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72 Cards in this Set
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External Structures (Appendages): __ are long, thin helical filaments which allow the cells to be motile and respond chemotactically (used this to pick up food). They are composed of proteins (flagellins) which can be used as a serological markers termed __. They also may contribute as virulence factors by promoting what? |
-flagella -H antigens -spread of infection and attachment (this is an advantage) |
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How do we distinguish a prok vs a euk cell? (3)
All bacteria have what 3 charateristics? |
-The way the DNA is packaged, make up of its wall, and internal structures (no complex organelles)
-cell membrane, ribosomes, and one more chromosome (some have cell wall) |
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__ flagella are similar to flagella except enclosed in a sheath (not antigenic) and are attached to and wound around the long axis of the cells. __ are thin hair like filaments which are straighter ad shorter than flagella and generally occur over the entire cell surface *occur on a number on gram - and a few on gram +*. Act as a virulence factor by mediating __ and allowing __ |
-Periplasmic (aka axial filaments or internal flagella) *example are spirochetes and borrelia* -fimbriae (for attachment and mating) -attachment (act as receptors aka adhesions) to host tissue -colonization |
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__ is for attaching and matting; is a structure of gram negative bacteria involved in the transfer of DNA (conjugation) The bacteria surface coating that protects the bacteria from phagocytes are called __. Some examples are will secrete large polymers that adhere to cell walls like __ which cells will appear to be embedded in it. Also __ which has a discrete encasement about each cell. serological designation of glycocalyx is __ antigen. What are the functions of a glycocalyx |
-pilus -glycocalyx -slime -capsule -K -increase the virulence of pathogens by conferring resistance to phagocytosis, plays a role in adherence and development of biofilms, and helps protect against antibodies |
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majority of bacteria have a __ which lies outside the cytoplasm. In Gram - the cell envelope is made out of how many layers and what are they? What about gram +? Cell wall: Structures of the cell wall helps determine the __ of a bacterium and provides strong structural support. Most are rigid because of __ content. It keeps cells from rupturing because of changes in pressure due to __. They target many antibiotics (disrupt cell wall=no protection from lysis) and cell wall is affected by_
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-cell envelope -3 layers; outer membrane, cell wall, and cytoplasmic membrane -2 layers; cell wall and cytoplasmic membrane -shape -peptidoglycan -osmosis -lysozyme |
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__ comprises linear polymers of N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM) linked with a beta 1,4 bond. This linkage is susceptible to what? This wall is affected by _ antibiotic. __ preforms the last step in the formation of peptidoglycan (glycine interbridges) |
-peptidoglycan -lysozymes -beta lactem -transpeptidase
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_ has a thick peptidoglycan. It also contains acidic polysaccharides called __ and __ which are the virulence factors __ has a thin peptidoglycan. The _ space surround its peptidoglycan. __ and __ have no typical cell wall so they are not considered gram - or gram +. Most are like _ cause they have a thick peptidoglycan. They have lipids like __. What is a appropriate differential stain for these bacteria? |
-Gram + -techoic acid -lipoteichoic acid -Gram - -periplasmic -myobacterium -Nocardia -gram + -mycolic acids -acid fast
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__ lack a cell wall, so antibiotics targeting peptidoglycan will not be effective. (like Beta lactem) In gram -, the outer cell membrane is similar to the cell membrane except that it contains what? (2). The upper most layer of the outer cell membrane is _ which is an endotoxin, and is involved in shock and fever. |
-myoplasmas -polysaccharides and proteins -lipopolysaccharide (LPS) |
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Outer cell membrane: _ is found in all gram negative bacteria.* It is composed of three regions which are?* LPS plays a role in many bacterial infections causing __and __. The uppermost layer also contains a __ which is involved in forming a channel that allows passage of small molecules. The inner most layer of the outer cell membrane is a _ layer anchored by __ to the peptidoglycan layer below |
-LPS -Lipid A, core polysaccharide and O-specific polysaccharide ( termed O or somatic antigen) -shock and fever -protein porin -phospholipid -lipoprotein
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Gram staining: Gram + and Gram - take up crystal violet and iodine. The CV-I complex is trapped in __ by dehydration and reduced porosity of the thick cell wall when washed with ethanol. The __ does not prevent CV-I complex extraction. IF you apply safranin (red) to both will result in __ being pruple and __ will be pink or red. |
-gram + -Gram - -Gram + -Gram - |
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__ is made of the lipid bilayer with embedded proteins. It is very thin and contains mostly _ and __. What is the function of the cell membrane? (3) Bacterial Internal structure: its cytoplasm is 70-80% made of __; serves as a solvent for the cell pool. T or F: bacteria chromsome are ss stranded pieces of DNA. __ are are nonessential pieces of DNA which are ds circles of DNA and often confer protective traits like drug resistance or production of toxins and enzymes |
-cell membrane -phospholipids -proteins -active transport, energy transducing systems and synthesis of phospholipids, peptidoglycan (peptidases which are penicilin binding proteins that link polymers of NAG and NAM), and glycocalyx material -water -true -plasmids |
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Bacterial internal structures: __ are sites for protein synthesis; made of ribosomal RNA and protein. Why can transcription and translation occur at the same time in bacteria? What are the main targets for antibiotics? __ are storage bodies and some serve as nutrient reserves and include polysaccharides, lipids and polyphosphates.
