to acetic acid Acetobacter, Gluconobacter |
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1.)processes for production of vinegar are the open vat (__) method, trickle (__), and __method 2.)commercially grown mushroom is the ___(__) 3.)Agaricus bisporus is generally cultivated in __ 4.)another widely cultured mushroom is the __(__) 5.)mushrooms with __gills mean don't eat, while mushrooms with __gills you can eat |
Orleans, quick vinegar, bubble basidiomycete (Agaricus bisporus) mushroom farms shiitake (Lentinus edulus) white, brown |
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1.)__(food intoxication) is disease that results from ingestion of foods containing preformed microbial toxins 2.)do the microorganisms that produced the toxins have to grow in the host 3.)__is microbial infection resulting from the ingestion of pathogen-contaminated food followed by growth of pathogen in the host |
food poisoning no food injection |
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1.)in addition to nonpathogenic microorganisms, __ microorganisms may be present in fresh foods 2.)have rapid detection methods been developed to look for the presence of some pathogens such as E. coli O157:H7 3.)the rapid detection test are __and __based 4.)In the US, foodborne outbreaks are reported to the __ |
pathogenic yes molecular, immunology CDC |
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1.)for microbial sampling, the standard method is __of the pathogen 2.)isolation from food requires treatment of food to suspend __ 3.)will you also want isolation from a diseased patient 4.)are there clusters of cases caused by microorganisms in a single source of food |
isolation microorganism yes yes |
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1.)widespread multiple disease outbreaks caused by processing __or __distribution center 2.)a standard method for isolation of pathogens employs a blender called a __, which is a device to process food samples sealed in sterile bags 3.)an example of effective foodborne disease tracking is the outbreak of E. coli in the US in 2006 which was found in __ |
plant, food stomacher spinach |
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1.)is staph heat tolerant and is the toxin affected 2.)preventing staph can be done by using the __technique 3.)food poisoning is often caused by toxins produced by ___ 4.)S. aureus can grow on common foods, and some strains produce heat stable __ |
yes, no aseptic (refridgerate) Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxins |
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1.)with S. aureus, __occurs within a few hours of consumption 2.)it is estimated that __cases of staphylococcal food poisoning occur each year 3.)enterotoxins of S. aureus classified as __produce large __cell response and an __response 4.)carrier of Staph |
gastroenteritis 185,000 superantigens, T, inflammatory nose and skin |
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1.)so if a person with staph cuts a ham and the bacteria gets on it, the ham sits under a heat lamp in a buffet, the bacteria will grow a __ and even reheating it, nothing will affect the __ 2.)when you ingest the toxin you get __,then the toxin passes thru your body 3.)__and __cause serious food poisoning |
toxin, toxin diarrhea C. perfringens, C. botulinum |
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1.)C. perfringens and botulinum produce __ that may not be killed during cooking/canning processes 2.)__is the most commonly reported form of food poisoning, with 248,000 annual cases 3.)to get food poisoning from C. perfringens, a __number of cells must be ingested |
endospores C. perfringens large (10 8)
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1.)with C. perfringens, enterotoxin is produced in the intestinal tract __-__hours after consumption 2.)what kills botulinum 3.)is botulism toxin heat sensitive 4.)if you can reheat the food, you __the botulism toxin 5.)C. botulinum is __are __forming |
6-15 reheating canned goods yes denature anaerobic, spore |
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1.)gram stain of C. botulinum 2.)what are C. botulinum associated with 3.)with botulinum, you ingest it and it goes in the blood and causes ___, which blocks the release of __ 4.)with botulism, your pupils __, because the iris is made of __muscle |
positive canned goods (anaerobic environment) flaccid paralysis, ACH dilate, smooth |
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1.)what eventually kills you with botulism 2.)infant botulism is when the infant ingest __and they germinate in the intestines and makes __then cause flaccid paralysis and death 3.)what causes infant botulism 4.)botulinum toxin is a __, but it is destroyed by __ |