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-ribosomes -b/c there is no physical separation by a nuclear membrane from the nucleus -ribosomes --inclusions or granules
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__ are dormant bodies that extremely resistant. What will induce this state? * they can withstand heat, drying, freezing, radiation and chemicals* What are the three general shapes of bacteria? __ is when cells of a single species vary to some extent in shape and size. How do we classify bacteria? (4) |
-endospores *dont do well in high O2* -factors of the environment like depletion of nutrients -coccus (roughly spherical), bacillus (rod shaped), and curved or spiral forms *look at pg 35 for specific examples if needed* -Pleomorphism -shape, variations in arrangement, staining reactions, and growth characteristics |
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Approaches to Taxonomy: __ is a phenotypic test when colonies of different bacteria that vary in size, shape, color, and odor are grown. can perform direct examination to see __, growth characteristics, culture and biochemical characteristics and can perform biochemical test |
-colony morphology -morphology and staining reactions
*look at pg 36 for details* |
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__ are used to classify the serotype strains of a particular species by testing for the presence of a specific cell wall (o), flagellar (H), and capsular (K) antigens and other components which sercve as antigens. __ is when different strains of identical species are susceptible to one or more different strains or types of species-specific bacterial viruses. __ will sense what bacteria surrounds the type of antibiotic. |
-serologic reactivity (with antibodies) -bacteriophage typing -antibiotic sensitivity |
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We can classify the bacteria genes in the genus or species by what? (3) Or you can classify the genes by subspecies by using what? (3) What is a good source of bacterial classification? In the early classification they saw the __ traits of bacteria. In the current version it combines __ with __ |
-GC content, DNA/RNA homology, DNA/RNA sequencing -Nucleic acid probe, nucleotide digests, and plasmid profiles -bergey's manual -phenotypic traits -phenotypic traits -rRNA sequencing |
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__ is a distinct organism with distinguishing ft or a group of bacteria that resemble each other by similar distinctive ft. __ strain is a common joe strain (example of species) **subspecies, type, or strain are the same species of bacteria but different characteristics and serotype is the same species but stimulate different antibodies** |
-species -A type |
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What are so special/(unusual forms of bacteria) about Rickettsias and Chlamydias bacteria? __ are agents for spotted fevers; alternate between mammalian host and blood-sucking arthropods. __ are agents for STD, can cause trachoma (infection of the eye) or pneumonia (infection of the lung) |
-they are obligate intracellular parasites -Rickettsias -Chlamydias |
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Bacteria (nutrients): Growth factors are essential organic nutrients that include amino acids, a nitrogenous base, or a vitamen that cannot be synthesized by an organism for example ___ __ organisms will obtain their carbon and entergy from organic sources, these organism will perform what two pathways to obtain energy? |
-haemophilus influenzae -Chemoheterotrophs -aerobic respiration and fermentation |
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__ organisms will derive nutrients from the cells or tissue of a host, they are also called pathogens because they cause damage to tissues or even death. they are certain types like __ that live on the body. ___ live in organs and tissues. __ live within the cells, and __ are unable to grow outside of the living host. |
-parasitic microorganisms -ectoparasites -endoparasites -intracellular parasites -obligate parasites |
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__ (a microbe) optimum temperature below 15 C and is capable of growth at 0 C. __ grow slowly in the cold but have an optimum temperature above 20 C for example __ which is capable of optimum growth from 1-45 C *this bacteria can invade pregnant women and infect fetus*. __ organisms have a optimal growth temperature from 20-40 C, most bacterial human bacterial pathogens are these kinds (humans are perfect enviornment for these microbes). __ grows optimaly at temperatures greater than 45 C |
-psychrophile -psychrotrophs -listeria monocytogenes -mesophile -thermophile
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Which atmospheric gases influence microbial growth the most? Which gas has the most effect on microbial growth? As O2 enters into cellular reactions, it is transformed into several toxic products, most cells have developed enzymes that go about scavenging and neutralizing these chemicals such as __ and __. __ enzyme is used steptococcus |
-CO2 and O2 -O2 -catalase -superoxide dimutase -catalase |
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_ can use gaseous O2 in its metabolism and possesses the enzymes needed to process toxic oxygen products. __ cannot grow with out oxygen __ is an anaerobe that does not require O2 for its metabolism and is capable of growth in the absence of O2. For mixed anaerobic infections (which include both facultative and aerotolerants to grow) __ will create an environment allowing aerotolerants to grow. |
-aerobe -obligate aerobe -falcultative anerobe -falcultative |
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__ organisms do not grow at normal atmostpheric concentrations of O2 but requires a small amount of it in metabolism __ lacks the metabolic enzyme systems for using oxygen in respiration. _ also lack the enzymes for processing toxic oxygen and cannot tolerate any free oxygen in the immediate environment and will die if exposed to it. What is therapeutically used for anaerobic infections? |
-microaerophile -anaerobe -strict or obligate anaerobe -hyperbaric oxygen
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__ do not utilize oxygen but can survive and grow to a limited extent in the presence of O2. __ will grow best at higher carbon dioxide, give an example? majority of bacteria live or grow in habitats between a ph of __-__. How does Helicobacter pylori survive low pH environments? __ microbes are acidogenic, which helps create a healthy mix of normal flora of the vaginal tract |
-aerotolerant anaerobes -capnophiles -Neisseria gonorrhoeae -6 and 8 -by producing urease -lactobacillus |
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What are the two levels of growth for bacteria? Replication of bacteria is done by__ __ is the time required for a complete fission cycle. Each new fission cycle increases the population by a factor of __. Does the doubling effect continue at a constant rate? The length of the _ is a measure of the growth rate of an organism. What is the avg generation time in optimum conditions? __ microbe generation time is 10-13 days, and __ is 20-30 minutes |
-cell synthesize new cell components and increases in size, and number of cells in the population increases -binary fission -2 -yes if the conditions are favorable (optimum) -generation time -30 to 60 minutes -mycobacterium leprae -salmonella enteriditis |
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The __ curve is a depiction of population changes in a bacterial culture. __ phase is the period of physiological adjustment. __ phase is the maximal division rate. __ stage is when the stage of cell inhibition or death balances multiplication. __ phase is when the cell begins to die at an exponential rate. What is the importance of the growth curve? (2) What are some growth measurements? (2)
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-population growth curve -lag -exponential or logarithmic (log) -stationary -death -implication of microbial control and infection, and growth patterns can account for stages of infection -turbidity assesment, and Enumeration of bacteria (viable count, direct count, and coulter counter)
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Role of microbial enzymes in disease: Many bacterial pathogens secrete exoenzymes. Some of these enzymes help the bacteria avoid host cell __ and promote __ in tissues. These exoenzymes are called __ or toxins. __ is an enzyme for streptococcus pyogenes. __ is for Pseudomonas aeruginosa. __ is for clostridium perfringens |
-defenses -replication -virulence factors -streptokinase -elastase and collagenase -lecithinase C |
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Final electron acceptor in aerobic metabolism is _? What about anaerobic metabolism? What pathway do we use to break down glucose (catabolism)? In aerobic respiration what 3 pathways are used to break glucose into water and carbon dioxide with O2 being a terminal electron acceptor? |
-O2 -organic or inorganic compound -glycolysis -glycoysis, krebs cycle, respiratory chain
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Biochemical test: based on the production of an _ enzyme which catalyzes the oxidation of reduced cytochrome by molecular oxygen. _ is a reagent of this test that are artificial electron acceptors. A _ test (in most aerobic and facultatively anerobic bacteria) a by-product of aerobic respiration can be hydrogen peroxide which can be toxic at high concentrations. This test will use H2O2 as an oxidant and reductant to convert into water and ground state O2. |
-oxidase -kovacs -catalase |
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What are the terminal electron acceptors in anaerobic respiration? A large group of facultative anaerobic respirers are the nitrate reducers like _ and __. The _ test determines the ability of an organism to reduce nitrate to nitrites or free nitrogen gas. What antibiotic are these nitrogen reductase producers susceptible to? |
-NO3, SO4 and CO3 (difference between aerobes is that it utilizes oxygen containing compounds rather than free nitrogen gas) -E coli and Staphylcoccus aureus -nitrate reduction -metronidazole