paralysis of the diaphragm spores, toxins honey (contain spores) neurotoxin, heat |
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1.)with botulinum there are an average of __cases annually 2.)with botulinum, __% of cases are infant, __%wound, and __%foodborne 3.)are home prepared foods a common source of illness with botulinum 4.)__is a gastrointestinal illness caused by foodborne Salmonella infection |
150 70, 15, 15 yes Salmonellosis |
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1.)Salmonellosis is causes by handling __infected animals or eating food contaminated with __ 2.)with Salmonellosis, onset of the disease occurs __hours after ingestion 3.)salmonellosis normally resolves in __days 4.)Salmonella ingested in food or water invades __and grows as an __pathogen 5.)common form of E. coli |
Salmonella, Salmonella 8-48 2-5 phagocytes, intracellular E. coli O157:H:7 |
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1.)the O stands for the __antigen and the H is the __antigen 2.)with E. coli, hemolytic uremic syndrome kills the __ 3.)Shigella toxin causes __ 4.)are most E. coli nonpathogenic 5.)with E. coli, all pathogenic strains are __parasites, and a few produce potent __ |
somatic, flagellar kidney dysentery (blood diarrhea) yes intestinal, enterotoxins |
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1.)shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC) strains produce __, an enterotoxin similar to shiga toxin produced by SHIGElla dysentaria 2.)STEC was formerly called ___ 3.)verotoxin causes __and __ 4.)example of cross contamination 5.)__is another common cause of bacterial foodborne infections in the US |
verotoxin Enterohemorrhagic E. coli EHEC bloody diarrhea, kidney failure raw meat in ice chest, then not cleaned Campylobacter spp. |
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1.)campylobacter are gram __and motile __shaped 2.)are other types of E. coli enterotoxigenic (ETEC), enteroinvasive (EIEC), and enteropathogenic (EPEC) 3.)there are more than __cases of bacterial diarrhea per year (campylobacter) |
negative, spiral yes 2,000,000 |
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1.)campylobacter is transmitted to humans via _ 2.)campylobacter replicates in the __ 3.)what are some contaminate foods associated with campylobacter 4.)campylobacter causes __, headache, malaise, __, abdominal cramps, and __stools 5.)Listeria monocytogenes is the cause for __ |
contaminated foods small intestine poultry, pork, raw shellfish, or in surface waters fever, nausea, bloody listeriosis |
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1.)L. monocytogenes is gram __ and what is its morphology 2.)Listeriosis may lead to __and __ 3.)is any food product safe from contamination 4.)listeriosis is also ___(how it handles temp.) 5.)L. monocytogenes is an __pathogen |
positive, coccobacillus (nonspoulating) bacteremia, meningitis no psychrotolerant intracellular |
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1.)with L. monocytogenes, the uptakeof the pathogen by __results in the growth and proliferation of the bacterium 2.)mortality rate of listeriosis is __% 3.)__causes foodborne infections due to contaminated meats and dairy products |
phagocytes 20 Yesinia entercolitica |
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1.)which bacteria can cause life threatening enteric fever 2.)__grows in food that is cooked and left to cool slowly, causes diarrhea and vomiting 3.)__causes nearly 100,000 cases of severe foodborne invasive gastroenteritis each year 4.)the largest number of annual foodborne infections are though to be caused by __ |
Yersinia enterocolitica Bacillus cereus Shigella spp. viruses |
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1.)__viruses responsible for most infections 2.)__, __virus, and __are responsible for the rest of the infections 3.)with protists, the important foodborne diseases are caused by __, __, and __ 4.)protists diseases can be spread in foods contaminated by __matter in water used to wash, irrigate, or spray crops |
1.)noroviruses 2.)rotavirus, hepatitis A, astrovirus 3.)Giardia intestinalis, Cryptosporidium parvum, and Cyclospora cayetanensis 4.)fecal |
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1.)C. pavrum is resistant to __ 2.)__are often the source of protists infections 3.)__can be spread by raw or undercooked meat 4.)__are proteins that adopt novel conformations that inhibit normal protein function and cause degeneration of neural tissue |
chlorine fresh fruits Toxoplasma gaondii prions |
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1.)a new variant of prion, __disease, is linked to consumption of meat from cattle suffering with bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE), a prion disease |
Creutzfeldt-Jakob |