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What organisms will utilize fermentation or anaerobic respiration? A lot of fermentative end products maybe produced by various __ bacteria? What are some of these end products? Catabolism of non carbohydrates compounds: Many bacteria can degrade exogenous proteins using the products as __-__ energy sources (proteases that will hydrolyze proteins into peptides and peptidases will break down peptides to individual AA which are then catabolized) breakdown products leave an odor which is associated with bacteria
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-obligate, aerotolerant, and facultative organisms -heterotrophic -lactic acid, ethanol, acetic acid, butyric acid, butanol, propionic acid, and acetone (usesful biochemical identification) -carbon-nitrogen |
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Smallest viruses will have how many genes? E coli has how many genes? And how many genes does the human have? __ is an antibiotic and inhibits bacterial DNA replication by targeting bacterial DNA gyrases and topoisomerases. |
-4-5 -4,288 -20,000-25,000 -fluoroquinolones |
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What is the gene-protein connection? Examples of Antibiotics that affect transcription and translation: _ blocks transcription (mycobacterium tuberculosis). _ and _ block translation |
-the triplet code and the relationship to proteins -rifampin -erythromycin -streptomycin |
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__ is a process in which progeny bactgeria possess a combination of genes which are different (hybrid genomes) than those present in the parental bacteria. The transfer of DNA from donor cells to recipient cells, which may give rise to recombinant forms of bacteria, is accomplished by what 3 mechanisms? |
-bacterial recombination -conjugation, transformation, and transduction |
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__ is bacterial sex; transfer of DNA by direct contact between cells the genetic material is transferred through a cytoplasmic bridge. How the sexual differentiation determined? _ is a an extrachromosomal, autonomously replicating DNA molecule (a type of plasmid). The information within the F promotes what? (3). the __ allows recognition of recipient cells and allows close interaction by initiating wall to wall contact. |
-Conjugation -by the presence or absence of F (+ for male - for female) -F factor -conjugation, gene exchange, and synthesis of sex specific pili -sex pili *R factors carry genes for resisting antibiotics, heavy metals or synthesizing virulence factors*
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__ is a process in which naked DNA derived from one cell or virus is taken up by another cell and recombines with the genome. The ability to incorporate DNA in this manner is termed __. When does this occur? |
-Transformation -Competency -log phase growth |
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__ is when DNA of one cell is introduced into another cell by virus infection. This uses __ that replicate as obligate intracellular parasites. In the process of replicating, cellular DNA may accidentally be incorporated into new viruses. _ is a type of transduction where viral infection of a donor bacterium causes the denaturation and fragmentation of bacterial DNA. In this process, viral replication and maturation may result in incorporation of any portion of the bacterial genome into the __ capsid. Now this capsid can introduce this DNA to a recipient bacterium |
-transduction -bacterial viruses (bacteriophages) -generalized transduction -viral
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_ is type of transduction where viral infection of a donor bacterium includes insertion (integration) of the viral genome into a SPECIFIC location. *excision of the viral DNA may result in accidental incorporation of bacterial DNA. *this results in a HYBRID DNA of virus and bacteria* What virulence strains produce toxins coded for by bacteriophage genes is introduced by transduction? |
-specialized transduction -corynebacterium diphtheriae, clostridium spp, and streptococcus pyogenes |
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__ are extrachromosomal genetic elements capable of autonomous replication. What phenotypic characteristics do they carry? What is the primary cause of antibiotic resistant pathogens? *majority are ds and circular* |
-plasmids -antibiotic resistance, biodegradative enzymes, enterotoxins, and hemolysin production -spread of antibiotic resistance plasmids among bacteria |
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_ are segments of ds DNA that can move from palce to place within a genome or between genomes or plasmids or phage genomes. Can it cause mutations? Can they replicate on their own? They possess a _ which is responsible for transposability. __ are small segments of ds DNA that code for site for specific recombination. *When these sequences intergrate into a gene, function or activity is altered* |
-Transposons -yes -no -insertion sequence *(a recognition site for pathogenic islands)* -insertion sequences |
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__ involves the isolation of specific genes in hybrid replicons (recombinant DNA). __ vectors are used to introduce recombinant DNA in a suitable hosts for replication an expression. Can be used in diagnosis and therapy of microbial disease *read example in the packet* |
-gene cloning -Cloning |
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Diagnosis of infections: what are the goal for the diagnosis? (3) What is the advantage and is disadvantage of sing genotypic methods? |
-provide information for selection of good therapeutic procedures, identification for pathogen and potential of spread, and to seek the source of infection to prevent widespread transmission by determining epidemiology -adv: is that you dont always have to culture the microbe, very quick diagnosis. disadv: limits your info |
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__ methods use an immune response; looking for antigen that makes the immune response to make antibodies (you can identify antigen with antibody); blood testing (easier) Type of Specimen collection: __ speciments are collected from normally sterile tissues for example CSF. methods include needle aspiration of an abscess to surgical biopsy |
-immunologic -direct |
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Type of specimen collection: __ specimens are inflammatory exudates (for example sputum and urine) the samples through sites known to be colonized with normal flora. The site of origin is usually _. Assessment requires knowledge of the potential contaminating __. ___ are when test are selective, or the organism know to cause infection that are not normally found at the infected site. give an example? |
-indirect -normal flora -flora -samples from normal flora sites (pharynx or large intestines -Campylobacter jejuni |
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What is the most common method of collection? What is the disadv of this method? The best specimen is how much? |
-sterile swab -limits volume and survival of specimen -5-10 ml of infected fluid or tissue *viability is a problem, transport media stabilize conditions and prevents drying* |
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Direct examination is used for what? name me two examples of light microscopy? __ microscopy is when the condensor focuses light diagonally on the specimen. **Used for thin Bacteria like __ __ microscopy is similar to dark field microscopy except the light source is UV and bacteria are stained with fluorescent dyes |
-morphology and staining reactions -grain stain and acid fast stain -dark-field -treponema pallidum -fluorescence |
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isolation medias: __ media is when preparations that include components for growth to permit isolation and propagation (for other diagnostic test). __ media will contain chemicals or antibiotics or antimicrobes that will inhibit the growth of unwanted bacteria but allow growth of specific pathogens. When is this method used? __ media will contain material that demonstrate biochemical characteristics for ex pH indicators for fermentation products or whole RBC for hemolysin production (for ex Beta hemolytic streptococcus pyogens) |
-nutrient media -selective -when specimens are taken from sites with extensive normal flora -indicator |
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Name example of biochemical testing? (3) __ typing is when the virus is susceptible to determine epidemiology. Considerations in selecting an antimicrobial drug: When testing the drug susceptibility of microorganisms- ____- is the lowest conentration of an antimicrobial agent that is able to inhibit the growth of a test bacterium |
-Carbohydrate fermentation (acid/gas), enzyme actions (like catalase, oxidase, coagulase), by products of metabolism -phage -Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) |
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continued: __ method is bacterial inoculum is applied to an agar plate and then paper disk to which antimicrobial agents have been added are placed on the agar sugar. This method depends on the development of a __ of a antimicrobic concentration as each agent diffuses into the agar. The zone size is examined and can be categorized as susceptible, indeterminate, or resistant |
-Kirby Bauer method (disk agar diffusion) -gradient |
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continued" __ is when paper strips containing a continuous gradient of antimicrobial agents concentrations are placed on an inoculated agar surface. An elliptical zone of inhibition forms as the antimicrobial agent inhibits growth. the _ is read where growth intersects the strip. _ is an agent that is suspended in a medium to a given concentration and added in a 2 fold dilution to a microtiter plate containing appropriate broth medium and inoculum of a bacterium. the __ is determined as the concentration visibly inhibiting growth |
-Etest -MIC -Micro-broth dilution -MIC |
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DNA analysis using a genetic probe: __ can identify a bacterial species by analyzing segments of its DNA. __ are small fragments of ss DNA or RNA and is known to be complementary to the specific sequences of DNA from a particular microbe . __ is used to identify bloodborne pathogens with the necessity of culturing. What do we use to "fish out" unknown pathogen rRNA? |
-hybridization -probes -peptide nucleic acid FISH (fluorescent in situ hybridization) -PCR primer |
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Immunologic methods: characteristics of __ can reveal the history of a patients contact with microorganisms or other antigens Agglutinatin and precipitation reactions: __ test for salmonellosis. __ test for syphilis. __ test for rickettsial disease. __ test is when the antigen or IgG antibody is absorbed to the surface of latex polystyrene beads (used on streptococcus pneumoniae, neisseria gonorrhoeae, N meningitidis, staphylococcus aureus, and candida) |
-antibodies -widal -rapid plasma reagin -weil-felix -Latex agglutination (LA) |
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-precipation test are when soluble antigen is precipitated by an antibody for example _ for syphilis. In vivo test for example __ test which uses skin reaction to purified protein derivative (PPD) |
-VDRL -Tuberculin |
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There are general ways of controlling microorganisms in the environment (nosocomial infection). __ is the destruction of all microbial life __ destroys most microbial life reducing contamination on inanimate surfaces. __ destroys most microbial life, reducing contamination on a living surface. __ is the mechanical removal of most microbes from an animate or inanimate surface |
-sterilization -disinfection -antisepsis -decontamination |
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What are the forms of microbes are the highest resistant to chemical changes in the environment? Moderate? Least? |
-*prions, and endospores* --protozoans, naked viruses, myobacterium, etc -vegetative cells, enveloped viruses, yeast... etc |
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__ is the growth of microorganisms in the blood and other tissues. __ is any practice that prevents the entry of infectious agents into sterile tissues. _ is applied directly to exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens. |
-sepsis -asepsis
*virucide is a chemical that inactivates viruses, and microbistatic are when materials are used to control microorganisms in the body*
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What is the goal of antimicrobial therapy? __ and __ affect the bacterial cell wall. What do these drugs interact with when affecting the cell wall? When are the antibiotics active? What is the end affect of these type of drugs? |
-*to administer a drug to an infected person which destroys the infective agent w/out harming the host* -penicillin -cephalosporins -certain enzymes that help the cell wall grown (for example penicillin binds to transpeptidases) -when the cell is growing -cell is weakened leading to lysis of the cell (so antibiotics that effect cell wall do not perform cleavag of the wall) |
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What are the 3 main components of the antibiotic penicillin and its relatives? Which component actually interacts with the bacterial transpeptidase? What is the role of the R group? What do some bacteria produce to break down penicillin (or to wear down the antibiotics affects)? What antibiotics are resistant to penicillinase? |
-thiazolidine ring, beta lactam ring, and an R group -the beta lactem ring -they produce enzymes to break down penicillin like penicillinase (a beta lactamase) that will split the beta lactem ring of the penicillin -methicillin and nafcillin *R groups can also at as blocking sites* |
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What are the primary problems in antibiotic therapy? __ are "suicide" inhibitors of B lactamases; they bind to and inactivate B lactamases enzymes and are used to expand the spectrum of B lactam antibiotics |
-cause allergic reactions and some bacteria strains maybe resistant -Beta lactamase inhibitors *examples are clavunate, and sulbactum* |
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Which group of drugs is structurally similar to penicillin also as the same mode of action when stopping microbes but is the most administrated antibiotics? why are they more administrated? what are some types? What drugs are used for myobacterium tuberculosis? |
-cephalosporins -they are more resistant to penicillinases, and cause fewer allergic reactions -cefazolin, cephlathin, cefaclor, cefonacid, cephalexin, cefotaxime, cefapirone, and cefepime -bacitracin; isoniazid |
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__ are drugs that disrupt the cell membrane function, they are limited because they are toxic to the _ organ __ is a type of antibiotic that targets DNA or RNA, it specifically inhibits the gyrases and topoisomerases. Which antibiotics (of quinolones) are used against STD's, urinary tract, gastrointestinal, respiratory, soft tissue infections, and osteomyelitis? Which are used for pneumonia, bronchitis, and sinusitis? |
-polymyxin -kidney *amphotericin B (for fungus) -quinolones (fluoroquinolones) -ciprofloxacin and norfloxacin -sparfloxcin and levofloxacin |
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_ is a antibiotic that targets DNA or RNA , which inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerases, preventing RNA synthesis (transcription). This drug is mainly used for which infection? __ is an antibiotic that targets DNA or RNA, and its reduced form acts as a free radical that damages bacterial DNA, some anaerobic bacteria produce nitroreductase that reduces the compound
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-rifamycin -tuberculosis *mainly for infections by gram + rods and cocci and few gram - bacteria* -metronidazole |
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What antibiotics stop translation? (3) give examples of aminoglycosides? tetracyclines? What 3 infections are tetracyclines mainly used for? Give me 3 examples of macrolides (least toxic)? _ are used for typhoid fever but are very toxic to humans __ cause adverse reactions in the GI tract (messes up the normal flora in humans so applications are limited) |
-aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, and macrolides -streptomycin, neomycin, kanamycin, gentamicin, trobamycin, amikacin, and spectinomycin -doxycycline and minocycline -chlamydia, mycoplasma, and rickettsia -erythromycin, azithromycin, and clarithromycin -Chloramphenicol -clindamycin
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__ is effective against staphylococcus and enterococcus species and against resistant strains of streptococcus. (used for organisms that are resistant to other antibiotics) __ is not found in nature but used to treat infects cause by two of the most difficult pathogens which are staphylcoccus auerus (which is methicillin resistant MRSA) and Enterococcus (which is vancomycin resistant VRE) |
-streptogramin -oxazolidones (linezolid) |
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__ and __ are antibiotics that inhibit folic acid synthesis which is required for purine, pyrimidine, and amino acids synthesis. How do bacteria become resistant to a drug? |
-sulfonamides -trimethoprim -after spontaneous mutation or new set of genes are acquired through transfer from another species |
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What are some specific mechanisms for drug resistance (4) What is biota? what happens to biota if a broad spectrum antimicrobial is used? |
-drug inactivation mechanism (Staph and Neisseria have PPNG (penicillinase producing NG)), decreases drug permeability or increased pumps, changes in metabolic patterns (folic acid synthesis), and changes in the drug receptors -beneficial bacteria -it will be destroyed |
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__ is when the beneficial species are destroyed and microbes that were once kept in small numbers can begin to grow and cause diseases. What are the considerations when selecting an antibiotic? What is the human microbiome project? |
-superinfections -identifying the agent, and testing for the drug susceptibility of microorganisms -metagenomics being used to identify the microbial profile inside humans that are normal flora |
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How can bacterial biota benefit humans? In large intestine microbiota, bottle fed infants have which bacteria? breast fed? In the large intestine (in an adult) there is a large number of which biota bacteria? small number of what? |
-by preventing overgrowth of harmful microbes (microbial antagonism) -coliforms, lactobacilli, enteric streptococci and staphylococci -bifidobacterium 1 -bacteroides, bifidobacterium, fusobacterium, and clostridium -E coli |
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__ pathogens are capable of causing disease in healthy individuals with normal immune functions (For example yersinia pestis and plague; inlfuenza) _ pathogens cause disease when the hosts defense are compromised or when they become established in apart of the body that is not natural to them (ex: Pseudomonas in burn pts) _ are large inserts of DNA that include virulence genes not found in nonpathogenic members of the genra |
-true -opportunistic -pathogenicity islands |
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__ is a system of stimulus that responds to the population density that determines the regulation of virulence genes including pathogenicity islands What are the names of the pathogens that can infect humans during pregnancy and birth? |
-quorum sensing -TORCH (Taxoplasmosis, other (hepatitis, syphilis), rubella, CMV, and herpes simplex virus) |
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The size of __ is the quantity of microbes in the inoculating dose. For most agents infections only proceed if the __ is present. T or F: microorganisms with the smaller IDs is the more virulent |
-inoculum -Infectious dose (ID) -True |
